Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Comptia Core 2 Class
Comptia Core 2 Class Stoped at
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What command is used to view a Windows computer's IP configuration? | ipconfig |
| What ipconfig option displays detailed IP configuration information? | /all |
| What ipconfig option releases the computer's current DHCP configuration? | /release |
| What can Windows use to assign an address when a DHCP server is unavailable? | APIPA |
| What command displays the name of the local computer? | hostname |
| What command is commonly used to test network connectivity? | ping |
| What type of ping can be used to test the local TCP/IP configuration? | Local loopback |
| What command traces the route packets take to a remote destination? | tracert |
| What does tracert display for each hop? | Round-trip time |
| What command can display both latency and packet loss for each hop? | pathping |
| What should you suspect if connecting by IP address works but connecting by FQDN does not? | A name resolution or DNS problem |
| What command is used to troubleshoot DNS name resolution? | nslookup |
| What nslookup option specifies the type of DNS resource record to query? | -type= |
| What command is used to examine network connections and ports? | netstat |
| What does the netstat -a option include? | UDP connections |
| What does the netstat -b option show? | The process that opened the port |
| What does the netstat -n option do? | Displays addresses and ports in numerical format |
| What does the netstat -e option display? | Ethernet statistics |
| What does the netstat -s option display? | Protocol statistics |
| What does RDP stand for? | Remote Desktop Protocol |
| What Windows application is used for Remote Desktop Connection? | mstsc.exe |
| What TCP port does RDP use? | TCP port 3389 |
| How are RDP authentication and sessions protected? | They are encrypted |
| Which Windows editions can act as an RDP server? | Pro and Enterprise editions |
| Which Windows editions include the RDP client? | All editions |
| How is Microsoft Remote Assistance initiated? | By invitation only |
| What capabilities are included with Microsoft Remote Assistance? | Chat and remote control |
| What TCP port does Quick Assist use? | TCP port 443 |
| What protocol does TCP port 443 normally use? | HTTPS |
| What Windows technology allows management information to be accessed and exchanged across a network? | WinRM |
| What scripting environment can easily use WinRM? | PowerShell |
| What TCP port does Secure Shell use? | TCP port 22 |
| How is Secure Shell traffic protected? | It is encrypted |
| What two authentication methods can Secure Shell use? | Password-based or key-based authentication |
| What does RMM stand for? | Remote monitoring and management |
| Who primarily uses RMM tools for remote support? | Managed service providers |
| What does MDM help manage? | Devices belonging to a single organization |
| What does EDR stand for? | Endpoint Detection and Response |
| What does a VPN create for communication with internal systems? | An encrypted tunnel |
| What Windows executable opens System Information? | msinfo32.exe |
| What information can System Information display? | System resources, firmware version, OS version, hardware, environment variables, and network status |
| What command opens Event Viewer? | eventvwr.msc |
| What are the four severity levels shown in Event Viewer? | Information, Warning, Error, and Critical |
| What keyboard shortcut directly opens Task Manager? | CTRL+SHIFT+ESC |
| What performance areas can Task Manager monitor? | Applications, disks, and networks |
| Can high memory utilization sometimes be normal? | Yes, Windows may use available memory to maximize performance |
| What Windows tool provides resource monitoring beyond Task Manager's capabilities? | Resource Monitor |
| What executable opens Resource Monitor? | resmon.exe |
| What Windows tool provides real-time statistic charts and logs for long-term analysis? | Performance Monitor |
| What executable opens Performance Monitor? | perfmon.exe |
| What is a policy? | An overall statement of intent |
| What does SOP stand for? | Standard Operating Procedure |
| What is an SOP? | A step-by-step procedure used to complete a task according to policy |
| What is a common use for an SOP? | Standardizing repeatable IT tasks |
| What should a software installation SOP include? | Requirements, source validation, licensing, and documentation |
| What is an onboarding checklist used for? | Setting up accounts, devices, permissions, and access for a new user |
| What is an offboarding checklist used for? | Removing access and recovering or sanitizing company resources |
| What does SLA stand for? | Service Level Agreement |
| What does an SLA define? | The required level of service between a provider and customer |
| What are the two broad types of SLAs discussed in IT support? | Internal and external or third-party |
| What type of information can an SLA specify? | Service availability, performance metrics, and remedies |
| What is a ticketing system used for? | Tracking support requests, incidents, and problems |
| What user information should a support ticket contain? | Name, contact information, and relevant role or department |
| What device information should a support ticket contain? | Relevant device details such as an asset ID or service tag |
| What should the issue description contain? | A clear description of the user's reported problem |
| Why are ticket categories used? | To group and route tickets to the appropriate support resources |
| What does ticket severity indicate? | The impact or priority of an issue |
| What is escalation? | Passing a ticket to a higher or more appropriate support level |
| When should a ticket be escalated? | When the current technician cannot resolve it or greater expertise is required |
| What is Tier 0 support? | Self-service support such as a knowledge base or help bot |
| What is Tier 1 support? | Initial technician diagnosis and support |
| What is Tier 2 support? | Escalation to senior technicians or third-party support |
| What is Tier 3 support? | Escalation to engineers, developers, or senior decision-makers |
| What is a knowledge base? | A repository of troubleshooting articles, procedures, and FAQs |
| What is the purpose of a knowledge base? | To provide documented solutions for users and technicians |
| Why should troubleshooting steps be documented? | So another technician can continue without repeating completed work |
| What is recorded in progress notes? | Troubleshooting actions, test results, and findings |
| What is recorded in the issue resolution field? | The successful fix and verification that the system works |
| What are the three important ticket text areas? | Issue description, progress notes, and issue resolution |
| Why should ticket documentation be clear and concise? | Other technicians and customers may need to understand it |
| What does clear communication mean? | Using understandable language and avoiding unnecessary jargon |
| What does concise communication mean? | Giving the necessary facts using as few words as practical |
| What is an incident? | An unexpected error or service issue affecting a user or customer |
| What is a problem? | The underlying cause of one or more incidents |
| What is a service request? | A request for a standard service that IT already has a procedure for |
| What is a critical incident? | An incident with widespread impact or a potential or actual data breach |
| What is a major incident? | An incident affecting a limited group or involving a suspected security violation |
| What is a minor incident? | An incident without significant impact on customer groups |
| What is an incident report used for? | Identifying causes and recommending corrective or preventive actions |
| What is another name for a lessons learned report? | After-action report |
| What does AAR stand for? | After-Action Report |
| How can resolved incidents improve future support? | They can become knowledge base articles or updates to SOPs |
| What does AUP stand for? | Acceptable Use Policy |
| What does an AUP define? | How users are permitted to use organizational systems and resources |
| Why is an AUP important? | It helps prevent security, legal, and policy violations |
| What might an AUP prohibit? | Unauthorized software, illegal activity, intrusion, and misuse of company resources |
| What is a splash screen used for in compliance? | Displaying required notices or usage requirements at login |
| What is the purpose of asset IDs in support? | To identify and associate a specific device with records and tickets |
| Why can linking tickets to assets be useful? | It allows technicians to review an asset's support history |
| What should a technician do when first receiving a support request? | Acknowledge the request and set expectations for what will happen next |
| Why should a technician repeat the customer's problem back to them? | To confirm that the issue has been understood correctly |
| What should a technician establish after acknowledging a support request? | The next steps and an expected timeline |
| What customer expectations should be clarified during support? | What will be done to fix the issue and when |
| What customer concerns should a technician identify? | Concerns such as cost and impact on business operations |
| What constraints may affect a support request? | Time, parts, cost, and contractual obligations |
| What should a technician do if an issue cannot be resolved promptly? | Escalate it to the appropriate support level |
| Who should take ownership of ensuring a support issue progresses? | The technician handling the support case |
| Why should open tickets be monitored? | To prevent them from missing agreed service or performance levels |
| Why should customers receive status updates before they ask for them? | To manage expectations and prevent unnecessary follow-up calls |
| How should a technician respond when the company has genuinely failed a customer? | Be accurate and honest, acknowledge the issue, and explain the corrective action |
| Should a technician make excuses when a customer's complaint is valid? | No, acknowledge the problem and focus on resolving it |
| What should a technician provide when equipment must be sent for repair? | Return instructions, tracking information, and an RMA if required |
| What does RMA stand for? | Returned Merchandise Authorization |
| What should a customer receive when a product is being replaced? | Clear delivery or reorder instructions and information about returning the defective product |
| What should a technician explain after resolving an issue? | What caused the issue and what was done to fix it |
| What should be done before closing a support ticket? | Test the solution and verify that the customer is satisfied |
| What should be recorded when closing a ticket? | The solution and verification that the issue was resolved |
| Why might a technician perform a follow-up after resolving an issue? | To verify the problem has not returned and the customer remains satisfied |
| What is one hallmark of professional IT support? | Respect |
| What should a technician do if they will be late to an appointment? | Inform the customer as soon as possible |
| How should a technician handle a problem they have never seen before? | Be honest, document it, research it, and give the customer a follow-up timeline |
| What should a technician avoid while working at a customer's site? | Unnecessary calls, texts, web browsing, games, social media, and other distractions |
| When is an interruption acceptable while working on a support issue? | When a genuinely critical incident or emergency requires attention |
| What should a technician do before placing a customer on hold? | Ask for the customer's permission |
| What should a technician do before transferring a customer's call? | Ask for the customer's permission |
| How should a technician handle confidential files that are open on a customer's computer? | Ask the customer to close them before beginning work |
| Should a technician examine private documents found near the work area? | No |
| How should a technician use a customer's equipment? | Only for purposes required to resolve the support issue |
| How should a technician leave a customer's workspace after completing work? | Clean and in the condition it was found |
| How should a technician greet a customer in person? | Introduce themselves and their company professionally |
| How should a technician answer a support phone call? | Introduce themselves and their department and offer assistance |
| What type of language should technicians use with customers? | Clear and concise language the customer can understand |
| What type of language should technicians avoid with nontechnical customers? | Unnecessary jargon, acronyms, abbreviations, and technical terminology |
| Why should technical jargon be avoided with customers? | The customer may not understand it |
| How should a technician determine how technical their explanation should be? | Adapt the explanation to the customer's level of technical knowledge |
| Should a technician use slang or overly familiar language with customers? | No |
| What is cultural sensitivity? | Awareness and consideration of other people's customs, communication styles, and expectations |
| What is the safest approach when deciding how formally to address a customer? | Start formally and become less formal if the customer indicates that preference |
| Why should technicians avoid cultural stereotypes? | Individuals should not be assumed to behave a certain way based on culture |
| How can a technician overcome a language barrier? | Use questions, summaries, restatements, visual aids, or demonstrations |
| What is active listening? | Giving the customer full attention without interrupting, arguing, or misinterpreting them |
| What are useful active listening techniques? | Restating, summarizing, reflecting key phrases, and taking notes |
| Why should a technician restate a customer's issue? | To verify understanding and show that the customer was heard |
| What is an open-ended question? | A question that allows the customer to describe the issue in their own words |
| What is an example of the purpose of an open-ended question? | To gather broad information about what the customer is experiencing |
| What is a closed question? | A question requiring a specific response such as yes, no, or a particular fact |
| When should open-ended questions generally be used? | At the beginning of troubleshooting to gather information |
| When should closed questions generally be used? | To clarify details and confirm or eliminate possible causes |
| Why should a technician avoid making assumptions too early? | The initial information may not accurately identify the real problem |
| What should a technician do if a customer's description is vague? | Ask specific clarifying questions |
| Why should technicians avoid asking many closed questions too quickly? | It can overwhelm or confuse the customer |
| How should a technician handle an angry customer? | Remain calm, listen, empathize, and focus on resolving the issue |
| Should a technician argue with an angry customer? | No |
| Should a technician dismiss a problem because it seems minor? | No, acknowledge the customer's concern and work toward a resolution |
| Should a technician assume the customer caused the problem through lack of knowledge? | No |
| What are signs that a customer may be becoming angry? | Raised voice, rapid speech, and frequent interruptions |
| What should a technician do when a customer begins becoming angry? | Speak calmly and focus the conversation on positive actions |
| Should a technician take a customer's complaints personally? | No |
| What should a technician do while an upset customer explains the issue? | Actively listen and gather the relevant facts |
| What should a technician do if a customer becomes abusive or threatening? | Follow company policy, issue a warning, and escalate or end the interaction if necessary |
| What should be done if a call is ended because of abusive behavior? | Document the reason for ending the call |
| Should technicians post stories about difficult customers or support incidents on social media? | No |
| Why should support incidents not be posted publicly on social media? | They may expose private information and harm the customer or organization |
| What four workstation operating systems should you recognize for CompTIA A+? | Windows, Linux, macOS, and Chrome OS |
| What three mobile operating systems should you recognize for CompTIA A+? | iOS, iPadOS, and Android |
| What type of operating system is designed for centrally managed business computers? | Business client operating system |
| What type of operating system is designed to run servers? | Network Operating System |
| What does NOS stand for? | Network Operating System |
| What type of operating system is designed primarily for standalone home or small-office computers? | Home client operating system |
| What operating system is used on modern Windows desktop and laptop computers? | Windows 10 or Windows 11 |
| What Microsoft operating system family is designed for servers? | Windows Server |
| On what hardware can macOS normally be installed? | Apple-built computers |
| What type of kernel is macOS derived from? | UNIX |
| Does macOS natively support touchscreen Macs? | No |
| What is Linux? | An open-source operating system kernel used by many distributions |
| What is a Linux distribution? | A Linux-based operating system packaged with software and system tools |
| What are examples of common Linux distributions? | Ubuntu, Debian, Fedora, RHEL, Mint, Arch, and SUSE |
| What is an LTS release? | A version designed to receive long-term support |
| What is a rolling release? | A release model that continuously receives updates rather than major version releases |
| Where is Linux commonly used? | Desktops, servers, embedded devices, and IoT devices |
| What operating system is Chrome OS based on? | Linux |
| What type of computers commonly run Chrome OS? | Chromebooks and Chromeboxes |
| What type of applications was Chrome OS primarily designed around? | Web applications |
| What additional applications can Chrome OS support? | Android and Linux applications |
| What operating system runs on Apple's iPhone? | iOS |
| What operating system runs on modern Apple iPads? | iPadOS |
| Is iOS open-source or closed-source? | Closed-source |
| What type of devices run iOS and iPadOS? | Apple devices |
| What operating system is Android based on? | Linux |
| Is Android open-source or closed-source? | Open-source |
| Why can Android look different between manufacturers? | Manufacturers can customize Android for their devices |
| What is Android fragmentation? | Different devices receiving different OS versions and updates |
| What is a file system? | The method an operating system uses to organize and store files on a storage device |
| What does NTFS stand for? | New Technology File System |
| What is the standard Windows file system? | NTFS |
| What file system must Windows normally be installed on? | NTFS |
| What major security feature does NTFS provide that FAT32 does not? | File and folder permissions |
| What NTFS feature records file system changes to improve recovery after crashes? | Journaling |
| What NTFS feature allows point-in-time copies of files? | Snapshots |
| What Windows feature can use NTFS snapshots? | Volume Shadow Copy Service |
| What NTFS feature can encrypt individual files? | Encrypting File System |
| What does EFS stand for? | Encrypting File System |
| What NTFS feature can limit how much disk space a user consumes? | Disk quotas |
| What is ReFS designed to emphasize? | Resiliency, scalability, and handling large amounts of data |
| What does ReFS stand for? | Resilient File System |
| What advantage does ReFS have when data becomes corrupted? | It can detect and repair certain corruption |
| What is the maximum individual file size supported by FAT32? | 4 GB minus 1 byte |
| Why might a 5 GB file fail to copy to a FAT32 drive? | FAT32 cannot store an individual file larger than 4 GB |
| Does FAT32 provide NTFS-style file permissions? | No |
| Why is FAT32 still commonly used? | It has broad compatibility across operating systems and devices |
| What does exFAT stand for? | Extended File Allocation Table |
| What file system is often a good choice for removable media shared between operating systems? | exFAT |
| What major advantage does exFAT have over FAT32? | It supports files larger than 4 GB |
| Which file system is a good choice for a removable drive needing large files and broad compatibility? | exFAT |
| What file system is commonly used by Linux systems? | ext4 |
| What important reliability feature does ext4 support? | Journaling |
| What does XFS provide? | A high-performance 64-bit journaling file system |
| What Linux distribution commonly uses XFS by default? | Red Hat Enterprise Linux |
| What file system is commonly used by modern macOS systems? | APFS |
| What does APFS stand for? | Apple File System |
| What features does APFS support? | Journaling, snapshots, permissions, ownership, and encryption |
| Can macOS normally read an NTFS drive? | Yes |
| Can macOS normally write to an NTFS drive without additional software? | No |
| What should be checked before upgrading or replacing an operating system? | Hardware and software compatibility |
| What hardware compatibility issue can prevent an OS upgrade? | Unsupported CPU, memory, firmware, or device drivers |
| What security hardware requirement is associated with Windows 11 compatibility? | TPM 2.0 |
| What does TPM stand for? | Trusted Platform Module |
| What is software compatibility? | Whether an application is designed to run on a particular operating system |
| Will a Windows EXE installer normally run directly on Linux? | No |
| What does an EXE file normally represent? | A Windows executable file |
| Why might the same document look different in different applications? | Application and file-format compatibility differences |
| What allows computers using different operating systems to communicate over a network? | Common network protocols |
| Why should user training be considered when changing operating systems? | Users may need help adapting to a different interface and workflow |
| What is a vendor life cycle? | The stages through which a vendor develops, supports, and eventually retires a product |
| What typically happens during the supported phase of a product life cycle? | The vendor provides security patches, fixes, and feature updates |
| What typically happens during extended support? | Critical updates may continue while normal product development decreases |
| What does EOL stand for? | End of Life |
| What does end of life mean for an operating system? | The vendor no longer provides normal support or security updates |
| Why is an end-of-life operating system a security risk? | New vulnerabilities may remain unpatched |
| What are update limitations? | Hardware or software restrictions that prevent a device from receiving newer OS versions |
| What should an organization do before widely deploying a new operating system? | Test hardware, applications, drivers, and compatibility |
| What five basic functions does an operating system provide? | Hardware communication, user interface, file system, application platform, and security |
| How does an operating system communicate with computer hardware? | Through components such as the kernel and device drivers |
| What are the two primary types of operating system user interfaces? | Graphical user interface and command-line interface |
| What does GUI stand for? | Graphical User Interface |
| What does CLI stand for? | Command-Line Interface |
| What operating system function organizes files and folders? | The file system |
| Why do applications require an operating system? | The OS provides the environment and hardware access needed to run them |
| What security features can an operating system provide? | User accounts, password policies, permissions, and lockout policies |
| What is a regulation? | A requirement typically imposed by a government or regulatory authority |
| What is a procedure? | Step-by-step instructions for performing a task |
| What is a policy? | An organizational statement describing rules or expected behavior |
| How do policies and procedures differ? | Policies state requirements while procedures explain how to carry them out |
| Can an organizational policy exist without being required by regulation? | Yes |
| Why are documented procedures important during emergencies? | They provide consistent steps and reduce mistakes during stressful situations |
| What is the first step of the incident lifecycle? | Incident reporting |
| What happens during incident reporting? | An issue is identified and reported to support |
| What happens during ticket creation? | The incident is documented in a tracking system |
| What happens during incident categorization? | The incident is classified by type or category |
| What happens during incident prioritization? | Priority is assigned based on impact and urgency |
| What two factors commonly determine incident priority? | Impact and urgency |
| What happens during incident escalation? | The issue is transferred to a higher support level when necessary |
| When should an incident be escalated? | When it cannot be resolved at the current support level |
| What happens during incident resolution? | A solution is implemented to correct the issue |
| What happens during incident closure? | The solution is verified and the ticket is formally closed |
| What should happen if a resolution cannot be verified? | The ticket should remain open or be reopened |
| What is the general order of the incident lifecycle? | Reporting, ticket creation, categorization, prioritization, escalation if needed, resolution, and closure |
| What CompTIA concept determines how serious and time-sensitive an incident is? | Prioritization |
| What is the purpose of Windows Settings and Control Panel? | To configure Windows system and user settings |
| What two main graphical interfaces are used to administer Windows? | Windows Settings and Control Panel |
| Which interface is Microsoft's preferred interface for modern Windows configuration? | Windows Settings |
| What is Control Panel? | The legacy Windows interface containing configuration applets |
| Why is Control Panel still important in Windows? | Some configuration options are still available there |
| What is an applet in Control Panel? | A tool used to configure a particular Windows feature |
| Where is Windows configuration data ultimately stored? | The Windows Registry |
| What is the Windows Registry? | A database containing Windows system and application configuration settings |
| What does administering an operating system include? | Configuring settings, user accounts, devices, and software |
| What component of Windows provides the main graphical workspace? | The desktop |
| What major components are found on the Windows desktop? | Start menu, taskbar, and shortcut icons |
| What is the purpose of the Windows Start menu? | To launch applications and access system features |
| What key opens the Windows Start menu? | The Windows logo key |
| What is the purpose of the taskbar? | To launch, view, and switch between applications |
| What is the Windows notification area used for? | Displaying status icons and background processes |
| What Windows feature allows separate virtual workspaces? | Multiple desktops |
| What Windows 11 feature can organize applications into separate workspaces? | Multiple desktops |
| Where can Windows display settings such as brightness and resolution be configured? | Windows Settings |
| Where can Windows sound settings be configured? | Windows Settings |
| Where can Windows network, Wi-Fi, and VPN settings be configured? | Network and Internet settings |
| Where can Windows application settings and uninstall options be configured? | Apps settings |
| Where can Windows account configuration be managed? | Accounts settings |
| Where can Windows date, time, language, and region settings be configured? | Time and Language settings |
| Where can Windows accessibility features be configured? | Accessibility settings |
| Where can Windows privacy permissions such as camera and microphone access be configured? | Privacy and Security settings |
| Where can Windows Update be configured? | Windows Update settings |
| What Windows settings area controls sleep and battery behavior? | Power and Battery |
| What Windows settings area controls screen size, resolution, and brightness? | Display |
| What Control Panel applet manages installed desktop applications? | Programs and Features |
| What Control Panel applet provides access to hardware device configuration? | Device Manager |
| What Control Panel applet configures sleep and power behavior? | Power Options |
| What Control Panel applet manages Windows firewall settings? | Windows Defender Firewall |
| What Control Panel applet configures network connection settings? | Network and Sharing Center |
| What Control Panel applet manages saved Windows credentials? | Credential Manager |
| What Control Panel applet configures file and folder viewing behavior? | File Explorer Options |
| What Control Panel applet can be used to configure system date and time? | Date and Time |
| What Control Panel applet manages user accounts? | User Accounts |
| What does a Windows user account control? | Access to the computer and the user's rights and permissions |
| What can rights or privileges allow a user account to do? | Make operating system configuration changes |
| What can permissions control? | Access to files, folders, and printers |
| What is authentication? | Verifying that a user is authorized to access an account |
| What are examples of Windows authentication methods? | Password, PIN, fingerprint, or facial recognition |
| What is a user profile? | The folders and configuration data associated with a user account |
| What personal folders are commonly stored in a Windows user profile? | Documents, pictures, videos, and music |
| Where can applications store user-specific configuration information? | The user's profile |
| What privileges does an administrator account have? | It can make system-wide configuration changes |
| What privileges does a standard user normally have? | Limited privileges primarily affecting their own profile |
| Which account type should normally be used for everyday users? | Standard user |
| Why should users normally be assigned standard accounts? | To limit unnecessary administrative privileges |
| What are the two main types of Windows accounts? | Local accounts and Microsoft accounts |
| What is a local Windows account? | An account used to sign in to a single computer |
| What is a Microsoft account? | An account linked to Microsoft cloud services and multiple devices |
| What advantage does a Microsoft account provide across devices? | It can synchronize settings and user preferences |
| Where are Windows account settings managed? | Settings under Accounts |
| What does the Your info page manage? | The current Windows user account |
| What is the purpose of Email and accounts settings? | To add credentials for other accounts used by apps and services |
| Where are password, PIN, fingerprint, and similar login methods configured? | Sign-in options |
| What can Windows Sign-in options configure? | Passwords, PINs, biometrics, and automatic locking |
| What Windows account setting is used to connect a computer to an organization's network? | Access work or school |
| What is the purpose of Family and other users? | To add and manage other users who can sign in to the computer |
| What account type should additional users generally receive? | Standard user |
| What is the purpose of Windows Sync settings? | To synchronize preferences between devices using a Microsoft account |
| What Control Panel applet provides legacy user account management? | User Accounts |
| What can the User Accounts Control Panel applet change? | Account name, account type, and UAC settings |
| What does UAC stand for? | User Account Control |
| What is the purpose of User Account Control? | To prevent unauthorized use of administrator privileges |
| What happens when UAC detects an administrative change? | The user must approve a prompt or provide administrator credentials |
| Why is UAC an important security feature? | It helps prevent unauthorized system-level changes |
| What should a standard user provide when UAC requires administrator approval? | Administrator credentials |
| Where can a Windows password be changed? | Settings, Accounts, Sign-in options |
| What must normally be entered before changing an existing password? | The current password |
| What do Windows Privacy and Security settings control? | Data collection, app permissions, and security settings |
| What is Windows telemetry? | Usage and diagnostic data collected by Windows |
| What can app permissions control? | Which apps can access devices and user data |
| What hardware features can app permissions restrict? | Location, camera, and microphone |
| What user information can app permissions restrict? | Contacts, calendar, email, and files |
| Where can camera and microphone access be controlled in Windows? | Privacy and Security settings |
| Why might an administrator disable an application's camera or microphone permission? | To protect privacy and restrict unnecessary access |
| What Windows settings are used to change the date, time, and time zone? | Time and Language |
| Why is accurate system time important? | Processes such as authentication and backup depend on accurate time |
| What settings control Windows region and language options? | Time and Language settings |
| What can regional settings affect? | Spelling, localization, keyboard input, and speech recognition |
| Can Windows have multiple languages configured? | Yes |
| What shortcut can switch between configured input languages? | Windows key and Space |
| What Windows settings control desktop appearance? | Personalization settings |
| What can Windows Personalization settings change? | Themes, wallpaper, colors, fonts, Start menu, and taskbar appearance |
| What is a Windows theme? | A collection of settings that changes the appearance of the desktop |
| Which Linux distribution is subscription-based and provides enterprise support? | SUSE Linux Enterprise |
| Which two Linux distributions are commonly associated with subscription-based enterprise support? | SUSE Linux Enterprise and Red Hat Enterprise Linux |
| Which Linux distributions in these examples are community-supported? | Arch, Fedora, Mint, and Debian |
| What Linux distribution type is useful when an administrator wants paid vendor support? | A subscription-based enterprise distribution |
| Which Windows file system supports large files, advanced permissions, and encryption? | NTFS |
| Which file system is normally best for a secure Windows workstation? | NTFS |
| Why is FAT32 unsuitable when advanced file security is required? | It lacks advanced file permissions and encryption |
| What is the maximum individual file size supported by FAT32? | 4 GB minus 1 byte |
| Which Windows file system supports granular permissions and access control lists? | NTFS |
| Which NTFS feature was added to improve UNIX and Linux compatibility? | Case-sensitive naming |
| What other UNIX and Linux compatibility feature does NTFS support besides case-sensitive naming? | Hard links |
| What is the purpose of NTFS journaling? | To log file system changes and improve recovery after errors or crashes |
| What is the purpose of NTFS snapshots? | To create point-in-time read-only copies of files |
| What NTFS feature speeds up file and folder searches? | Indexing |
| What hardware security requirement must be considered when upgrading to Windows 11? | TPM 2.0 support |
| What does TPM stand for? | Trusted Platform Module |
| What version of TPM is required for Windows 11 in this course material? | TPM 2.0 |
| Which file system is well suited for a shared external drive used by macOS and Linux? | exFAT |
| Why is exFAT useful in mixed operating system environments? | It provides broad compatibility and supports large files |
| Why is ext4 not ideal for a drive shared between macOS and Linux? | macOS does not natively support ext4 |
| Why is APFS not ideal for a drive shared between macOS and Linux? | Linux does not natively support APFS |
| Which file system is commonly preferred for removable storage shared across operating systems? | exFAT |
| What advantage does exFAT have over NTFS for removable flash storage in this material? | Lower overhead and lower risk of corruption |
| Do both NTFS and exFAT support files larger than 4 GB? | Yes |
| Do both NTFS and exFAT support volumes larger than 32 GB? | Yes |
| Which file system provides stronger granular permissions and access control, NTFS or exFAT? | NTFS |
| Which mobile operating system has the greatest fragmentation concerns? | Android |
| Why does Android experience more fragmentation than iOS? | Manufacturers can create customized versions and control device updates |
| What characteristic of Android contributes to wide variation between devices? | Its open-source nature and manufacturer customization |
| Which mobile operating system offers a more tightly controlled ecosystem with less fragmentation? | iOS |
| Why does iOS generally have less fragmentation than Android? | Apple controls the hardware, operating system, and update ecosystem |
| Which mobile OS is closed-source and limited to Apple devices? | iOS |
| Which mobile OS is open-source and used by many hardware manufacturers? | Android |
| Which Windows operating system is optimized for Network Operating System functions? | Windows Server |
| What does NOS stand for? | Network Operating System |
| Are Windows 10 and Windows 11 primarily designed as network server operating systems? | No, they are primarily client operating systems |
| Why might a Windows administrator find Windows Server familiar? | It shares underlying technologies and interface concepts with Windows client editions |
| Which operating system should be chosen when dedicated Windows server functionality is required? | Windows Server |
| What does PII stand for? | Personally Identifiable Information |
| What is PII? | Information that can identify, contact, or locate an individual |
| What are examples of PII? | Social Security numbers, passports, driver's licenses, and birth certificates |
| Are government-issued identification numbers considered PII? | Yes |
| What type of information includes medical and insurance records? | Healthcare data |
| Why must PII be protected? | It can be used to identify or impersonate an individual |
| What attire is generally appropriate for an initial formal client meeting? | Business formal attire |
| What does business formal attire typically include? | A matching suit with minimal accessories or jewelry |
| Why should accessories and jewelry be kept minimal at a formal customer meeting? | They can be distracting and appear less professional |
| What type of clothing is generally appropriate for routine troubleshooting appointments? | Business casual |
| Which Linux file system is commonly recommended for modern Linux systems? | ext4 |
| What other common file system does Linux support for broad device compatibility? | FAT32 |
| What name is commonly used for FAT support under Linux? | VFAT |
| What file system is primarily associated with Windows rather than Linux? | NTFS |
| What file system is primarily associated with modern macOS? | APFS |
| What does APFS stand for? | Apple File System |
| What does NFS allow a Linux system to do? | Mount remote storage as part of the local file system |
| What does NFS stand for? | Network File System |
| What are the three main Windows Accessibility setting groups? | Vision, Hearing, and Interaction |
| What Windows Accessibility category contains Magnifier and Narrator? | Vision |
| What is Windows Magnifier used for? | Enlarging content displayed on the screen |
| What is Windows Narrator used for? | Reading screen content aloud |
| What Accessibility feature can improve readability by changing color differences? | High contrast or contrast themes |
| What Windows Accessibility category includes mono audio and captions? | Hearing |
| What Windows Accessibility category configures keyboard and mouse usability? | Interaction |
| What alternative input methods can Windows Accessibility support? | Speech and eye-controlled input |
| What is Ease of Access called in Windows 11? | Accessibility |
| Where can Windows Accessibility settings be configured? | Settings or Control Panel |
| What Windows application is primarily used to manage files and folders? | File Explorer |
| What executable runs File Explorer? | explorer.exe |
| What operations can File Explorer perform on files and folders? | Open, copy, move, rename, view, and delete |
| What does the User account object in File Explorer contain? | Personal folders for the signed-in user's profile |
| What does OneDrive represent in File Explorer? | Microsoft cloud storage files and folders |
| What does This PC display? | Personal folders, fixed disks, and removable drives |
| What does the Network object in File Explorer show? | Network computers, shared folders, and shared printers |
| What is the purpose of the Recycle Bin? | Temporarily stores deleted files so they can be recovered |
| What is the default drive letter for the main Windows system drive? | C: |
| What symbol represents the root directory in Windows? | A backslash |
| What is the root directory of the C drive? | C:\ |
| What Windows folder contains core operating system files? | Windows |
| What important system folder is located inside the Windows directory? | System32 |
| Where are most 64-bit applications installed in Windows? | Program Files |
| Where are most 32-bit applications installed on 64-bit Windows? | Program Files (x86) |
| Where are Windows user profile folders stored? | Users |
| What file in a user profile stores user-specific registry data? | NTUSER.DAT |
| What keyboard shortcut copies a selected file? | Ctrl+C |
| What keyboard shortcut pastes a copied file? | Ctrl+V |
| What normally happens when a file is deleted in File Explorer? | It is moved to the Recycle Bin |
| How can a deleted file be returned from the Recycle Bin? | Use Restore |
| What happens when the Recycle Bin is emptied? | Its contents are permanently removed from normal Recycle Bin recovery |
| What Control Panel applet controls File Explorer behavior? | File Explorer Options |
| Which File Explorer Options tab controls hidden files and file extensions? | View |
| How can hidden files be displayed in File Explorer? | Enable Show hidden files, folders, and drives |
| What are file extensions used for? | Identifying file types and associating them with applications |
| Why are known file extensions often hidden by default? | To reduce the chance of accidentally changing them |
| What option hides important Windows system files? | Hide protected operating system files |
| What protects critical Windows system files from unauthorized changes? | Windows File or Resource Protection |
| What Control Panel applet manages Windows search indexing? | Indexing Options |
| What is the purpose of Windows indexing? | To speed up searches by cataloging file and folder information |
| What locations can Windows indexing include? | Folders and email data stores |
| What is a common cause of Windows search problems? | A corrupted search index |
| What can be done if the Windows search index becomes corrupted? | Rebuild the index |
| What is the purpose of patch management? | To keep systems secure, reliable, and up to date |
| What is a software patch or update? | Replacement code that fixes security, reliability, or performance issues |
| What Windows feature installs security patches and updates? | Windows Update |
| What kinds of updates can Windows Update provide? | Security patches, feature updates, and optional driver updates |
| Can Windows Update normally be permanently disabled from the basic Settings interface? | No |
| What should you check when a Windows update fails? | The update history or Event Viewer logs |
| What does Microsoft Product Activation verify? | That Windows was legitimately licensed |
| What can be used to activate Windows? | A valid product key or digital license |
| What is Plug and Play? | Automatic detection and configuration of connected hardware |
| Where are device drivers commonly obtained in Windows? | Windows Update or the hardware vendor |
| What type of driver is required for 64-bit Windows? | A 64-bit driver |
| Can a 32-bit driver normally be used on 64-bit Windows? | No |
| What Windows tool provides advanced management of hardware devices? | Device Manager |
| What can Device Manager be used to manage? | Devices, drivers, properties, and device events |
| Where are Bluetooth and USB peripherals commonly managed in Windows 11? | Bluetooth and devices settings |
| What Windows display setting enlarges text and interface elements? | Scale |
| Why is monitor color calibration important? | To ensure displayed colors are accurate |
| What should LCD and OLED displays normally use? | Their native resolution and refresh rate |
| What Windows settings select speakers, headphones, and microphones? | Sound settings |
| What does ACPI stand for? | Advanced Configuration and Power Interface |
| What does Sleep normally preserve in memory? | The current system state in RAM |
| What does Hibernate do? | Saves RAM contents to disk and powers off the computer |
| Which ACPI state is associated with hibernation? | S4 |
| Where does Windows store hibernation data? | hiberfil.sys |
| What is hybrid sleep? | A combination of sleep and hibernation protection |
| What does Modern Standby allow? | Low-power operation while maintaining some network connectivity |
| Where can laptop lid and power button actions be configured? | Power Options |
| What does Fast Startup use to speed Windows startup? | The hibernation file |
| What is a Windows power plan? | A set of predefined power management settings |
| What does USB selective suspend do? | Turns off power to unused USB devices |
| What are Windows Features? | Optional Windows components that can be enabled or disabled |
| What Windows feature provides Microsoft's virtualization platform? | Hyper-V |
| Where are Microsoft Store apps installed from? | Microsoft Store |
| Why can standard users often install Microsoft Store apps? | They run in a restricted sandbox |
| What commonly requires administrator privileges to install in Windows? | Traditional desktop applications |
| What installer format is commonly used for Windows desktop applications? | MSI |
| What does WSL stand for? | Windows Subsystem for Linux |
| What does WSL allow a Windows user to do? | Run a Linux distribution and Linux applications within Windows |
| Does WSL require traditional dual booting? | No |
| What three Windows network profiles should you recognize? | Public, Private, and Domain |
| Which Windows network profile uses the most restrictive firewall settings? | Public |
| Which Windows network profile is appropriate for a trusted home or office network? | Private |
| Which profile is used when connected to a Windows domain? | Domain |
| What determines the firewall behavior for a Windows network connection? | The network profile |
| What Windows Settings area manages network adapters and IP configuration? | Network and Internet |
| What command opens the Network Connections applet? | ncpa.cpl |
| What is Network Connections used to configure? | Network adapters and IP settings |
| What does Network and Sharing Center primarily display? | Network status and connection information |
| What does Advanced sharing settings control? | Network discovery and file and printer sharing |
| What does Windows Defender Firewall control? | Which network traffic is allowed to or from the computer |
| What console is used for complex Windows firewall rules? | Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security |
| What does MMC stand for? | Microsoft Management Console |
| What is an MMC snap-in? | A management component used to configure a Windows subsystem |
| What command opens Computer Management? | compmgmt.msc |
| What is Computer Management used for? | Managing users, disks, services, devices, and other system components |
| What command opens Event Viewer? | eventvwr.msc |
| What is Event Viewer used for? | Reviewing application, security, and system logs |
| What command opens Local Security Policy? | secpol.msc |
| What command opens Resource Monitor? | resmon.exe |
| What command opens Performance Monitor? | perfmon.msc |
| What command opens Registry Editor? | regedit.exe |
| What is Registry Editor used for? | Manually editing Windows configuration settings |
| What command opens the Services console? | services.msc |
| What is the Services console used for? | Starting, stopping, and configuring background services |
| What command opens Task Scheduler? | taskschd.msc |
| What is Task Scheduler used for? | Running programs or scripts based on time or event triggers |
| What Windows shortcut opens the power user management menu? | Windows key and X |
| What Windows shortcut opens the Run dialog? | Windows key and R |
| What is the Run dialog commonly used for? | Launching programs and administrative tools by command |
| Can a 64-bit application run on a 32-bit operating system? | No |
| Can many 32-bit applications run on a 64-bit operating system? | Yes |
| What should be checked before installing demanding software? | CPU, RAM, storage, graphics, and OS requirements |
| What is integrated graphics? | Graphics processing built into the CPU or motherboard chipset |
| What is a dedicated graphics card? | A separate graphics adapter with its own processing hardware |
| What does VRAM stand for? | Video RAM |
| What type of applications commonly require a dedicated GPU? | Games, graphics software, and other demanding visual applications |
| What is an external hardware token? | A physical device used to store authentication information |
| What are examples of external hardware tokens? | Smart cards and USB security tokens |
| What may be required along with a hardware token? | A PIN, password, or biometric factor |
| What does PII stand for? | Personally Identifiable Information |
| What is PII? | Information that can identify, contact, or locate an individual |
| What is NFS used for? | Mounting remote network storage as part of a local file system |
| What does NFS stand for? | Network File System |
| What should be checked before installing an application? | Whether the application is compatible with the operating system |
| Can a macOS application normally run directly on Windows? | No |
| Why might an older application stop working after an OS upgrade? | The application may not be compatible with the newer operating system |
| What must be true for a 64-bit application to run? | The CPU and operating system must both be 64-bit |
| Can a 64-bit application run on a 32-bit operating system? | No |
| Can most 32-bit Windows applications run on 64-bit Windows? | Yes |
| What does WOW64 allow Windows to do? | Run 32-bit applications on 64-bit Windows |
| What does WOW64 stand for? | Windows on Windows 64-bit |
| Where are 32-bit applications normally installed on 64-bit Windows? | Program Files (x86) |
| Where are 64-bit applications normally installed on 64-bit Windows? | Program Files |
| Where are 64-bit Windows system files stored? | System32 |
| Where are 32-bit Windows system files stored on 64-bit Windows? | SysWOW64 |
| Where can Windows application compatibility settings be found? | The Compatibility tab in the application's Properties |
| What file extensions are commonly used for Windows installers? | EXE and MSI |
| What file formats are commonly used to install macOS applications? | DMG and PKG |
| What package format is commonly associated with Debian-based Linux systems? | DEB |
| What package manager commonly installs DEB packages? | APT |
| What package format is commonly associated with Red Hat-based Linux systems? | RPM |
| What package manager commonly works with RPM packages in modern systems? | DNF |
| Why should downloaded software installers be verified? | To confirm authenticity, integrity, and safety |
| What Windows feature helps verify a software publisher? | Digital signatures |
| How can a Linux package's integrity be verified? | Compare its calculated hash with the publisher's hash |
| What should be done before running a downloaded installer? | Verify the source and scan it for malware |
| What is an ISO file? | A single file containing the contents of an optical disc |
| How can an ISO be opened as a drive in Windows? | Mount the ISO |
| Why are ISO files commonly used for operating system installation? | They package installation media into one mountable file |
| What is image deployment? | Deploying a prepared operating system, applications, and settings as one installation |
| What is shadow IT? | Unauthorized software or devices used without IT approval |
| Why is shadow IT a security concern? | IT cannot properly manage, secure, or support unauthorized systems |
| Why must organizations track software licensing? | Unlicensed use can cause legal and financial penalties |
| What should be considered when adopting new business software? | Licensing, support, training, security, and compatibility |
| Why might new software require user training? | Users may need to learn new features or interfaces |
| Why are automated deployment tools useful? | They allow software to be installed across many computers efficiently |
| What Windows technology can be used to deploy software to many domain computers? | Group Policy |
| What does GPO stand for? | Group Policy Object |
| Why are large network software deployments often scheduled overnight? | To reduce network congestion and user disruption |
| Why are administrator privileges normally required to install desktop applications? | Installation modifies protected system locations |
| What permissions does a user normally need to run an installed application? | Read and execute permissions |
| Where should user-created application files normally be saved? | The user's profile or home folder |
| What is a major security risk of installing software from an untrusted source? | It may contain malware such as a Trojan horse |
| What is a Trojan horse? | Malicious software disguised as legitimate software |
| How can software installation risks be reduced? | Use trusted sources and digitally signed installers |
| Why should applications be tested before organization-wide deployment? | To identify security, compatibility, stability, and performance problems |
| What system resources can poorly designed software negatively affect? | CPU, memory, storage, and network bandwidth |
| What should IT research before deploying unfamiliar software? | Known vulnerabilities and security advisories |
| What is a major advantage of cloud-based email? | Users can access and synchronize email across multiple devices |
| What are examples of enterprise cloud-based email platforms? | Microsoft 365 Outlook and Google Workspace Gmail |
| What is required to access most cloud-based email services? | An Internet connection |
| What does email synchronization do? | Keeps email and folders consistent across multiple devices |
| What is cloud storage? | Internet-based storage that allows files to be accessed from multiple devices |
| What are common examples of cloud storage services? | OneDrive, Google Drive, and iCloud |
| What does cloud file synchronization do? | Keeps selected local and cloud files updated with the same changes |
| Why might a user pause cloud synchronization? | To reduce bandwidth use or data charges on a metered connection |
| What is a metered connection? | A network connection with limited data or usage-based charges |
| What is a major benefit of cloud collaboration tools? | Multiple users can work together on shared files from different locations |
| What does real-time collaboration allow? | Multiple users to edit the same document at the same time |
| What can cloud collaboration software track? | Which users made changes to a shared document |
| What are common examples of collaboration platforms? | Microsoft Teams, Slack, Zoom, and Google Workspace |
| What hardware permissions might collaboration apps require? | Camera and microphone access |
| What file permission might a cloud app require? | Access to local files for synchronization or sharing |
| Why might a user switch from a web app to its desktop version? | The desktop version may provide additional features |
| What does a software license define? | The terms and limitations for legally using software |
| What does a single-user single-device license normally allow? | One user to use the software on one authorized device |
| What can happen if software is used outside its license terms? | The organization may violate the license agreement |
| Why must organizations manage cloud application licenses? | To ensure users have the correct legal access to services |
| What type of portal can administrators use to assign cloud licenses? | An administrative management portal |
| What is identity synchronization? | Keeping user identities, credentials, and permissions consistent across systems |
| What is a major benefit of identity synchronization? | Users can use fewer credentials across cloud and local resources |
| What can identity synchronization update across connected systems? | Passwords, account information, permissions, and access rights |
| Why does identity synchronization reduce administrative work? | Account changes can be made once and synchronized to other systems |
| What environments can identity synchronization connect? | Cloud services and on-premises systems |
| What Microsoft tool can synchronize on-premises Active Directory with Microsoft Entra ID? | Microsoft Entra Connect |
| What is an advantage of synchronizing permissions across environments? | Users receive consistent access rights across connected resources |
| Why is identity synchronization useful when troubleshooting access problems? | It reduces the number of separate accounts and permissions administrators must manage |
| What are the two main graphical interfaces for configuring Windows? | Control Panel and Windows Settings |
| What is Control Panel primarily used for? | Accessing Windows configuration applets and legacy settings |
| What is Windows Settings primarily used for? | Configuring modern Windows system and user settings |
| What Windows utility is used to manage hardware and device drivers? | Device Manager |
| What should Device Manager be checked for when hardware is malfunctioning? | Device status and driver problems |
| Does Device Manager saying a network adapter works properly prove the network connection works? | No, problems such as a bad cable can still prevent connectivity |
| What Device Manager tab shows the installed driver version? | Driver |
| What should you consider if a device stops working after a driver update? | Roll back the driver |
| What should you consider if a device driver is incompatible with the current Windows version? | Update or replace the driver |
| What Windows feature should be kept current to improve security and reliability? | Windows Update |
| Why are operating system updates important? | They patch security flaws and other software problems |
| Why might an organization test Windows updates before widespread deployment? | To detect compatibility problems before affecting many computers |
| What Windows settings area manages Bluetooth devices and peripherals? | Bluetooth and devices |
| What Windows settings area controls monitor configuration? | Display settings |
| What Windows settings area controls microphones and speakers? | Sound settings |
| What Windows settings area can be used to uninstall applications? | Apps settings |
| What Control Panel utility manages installed desktop software? | Programs and Features |
| What is the primary purpose of Programs and Features? | Managing and uninstalling installed applications |
| What Windows utility provides detailed hardware information and driver management? | Device Manager |
| What Windows utility shows network connection status and configuration information? | Network and Sharing Center |
| What Windows utility can be used to view and configure network adapters? | Network Connections |
| What can Network Connections be used to configure? | Network adapters and their IP settings |
| What protocol must normally be enabled on a Windows adapter for IPv4 networking? | TCP/IP version 4 |
| Where can a Windows adapter's IPv4 address settings be configured? | The adapter's TCP/IP version 4 properties |
| What should you check if a Windows computer is connected to a local network but cannot reach the Internet? | Network status and IP configuration |
| What is one purpose of the Windows Network Status page? | To show whether the computer has network and Internet connectivity |
| Why might multiple network adapters appear in Device Manager? | A computer can have wired, wireless, Bluetooth, VPN, or virtual adapters |
| What Windows utility is especially useful for troubleshooting network adapter driver problems? | Device Manager |
| What Windows utility can show whether an adapter is disabled? | Network Connections or Device Manager |
| What should you examine if a network adapter stopped working after an OS update? | Its driver compatibility |
| What utility should you use to confirm that Windows has installed the correct driver for a network adapter? | Device Manager |
| What Windows feature provides security fixes for newly discovered vulnerabilities? | Windows Update |
| What is a common enterprise practice before deploying new Windows updates? | Test the updates before widespread installation |
| Why should applications be removed if they are no longer needed? | To reduce unnecessary software and reclaim storage space |
| What five Windows utilities does this course specifically emphasize for Objective 1.6? | Device Manager, Network and Sharing Center, System Properties, Programs and Features, and Windows Update |
| What command opens Device Manager? | devmgmt.msc |
| What is Device Manager used for? | Viewing and managing hardware devices, drivers, and device properties |
| What commonly indicates a device problem in Device Manager? | A yellow exclamation mark or an Unknown Device entry |
| What should you check first when troubleshooting a device in Device Manager? | The device status on the General tab |
| What should you do if a device never worked after installation? | Verify hardware and driver compatibility with the operating system |
| Where can updated device drivers commonly be obtained? | Windows Update or the hardware manufacturer's website |
| What Device Manager option installs a newer driver? | Update Driver |
| What Device Manager option restores a previously installed driver? | Roll Back Driver |
| When is rolling back a driver useful? | When a device stops working after a driver update |
| What does disabling a device do? | Prevents Windows from using the device without removing its driver |
| What does uninstalling a device do? | Removes the device driver from Windows |
| What should you use before disconnecting removable storage? | Safely Remove Hardware |
| Does physically removing a Plug and Play device normally uninstall its driver? | No |
| What Windows console manages disks, partitions, and volumes? | Disk Management |
| What does Disk Management display? | Fixed disks, removable disks, partitions, and volumes |
| What partition usually contains the Windows operating system files? | The boot volume |
| What drive letter is normally assigned to the Windows boot volume? | C: |
| What does the system volume contain? | Boot files |
| What do recovery partitions contain? | Tools used for repair or system recovery |
| What must be done to a new blank disk before partitioning it? | Initialize it |
| What two partition styles can Windows use when initializing a disk? | MBR and GPT |
| What does MBR stand for? | Master Boot Record |
| What does GPT stand for? | GUID Partition Table |
| What does partitioning a disk do? | Divides the disk into logical storage areas |
| What does formatting a partition do? | Creates a file system so the operating system can store files |
| What Windows file system is typically used for Windows volumes? | NTFS |
| What happens to existing files when a partition is reformatted? | They are deleted |
| What can Disk Management do to an existing partition? | Extend, shrink, or remove it |
| What is fragmentation? | A file being stored in noncontiguous locations on a hard disk |
| Which type of drive benefits from traditional defragmentation? | HDD |
| What does defragmenting an HDD do? | Rearranges file data into more contiguous locations |
| Should an SSD be traditionally defragmented like an HDD? | No |
| What maintenance operation is commonly performed on SSDs? | TRIM |
| What does TRIM help an SSD do? | Identify blocks containing deleted data that can be reused |
| What Windows tool frees storage by removing unnecessary files? | Disk Cleanup |
| What types of files can Disk Cleanup remove? | Temporary files, Recycle Bin contents, and other unneeded files |
| What additional Disk Cleanup option removes system-related files? | Clean up system files |
| What Windows utility automates programs and scripts? | Task Scheduler |
| What can trigger a Task Scheduler task? | A schedule or an event |
| What are examples of Task Scheduler event triggers? | User sign-in or the computer waking from sleep |
| Why are Task Scheduler logs useful? | They help troubleshoot failed scheduled tasks |
| Why might a scheduled task fail even if it is configured correctly? | The account running it may lack sufficient permissions |
| What does the Local Users and Groups console manage? | Local user accounts and security groups |
| What can be done to accounts in Local Users and Groups? | Create, modify, disable, delete, and reset passwords |
| Why are security groups used? | To assign the same permissions to multiple users |
| What happens when a user is added to the Administrators group? | The user receives administrative privileges |
| What command is used to manage Windows user accounts from the command line? | net user |
| What net user switch creates a new account? | /add |
| What command is used to manage local groups? | net localgroup |
| What is a digital certificate used for? | Verifying the identity of a user, computer, or service |
| What does CA stand for in certificate management? | Certification Authority |
| What Certificate Manager folder contains certificates issued to the current user? | Personal |
| What Certificate Manager folder contains trusted certificate issuers? | Trusted Root Certification Authorities |
| What command manages certificates for the current user? | certmgr.msc |
| What command manages certificates for the local computer? | certlm.msc |
| Why is trusting an unsafe certification authority dangerous? | It could allow fraudulent certificates to appear trusted |
| What is Group Policy used for? | Configuring Windows settings through centrally managed policies |
| Why is Group Policy useful in large networks? | It can apply settings to many users and computers at once |
| What are the three common states of a Group Policy setting? | Enabled, Disabled, and Not Defined |
| What Windows tool edits security-specific local policies? | Local Security Policy |
| What command opens Local Security Policy? | secpol.msc |
| What types of settings can password policies control? | Password length, complexity, history, and expiration |
| What is the Windows Registry? | A database storing Windows, device, and application configuration |
| What command opens Registry Editor? | regedit |
| What registry root key stores system-wide settings? | HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE |
| What abbreviation is used for HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE? | HKLM |
| What registry root key contains settings for the currently logged-in user? | HKEY_CURRENT_USER |
| What abbreviation is used for HKEY_CURRENT_USER? | HKCU |
| What registry root key contains information about file associations? | HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT |
| What abbreviation is used for HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT? | HKCR |
| What file in a user profile stores that user's registry data? | NTUSER.DAT |
| Why should the Windows Registry be edited carefully? | Incorrect changes can cause applications or Windows to malfunction |
| What is an MMC? | A Microsoft Management Console used to host management snap-ins |
| What command opens a blank Microsoft Management Console? | mmc |
| What is an MMC snap-in? | A management tool added to an MMC console |
| What are examples of MMC snap-ins? | Device Manager, Disk Management, Group Policy, and Certificate Manager |
| Can many MMC snap-ins manage remote computers? | Yes |
| What Windows interface is used to enter a series of text commands? | Command Prompt |
| What command starts the Windows Command Prompt? | cmd |
| What does an elevated Command Prompt provide? | Administrative privileges |
| How can Command Prompt be opened with administrator privileges? | Right-click it and select Run as administrator |
| What Windows feature prompts for approval when opening an elevated Command Prompt? | User Account Control |
| What does UAC stand for? | User Account Control |
| What error may appear when a command needs administrator privileges? | The requested operation requires elevation |
| What shortcut can open a searched program with administrator privileges? | Ctrl+Shift+Enter |
| What switch commonly displays help for a Windows command? | /? |
| What command clears the Command Prompt screen? | cls |
| What command lists files and folders in the current directory? | dir |
| What command changes the current directory? | cd |
| What does cd .. do? | Moves to the parent directory |
| What does cd \ do? | Moves to the root directory |
| How do you switch to another drive at Command Prompt? | Type the drive letter followed by a colon |
| What command copies files? | copy |
| What command moves files? | move |
| What command is recommended for advanced file and directory copying? | robocopy |
| What does robocopy stand for? | Robust Copy |
| Why is robocopy preferred over xcopy? | It better handles long file names and NTFS attributes |
| What robocopy switch copies subdirectories but excludes empty ones? | /S |
| What robocopy switch copies all subdirectories including empty ones? | /E |
| What robocopy switch previews what would be copied without copying it? | /L |
| What command creates a directory? | md or mkdir |
| What command removes an empty directory? | rd or rmdir |
| What rmdir switch removes a directory and its contents? | /s |
| What rmdir switch suppresses confirmation prompts? | /q |
| What command-line utility manages disks, partitions, and volumes? | diskpart |
| What command selects a disk while using diskpart? | select disk |
| What diskpart command displays information about the selected disk? | detail disk |
| What diskpart command can assign a drive letter? | assign |
| What diskpart command can enlarge a volume when space is available? | extend |
| Why should diskpart be used carefully? | It can perform destructive actions such as deleting volumes |
| What command creates a new file system on a drive? | format |
| What happens to existing file references when a drive is formatted? | They are removed |
| What format switch specifies the file system? | /fs: |
| What file systems can the format command create according to this material? | NTFS, FAT32, and exFAT |
| What command checks a disk and file system for errors? | chkdsk |
| What does chkdsk without a repair switch do? | Scans in read-only mode and reports errors |
| What does chkdsk /f do? | Fixes file system errors |
| What does chkdsk /r do? | Fixes errors and attempts to recover data from bad sectors |
| Why might chkdsk need to run during the next restart? | It cannot repair files that are currently open |
| What command safely shuts down or restarts Windows? | shutdown |
| What does shutdown /s do? | Shuts down the computer |
| What does shutdown /r do? | Restarts the computer |
| What does shutdown /h do? | Hibernates the computer |
| What does shutdown /l do? | Logs off the current user |
| What does shutdown /a do? | Aborts a pending shutdown |
| What shutdown switch sets a delay before shutdown? | /t |
| What does SFC stand for? | System File Checker |
| What is the purpose of the sfc command? | To verify and restore damaged or corrupted Windows system files |
| What command immediately scans protected Windows system files? | sfc /scannow |
| When is sfc useful? | When Windows system files may be missing or corrupted |
| What command displays the installed Windows version and build? | winver |
| Why is winver useful during technical support? | It quickly identifies the Windows version and build |
| What command displays the currently logged-in user? | whoami |
| What does whoami normally display? | The current domain or computer name and username |
| What does whoami /groups display? | The security groups the current user belongs to |
| What does whoami /priv display? | The privileges assigned to the current user |
| How can whoami help troubleshoot a permissions problem? | It verifies the user's identity, groups, and privileges |
| Can legacy Command Prompt commands also be run from PowerShell? | Yes |
| What command-line interface is emphasized as the modern Windows scripting shell? | PowerShell |
| Why should administrative command-line privileges only be used when necessary? | Administrative commands can make system-wide changes |
| What type of network connection is most commonly used for wired LANs? | Ethernet |
| What connector is commonly used for copper Ethernet connections? | RJ45 |
| What normally allows an Ethernet adapter and switch to select compatible settings automatically? | Autonegotiation |
| What Windows utility can configure advanced network adapter hardware settings? | Device Manager |
| What does SSID stand for? | Service Set Identifier |
| What does an SSID identify? | A wireless network |
| What does a lock icon beside a Wi-Fi network normally indicate? | The network uses encryption |
| What must be done if a wireless network does not broadcast its SSID? | Enter the wireless network information manually |
| What Windows feature can automatically reconnect to a known wireless network? | Connect automatically |
| What must a wireless adapter support to connect to a Wi-Fi network? | A compatible 802.11 standard |
| What basic information must a network adapter have to communicate using IP? | An IP address and subnet mask |
| How long is an IPv4 address? | 32 bits |
| How long is an IPv6 address? | 128 bits |
| What notation is commonly used for IPv4 addresses? | Dotted decimal notation |
| What is the purpose of a subnet mask? | To distinguish the network portion from the host portion of an IPv4 address |
| What subnet mask corresponds to a slash 24 network? | 255.255.255.0 |
| What does a slash 24 prefix mean? | The first 24 bits identify the network |
| Can devices on the same IP network normally communicate directly? | Yes |
| What device is used to reach hosts on a different IP network? | A router |
| What is a default gateway? | The router address a host uses to reach other networks |
| What does DNS stand for? | Domain Name System |
| What is the purpose of DNS? | To translate host and domain names into IP addresses |
| What does FQDN stand for? | Fully Qualified Domain Name |
| What does DHCP stand for? | Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol |
| What is the purpose of DHCP? | To automatically assign network configuration to clients |
| What settings can DHCP commonly provide? | IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers |
| What is static IP configuration? | Manually assigning network settings to a device |
| What is dynamic IP configuration? | Automatically obtaining network settings from DHCP |
| Why is DHCP commonly preferred for client computers? | It reduces manual configuration and addressing errors |
| What Windows Control Panel command opens Network Connections? | ncpa.cpl |
| What IPv4 setting causes Windows to use DHCP? | Obtain an IP address automatically |
| What network information must normally be entered for a static IPv4 configuration? | IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers |
| Which Internet Protocol versions are normally installed on Windows network adapters? | IPv4 and IPv6 |
| Which IP version does Windows prefer when both are available? | IPv6 |
| What three Windows network profiles should you recognize? | Public, Private, and Domain |
| Which network profile should normally be used on an untrusted network? | Public |
| Which network profile should normally be used on a trusted home or office network? | Private |
| What does the Public network profile normally do? | Blocks discovery and uses more restrictive firewall settings |
| What does the Private network profile normally allow? | Network discovery and file or printer sharing |
| When is the Domain network profile used? | When the computer is connected to an organizational domain |
| Can a user manually select the Domain network profile? | No |
| What controls network access for Windows based on the selected network profile? | Windows Defender Firewall |
| What does network discovery allow? | Other devices on the local network to find the computer |
| What does UNC stand for? | Universal Naming Convention |
| What is UNC syntax used for? | Addressing shared network resources |
| What does a UNC path begin with? | Two backslashes |
| What does Windows Defender Firewall control? | Which network traffic is allowed to or from the computer |
| How can a program be permitted through Windows Defender Firewall? | Add it to the allowed apps list |
| Can firewall permissions differ between Public and Private networks? | Yes |
| What does VPN stand for? | Virtual Private Network |
| What is the purpose of a VPN? | To create a secure encrypted connection across a public network |
| What is commonly used to protect data sent through a VPN? | Encryption |
| What does a VPN allow a remote computer to access? | Resources on a private network |
| What does WWAN stand for? | Wireless Wide Area Network |
| What type of network does WWAN normally use? | A cellular network |
| What technologies are examples of WWAN connections? | 3G, 4G, and 5G |
| What does SIM stand for? | Subscriber Identity Module |
| What device may be required for cellular network access? | A SIM card |
| What is a metered connection? | A connection where data usage may be limited or charged |
| Why might Windows be configured to treat cellular service as metered? | To reduce data use and avoid exceeding a data allowance |
| What is a proxy server? | A server that forwards client Internet requests |
| How can a proxy improve performance? | By caching frequently requested content |
| How can a proxy improve security? | By controlling and filtering Internet access |
| What information may be required to manually configure a proxy? | The proxy server address and TCP port |
| Where are proxy settings configured in Windows? | Network and Internet settings |
| What Windows tool combines several administrative snap-ins in one interface? | Computer Management |
| What useful tools can be accessed through Computer Management? | Event Viewer, Device Manager, Task Scheduler, Local Users and Groups, and Disk Management |
| What is the main purpose of Device Manager? | Managing hardware devices and their drivers |
| What should you consider if a device stops working after a driver update? | Roll back the driver |
| What Windows tool is used to create and manage partitions and volumes? | Disk Management |
| What Windows tool automates maintenance, scripts, backups, and other tasks? | Task Scheduler |
| Why can Task Scheduler be relevant during malware troubleshooting? | Malware can use scheduled tasks to launch automatically |
| What Windows console manages local user accounts and groups? | Local Users and Groups |
| What is the difference between a local policy and a domain policy? | A local policy affects one computer while a domain policy can affect many domain systems |
| What type of policy is centrally distributed through Active Directory? | Domain Group Policy |
| What Windows tool can configure password and account lockout policies? | Group Policy |
| What Windows database stores system and application configuration settings? | The Registry |
| Why should Registry Editor be used cautiously? | Incorrect changes can cause serious Windows problems |
| What does MMC stand for? | Microsoft Management Console |
| What is an MMC snap-in? | An administrative tool loaded inside a Microsoft Management Console |
| Why would an administrator create a custom MMC? | To combine frequently used management snap-ins into one console |
| What Windows command displays the current IP configuration? | ipconfig |
| What does ipconfig display without switches? | IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway |
| What command displays detailed IP configuration information? | ipconfig /all |
| What additional information does ipconfig /all show? | DHCP, DNS, MAC address, and other adapter details |
| What IP range usually indicates APIPA addressing? | 169.254.x.x |
| What does an APIPA address usually indicate? | The client could not contact a DHCP server |
| What Windows status may appear when DHCP fails but the network link is active? | Limited connectivity |
| What does No Internet access usually mean? | Local IP configuration works but Internet connectivity cannot be verified |
| What command releases a DHCP-assigned IP address? | ipconfig /release |
| What command requests a new DHCP lease? | ipconfig /renew |
| What command displays the local DNS resolver cache? | ipconfig /displaydns |
| What command clears the local DNS resolver cache? | ipconfig /flushdns |
| When is ipconfig /flushdns useful? | When outdated cached DNS records are causing name resolution problems |
| What command displays the local computer name? | hostname |
| What command tests basic connectivity between two IP hosts? | ping |
| What address should you ping to test the local TCP/IP stack? | 127.0.0.1 |
| What is 127.0.0.1 called? | The loopback address |
| What should you ping after testing the loopback address? | The workstation's own IP address |
| What should you ping to verify local network connectivity? | The default gateway |
| What should you ping to test communication through the router? | A remote host IP address |
| What does a successful ping normally return? | Reply from the destination address |
| What does ping round-trip time measure? | Network latency |
| What does RTT stand for? | Round-Trip Time |
| What does Request timed out mean in ping? | No response was received before the timeout |
| What can cause a ping request to time out? | The destination is down, unreachable, or configured not to respond |
| What can Destination unreachable from the local host indicate? | IP configuration or local connectivity problems |
| What can Destination unreachable from the gateway indicate? | A routing or destination network problem |
| What Windows ping switch sends packets continuously? | -t |
| How do you stop a continuous ping? | Ctrl+C |
| What ping switch forces IPv4? | -4 |
| What ping switch forces IPv6? | -6 |
| How can ping help identify a DNS problem? | Ping the host by name and then by IP address |
| What does it suggest if ping by IP works but ping by name fails? | A DNS or name resolution problem |
| What command traces the routers between your computer and a destination? | tracert |
| What does each hop in tracert represent? | A router along the path to the destination |
| What information does tracert help diagnose? | Routing paths and where connectivity may be failing |
| What does an asterisk in tracert output mean? | No response was received from that hop before timeout |
| What command combines route tracing with repeated ping tests at each hop? | pathping |
| What additional information does pathping provide compared with tracert? | Latency and packet loss at each hop |
| Which command is better for identifying packet loss along a route? | pathping |
| What command is used to troubleshoot DNS name resolution? | nslookup |
| What does nslookup normally query? | DNS records for a host or domain |
| What DNS record does nslookup query by default according to this material? | A record |
| What nslookup record type identifies mail servers? | MX |
| What does the MX DNS record identify? | A domain's mail server |
| What does it suggest if a host is reachable by IP but not by hostname? | Name resolution is failing |
| What should you check with ipconfig /all during DNS troubleshooting? | The configured DNS server address |
| Why might you query a second DNS server with nslookup? | To compare results and identify a DNS server problem |
| What command displays network ports and connections on the local computer? | netstat |
| What does netstat show without switches? | Active and listening TCP connections |
| What is a listening port? | A port waiting for an incoming connection |
| What is an active port? | A port currently connected to a remote address |
| What does netstat -a add to the output? | Listening UDP ports and additional connections |
| What does netstat -b display? | The process that opened each port |
| What does netstat -o display? | The process ID associated with each connection |
| What does PID stand for? | Process ID |
| What does netstat -n do? | Displays addresses and ports numerically without name resolution |
| Why can netstat -n produce results faster? | It skips name resolution |
| What netstat switch displays Ethernet statistics? | -e |
| What netstat switch displays protocol statistics? | -s |
| Which netstat switches require an administrative Command Prompt in this material? | -b and -o |
| What should you determine early when troubleshooting a network resource problem? | Whether the problem affects one client or multiple clients |
| What does it suggest if only one computer cannot access a network resource? | The problem likely exists on that client |
| What does it suggest if multiple computers cannot access the same resource? | The problem may be with the server, device, or network infrastructure |
| What three higher-layer causes should be considered when basic connectivity works? | Security, name resolution, and application or OS problems |
| What can block a connection even when IP connectivity works? | A firewall or other security software |
| What happens when Windows Network Reset is used? | Custom adapter settings and network connections are cleared |
| What may need to be reconfigured after a Windows Network Reset? | Custom network settings and VPN connections |
| What Windows command launches Remote Desktop Connection? | mstsc.exe |
| What information can be used to identify an RDP server? | Its IP address or FQDN |
| What does FQDN stand for? | Fully Qualified Domain Name |
| What account format specifies a domain account for RDP? | Domain\Username |
| What account format can specify a local account for RDP? | Host\Username or .\Username |
| What happens to the local desktop when a Windows RDP session starts? | The local desktop is locked |
| How many interactive users can normally use a Windows workstation through RDP at one time? | One |
| Is the Remote Desktop server enabled by default in Windows? | No |
| Which Windows editions cannot act as an RDP server according to this material? | Windows Home editions |
| Can Windows Home act as an RDP client? | Yes |
| What does NLA stand for? | Network Level Authentication |
| What is the purpose of NLA in Remote Desktop? | It authenticates users before creating a desktop session |
| What attack can NLA help protect an RDP server against? | Denial-of-service attacks |
| Why is NLA more secure than creating the desktop before authentication? | It avoids committing session resources to unauthenticated users |
| What protocol is macOS Screen Sharing based on? | VNC |
| What does VNC stand for? | Virtual Network Computing |
| What TCP port does VNC normally use? | TCP 5900 |
| Does every implementation of VNC provide encrypted connections? | No |
| What remote-support tool uses an invitation file protected by a passcode? | Remote Assistance |
| Can a Remote Assistance helper immediately control the user's desktop? | No, the helper must request control |
| What Windows feature is the newer alternative to Remote Assistance? | Quick Assist |
| What must a Quick Assist helper use to offer assistance? | A Microsoft account |
| Who generates the Quick Assist security code? | The helper |
| Can Remote Assistance or Quick Assist normally approve UAC prompts? | No |
| Why can lowering UAC settings for remote assistance be risky? | It weakens the computer's security |
| What does WinRM stand for? | Windows Remote Management |
| What is WinRM primarily used for? | Remote command execution and Windows management |
| What protocol does WinRM implement? | WS-Management |
| What network protocols can WinRM use for communication? | HTTP or HTTPS |
| What is one monitoring use of WinRM? | Forwarding logs to a remote collection system |
| What does an SSH host key fingerprint verify? | The identity of the SSH server |
| Why should an SSH host key fingerprint be verified? | To reduce the risk of connecting to an impersonating server |
| What two SSH authentication methods are emphasized in this material? | Password authentication and public key authentication |
| How does SSH public key authentication work? | The client proves possession of the private key matching an authorized public key |
| Why is SSH key management important? | Compromised authorized keys can allow unauthorized remote access |
| What does RMM stand for? | Remote Monitoring and Management |
| What type of organization commonly uses RMM tools? | Managed service providers |
| What does MSP stand for? | Managed Service Provider |
| What is a major distinction between RMM and MDM tools? | RMM often manages multiple client organizations while MDM focuses on one organization's devices |
| What does MDM stand for? | Mobile Device Management |
| What can remote management agents report to a management server? | Status, logs, and inventory information |
| What does EDR stand for? | Endpoint Detection and Response |
| What can centralized management tools push to endpoints? | Updates, applications, scripts, and security definitions |
| What does WOL stand for? | Wake on LAN |
| What does Wake on LAN allow an administrator to do? | Power on a compatible computer remotely |
| What is out-of-band management? | Remote management that can work independently of the normal operating system |
| Why is out-of-band management useful? | It can manage a computer even when the OS is unavailable |
| What hardware technologies are examples of out-of-band management? | Intel vPro and AMD PRO |
| What is in-band management? | Remote management that depends on the normal operating system and network connection |
| Is a normal SSH session an example of in-band or out-of-band management? | In-band management |
| What is the purpose of a jump server? | To provide a controlled intermediary for accessing protected systems |
| Why can a jump server improve security? | Protected systems do not need to be directly exposed to outside connections |
| What does SPICE stand for? | Simple Protocol for Independent Computing Environments |
| What is SPICE primarily used to remotely access? | Virtual machine environments |
| What can SPICE use to encrypt remote-display traffic? | TLS |
| Why can third-party screen-sharing tools work easily across the Internet? | Many use HTTPS over TCP 443 |
| What major security risk is associated with remote-support software? | Social engineering may trick users into granting an attacker access |
| How should users verify an unexpected remote-support request? | Use an approved independent verification method |
| Why are video-conferencing screen-control tools limited for administration? | They normally operate with the signed-in user's privileges |
| What Apple feature transfers files directly between nearby Apple devices? | AirDrop |
| What Windows feature provides nearby device file sharing? | Nearby Sharing |
| What Android feature in this material provides nearby file sharing? | Nearby Share |
| What is the safest practice when receiving nearby file-transfer requests? | Accept requests only from known or trusted sources |
| How does a VPN differ from RDP or SSH? | A VPN connects the device to a remote network rather than only one remote host |
| Why might a VPN be used before an RDP connection? | It avoids exposing the RDP service directly to the Internet |
| What command opens System Information? | msinfo32.exe |
| What type of information does System Information provide? | Hardware, software, drivers, firmware, and OS details |
| What command opens Event Viewer? | eventvwr.msc |
| Which Event Viewer log records hardware, driver, service, and core OS problems? | System log |
| Which Event Viewer log records events from applications and installers? | Application log |
| Which Event Viewer log contains audit and authentication events? | Security log |
| Which Event Viewer log records Windows installation events? | Setup log |
| What is the highest Event Viewer severity level? | Critical |
| What Event Viewer severity indicates a significant problem that should be investigated? | Error |
| What Event Viewer severity indicates a condition that could become a problem? | Warning |
| What Event Viewer severity normally requires no corrective action? | Information |
| What do Audit Success and Audit Failure events record? | Successful or failed security-related actions |
| What information helps identify a specific Event Viewer event? | Its source and Event ID |
| What shortcut opens Task Manager directly? | Ctrl+Shift+Esc |
| Which Task Manager tab shows running apps and background processes? | Processes |
| What Task Manager option can stop a frozen application or process? | End Task |
| Which Task Manager tab provides more detailed information about individual processes? | Details |
| What Task Manager option changes the amount of CPU attention given to a process? | Set Priority |
| Which Task Manager tab monitors CPU, memory, disk, network, and GPU usage? | Performance |
| Where can Resource Monitor be opened from Task Manager? | The Performance tab |
| What can sustained high CPU utilization indicate? | An overloaded CPU, demanding software, or malware |
| Are brief spikes in CPU utilization normally a problem? | No |
| What can high disk utilization and slow response times indicate? | Paging, a slow drive, corruption, or drive problems |
| What does Task Manager show for an active network adapter? | Send and receive throughput |
| What wireless information can Task Manager display? | SSID, Wi-Fi standard, and signal strength |
| What CPU information can Task Manager display? | Cores, logical processors, utilization, and uptime |
| What does a thread represent? | An individual sequence of work performed by a process |
| What is a handle in Windows? | A reference a process uses to access a system resource |
| What does the GPU Performance page show? | Graphics memory and GPU utilization |
| What does the Memory tab in Task Manager help troubleshoot? | RAM usage and paging activity |
| What does In use memory represent? | Physical RAM currently being used |
| What does Committed memory represent? | Memory requested compared with available RAM plus pagefile space |
| What is cached memory? | Frequently used data kept in RAM to improve access speed |
| What is paged memory? | Memory that can be moved from RAM to the disk pagefile |
| What is non-paged memory? | Memory that must remain in physical RAM |
| Is high RAM utilization always a performance problem? | No, using available RAM efficiently is normal |
| What memory condition is more concerning than high physical RAM use? | Heavy pagefile utilization |
| What can excessive paging indicate? | Insufficient physical RAM |
| Why can excessive paging slow a computer? | The system must repeatedly read and write memory data to disk |
| What does the Disk section of Task Manager monitor? | Active time, response time, and read and write performance |
| What can sustained high disk utilization indicate? | A storage bottleneck or excessive paging |
| What can slow disk response times indicate? | A slow drive, corruption, paging, or failing storage |
| What does the Network section of Task Manager monitor? | Network send and receive throughput |
| Which Task Manager tab shows all users currently signed in? | Users |
| What can the Task Manager Users tab display for each user? | Their running processes and resource usage |
| What can an administrator do from the Task Manager Users tab? | Sign out users or send them messages |
| Which Task Manager tab manages programs configured to run when Windows starts? | Startup |
| What can disabling unnecessary startup programs improve? | Boot time and system performance |
| Which Task Manager tab displays Windows background services? | Services |
| What is a Windows service? | A background process that can run without user interaction |
| What should you check if a Windows service fails to start? | Its dependent services |
| What is a common first troubleshooting step for a malfunctioning service? | Restart the service |
| What does setting a service to Manual do? | Prevents automatic startup but allows it to start when needed |
| What does setting a service to Disabled do? | Prevents the service from starting |
| What command opens Resource Monitor? | resmon.exe |
| What is Resource Monitor used for? | Detailed real-time monitoring of CPU, memory, disk, and network resources |
| What is a hard page fault? | When required memory data must be retrieved from disk instead of RAM |
| What can continuously high hard page faults indicate? | Memory pressure or insufficient RAM |
| What command opens Performance Monitor? | perfmon.exe |
| What is Performance Monitor used for? | Detailed real-time and long-term performance analysis |
| What is a Data Collector Set? | A Performance Monitor configuration that records performance data over time |
| Why establish a performance baseline? | To compare normal performance with later problems |
| What type of Performance Monitor log records resource statistics over time? | Counter log |
| What does Processor percent Processor Time measure? | CPU utilization |
| What can sustained very high Processor Time indicate? | A CPU bottleneck |
| What does Average Disk Queue Length measure? | Outstanding disk requests waiting to be processed |
| What can high disk time together with a high disk queue indicate? | A disk performance bottleneck |
| What can continuously declining available memory indicate? | A memory leak |
| What is a memory leak? | A process repeatedly allocates memory without releasing it |
| What does the Pages per second counter help identify? | How heavily the system is using paging |
| What command opens System Configuration? | msconfig.exe |
| What is System Configuration primarily used for? | Diagnosing Windows startup and boot problems |
| What does Normal Startup in msconfig do? | Loads all normal drivers and services |
| What does Diagnostic Startup in msconfig do? | Loads basic devices and services for troubleshooting |
| What does Selective Startup in msconfig do? | Lets you choose which startup components are loaded |
| Which msconfig tab contains Safe Boot options? | Boot |
| Which msconfig tab controls services loaded during startup? | Services |
| What file can Windows use to record boot driver activity? | ntblog.txt |
| Where is ntblog.txt stored? | The Windows system root folder |
| Why should msconfig changes generally be temporary? | It is intended mainly for diagnostic troubleshooting |
| What happens first when a computer starts? | The firmware performs POST |
| What does POST stand for? | Power-On Self-Test |
| What is the purpose of POST? | To verify that essential system hardware is present and functioning |
| After POST, what does the firmware locate? | A boot device |
| What Windows component reads the Boot Configuration Data during startup? | Windows Boot Manager |
| What does BCD stand for? | Boot Configuration Data |
| What does the BCD identify? | Installed operating systems and their boot information |
| What does WINLOAD load during Windows startup? | The Windows kernel, HAL, and boot device drivers |
| What process waits for the user to authenticate after Windows finishes loading? | WINLOGON |
| What partition style is normally associated with UEFI boot? | GPT |
| What partition contains UEFI boot files? | EFI System Partition |
| What Windows environment provides startup troubleshooting and recovery tools? | Windows Recovery Environment |
| What does WinRE stand for? | Windows Recovery Environment |
| How can Advanced Startup be opened from Windows? | Hold Shift while selecting Restart |
| What startup mode loads only basic drivers and services? | Safe Mode |
| Why is Safe Mode useful? | It helps isolate problems caused by drivers or application services |
| What does Safe Mode with Networking add? | Network drivers and services |
| What does Safe Mode with Command Prompt provide? | A command-line interface instead of the normal desktop |
| What Windows recovery tool automatically attempts to repair damaged boot files? | Startup Repair |
| What should you try when damaged boot files prevent Windows from starting? | Startup Repair |
| What recovery option can remove a recently installed Windows update? | Uninstall Updates |
| What recovery tool can return Windows configuration to an earlier state? | System Restore |
| Does System Restore normally restore or delete personal user files? | No |
| What types of changes can System Restore reverse? | Registry changes, application installations, and updates |
| What is a restore point? | A saved snapshot of system configuration used by System Restore |
| What command opens System Restore? | rstrui.exe |
| When are restore points commonly created automatically? | During application and update installations |
| What Windows feature can revert a recently updated device driver? | Roll Back Driver |
| Where is Roll Back Driver found? | Device Manager on the Driver tab |
| When should you consider rolling back a driver? | When a device begins malfunctioning after a driver update |
| What should you try if a Windows update causes problems? | Uninstall the update or use System Restore |
| What is a system image? | A complete backup of the system configuration, applications, and data |
| What recovery feature restores a computer from a system image? | System Image Recovery |
| What Windows recovery option reinstalls Windows? | Reset this PC |
| What does Reset this PC with Keep my files preserve? | Personal files |
| What does Keep my files remove? | Desktop applications and system settings |
| What does Reset this PC with Remove everything delete? | Personal files, applications, and settings |
| Which reset option is appropriate before giving a PC to another owner? | Remove everything with secure drive cleaning |
| What should you check first for a No boot device found error? | Removable media, boot order, and drive connections |
| What can an intermittent No boot device found message indicate? | A failing storage device |
| What does a No OS found message suggest? | The boot device was detected but Windows boot information could not be located |
| What tool can repair Windows boot information from the recovery command prompt? | bootrec |
| What does bootrec /fixmbr repair? | The Master Boot Record |
| Should bootrec /fixmbr be used on a GPT disk according to this material? | No |
| What does bootrec /fixboot attempt to repair? | The boot sector |
| What does bootrec /rebuildbcd do? | Adds missing Windows installations to the BCD |
| What should you suspect if Windows works in Safe Mode but not normally? | A driver or service problem |
| What should you suspect if Windows boots but the graphical interface does not load? | A graphics driver or system file problem |
| What keyboard shortcut can test whether Windows is responsive during a black screen? | Windows key plus Ctrl plus Shift plus B |
| What tools can verify system integrity after repeated black screen problems? | chkdsk and sfc |
| What file is especially associated with a corrupt Windows user profile? | NTUSER.DAT |
| How is a corrupt local user profile commonly repaired? | Create a new account and copy user files into the new profile |
| Which files should not be copied from a corrupt profile into the new profile? | NTUSER.DAT, NTUSER.DAT.LOG, and NTUSER.INI |
| What should you check first when troubleshooting degraded Windows performance? | Resource utilization in Task Manager |
| What resource usage level may indicate a serious performance bottleneck? | Sustained utilization near 90 to 100 percent |
| What should you identify after finding a highly utilized resource? | The process using the resource |
| What should you try if a process becomes permanently unresponsive? | Restart its service or end the task |
| What should you try if ending a process does not restore performance? | Reboot the computer |
| What can a Low memory warning indicate? | Too many applications, insufficient RAM, or a memory leak |
| What is a memory leak? | A process allocates memory without properly releasing it |
| What should you do when Windows reports Low disk space? | Use Disk Cleanup and investigate excessive file creation |
| What type of drive should be defragmented to improve file access? | HDD |
| What Windows tools can help determine whether hardware resources need upgrading? | Task Manager, Resource Monitor, and Performance Monitor |
| What startup troubleshooting action can reduce unnecessary resource use? | Disable unnecessary startup programs and services |
| What security issue should be considered when unexplained performance problems occur? | Malware |
| What power-related issue can cause poor system performance? | CPU throttling from a power-saving mode or overheating |
| What does BSOD stand for? | Blue Screen of Death |
| What type of Windows error does a BSOD display? | A STOP error |
| What commonly causes BSODs during startup? | Faulty hardware or hardware drivers |
| What should you record when troubleshooting a BSOD? | The STOP error code |
| What recovery options may fix a BSOD caused by a recent change? | System Restore, driver rollback, or update rollback |
| What hardware checks should be performed for repeated BSODs? | Check component seating, cables, cooling, and hardware diagnostics |
| What Windows tool tests RAM for errors? | Windows Memory Diagnostic |
| What should you do first if Windows Memory Diagnostic reports errors? | Check that the memory modules are seated correctly |
| How can a faulty RAM module be isolated? | Test the modules individually |
| What might be faulty if a known-good RAM module still reports errors? | The motherboard |
| What command checks the file system for corruption? | chkdsk |
| What command scans protected Windows system files for corruption? | sfc |
| What sfc command repairs corrupted Windows system files? | sfc /scannow |
| What should you check if USB devices stop working after sleep or hibernation? | USB or chipset drivers and USB selective suspend |
| What power feature can cause some USB resume problems? | USB selective suspend |
| What should you do if an application repeatedly crashes? | Check Event Viewer and look for an application update |
| What should you try if updating a crashing application does not fix it? | Repair or reinstall the application |
| What Windows tool can terminate an unresponsive application? | Task Manager |
| What should you check when a Windows service fails to start? | Event Viewer and the Services console |
| What is a common first step when a service fails? | Try to start or restart it manually |
| Why might one Windows service fail because another service is stopped? | Services can have dependencies |
| What account-related problem can prevent a service from starting? | The service account lacks permission or has invalid credentials |
| What should you do if a core Windows service appears corrupted? | Check system files, disk errors, and malware |
| What command can re-register a DLL used by a service? | regsvr32 |
| What is time drift? | A computer clock gradually becoming unsynchronized from the authoritative time source |
| Why can time drift cause network problems? | Authentication and backup processes depend on accurate synchronized time |
| What is the preferred way to keep enterprise clients synchronized? | Use authoritative network time sources |
| What Windows command traces the route packets take to a destination? | tracert |
| What command is commonly used on Linux and macOS instead of tracert? | traceroute |
| What information can ping help measure besides connectivity? | Packet loss and response time |
| Why will a local device usually have a lower ping response time than an Internet host? | It is reached across fewer network links and devices |
| What does netstat -an display? | Active connections and listening ports using numerical addresses and port numbers |
| What can netstat help identify during network troubleshooting? | Active TCP and UDP connections, listening ports, and remote addresses |
| What is Wireshark used for? | Capturing and analyzing network traffic |
| What does Wireshark capture? | Network packets traveling through a selected network interface |
| What should you select in Wireshark before beginning a packet capture? | The network interface carrying the traffic you want to analyze |
| What protocol can you filter for in Wireshark to examine ping traffic? | ICMP |
| What does ICMP stand for? | Internet Control Message Protocol |
| What information can be identified from captured packets in Wireshark? | Source and destination IP addresses |
| Why are Wireshark display filters useful? | They limit displayed packets to traffic relevant to the investigation |
| What traffic types might you filter for when troubleshooting web traffic? | HTTP or HTTPS |
| Can Wireshark captures be saved for later analysis? | Yes |
| What should be compared when selecting a remote access tool? | Features, security, use cases, strengths, and limitations |
| What security features should be considered when evaluating remote access software? | Encryption and authentication controls |
| Why is the intended use case important when choosing a remote access tool? | Different tools are better suited to tasks such as IT support or remote work |
| What are the three broad types of security controls in this material? | Physical, procedural, and logical controls |
| What is a physical security control? | A safeguard in the physical environment such as a fence, door, or lock |
| What is a procedural security control? | A safeguard applied and enforced by people |
| What is a logical security control? | A safeguard enforced by digital systems or software |
| What are examples of logical security controls? | Authentication, antivirus software, and firewalls |
| What does CIA stand for in cybersecurity? | Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability |
| What does confidentiality protect? | Sensitive data from unauthorized access |
| What does integrity ensure? | Data remains accurate and trustworthy |
| What does availability ensure? | Resources are accessible when authorized users need them |
| What does IAM stand for? | Identity and Access Management |
| What is the purpose of IAM? | To ensure authorized users receive appropriate access to resources |
| What does identification do in IAM? | Defines and identifies users, devices, and applications |
| What does authentication do in IAM? | Verifies the identity of a user attempting to access a resource |
| What does authorization determine? | Which resources and actions an authenticated user is allowed to access |
| What does access control do? | Enforces authorization rules and restrictions |
| What does ACL stand for? | Access Control List |
| What is an ACL? | A list attached to a resource that defines access permissions |
| What does ACE stand for? | Access Control Entry |
| What does an ACE identify? | A subject and the permissions that subject has |
| What does SID stand for? | Security Identifier |
| What does Windows use a SID for? | Uniquely identifying a user or security group in permission entries |
| What happens to the SID if a Windows account is deleted and recreated with the same name? | A new and different SID is created |
| What happens to old permissions when an account is recreated with the same username? | They must be assigned again because the SID changed |
| What is implicit deny? | Access is denied unless a rule specifically permits it |
| How are firewall rules typically processed? | From top to bottom |
| What normally happens if traffic matches no firewall rule? | The default rule denies it |
| What is the principle of least privilege? | Give users only the minimum access necessary to perform their jobs |
| What does system hardening mean? | Making a system more secure |
| What is a vulnerability? | A weakness that can be accidentally triggered or intentionally exploited |
| What is a threat? | The potential for a vulnerability to be exploited and cause a security breach |
| What is a threat actor? | A person or thing that poses a threat |
| What is an attack vector? | The path or tool used to carry out an attack |
| What is risk? | The likelihood and impact of a threat exploiting a vulnerability |
| What two factors are used to evaluate risk in this material? | Likelihood and impact |
| What is symmetric encryption? | Encryption that uses one shared secret key for both encryption and decryption |
| What is the major advantage of symmetric encryption? | Speed |
| What is the major challenge of symmetric encryption? | Securely distributing and protecting the secret key |
| What symmetric encryption algorithm is identified in this material? | AES |
| What does AES stand for? | Advanced Encryption Standard |
| What is asymmetric encryption? | Encryption that uses a mathematically linked public and private key pair |
| Which asymmetric key must be kept secret? | The private key |
| Which asymmetric key can be distributed publicly? | The public key |
| If data is encrypted with a recipient's public key, which key decrypts it? | The recipient's private key |
| Can a public key derive its corresponding private key? | No |
| What is a cryptographic hash? | A fixed-length representation of data produced by a one-way function |
| Can the original data normally be recovered from a cryptographic hash? | No |
| Why are hashes useful for password storage? | The original password does not need to be recoverable |
| What hash algorithm family is emphasized in this material? | SHA |
| What examples of SHA algorithms are given? | SHA-256 and SHA-3 |
| What is one key difference between encryption and hashing? | Encryption is reversible with the correct key while hashing is one-way |
| What is the purpose of a digital signature? | To verify that data has not been altered or spoofed |
| How does a sender create a digital signature? | Hash the message and encrypt the hash with the sender's private key |
| Which key is used to verify a digital signature? | The sender's public key |
| How does a recipient verify a digitally signed message? | Compare the sender's decrypted hash with a newly calculated hash of the message |
| What security property does a digital signature primarily help verify? | Integrity |
| What is key exchange? | A method for two hosts to establish the same symmetric encryption key securely |
| Why are symmetric keys commonly used for the actual data in a secure session? | Symmetric encryption is faster than asymmetric encryption |
| What is a session key? | A symmetric key used to encrypt communication during a session |
| What is an ephemeral key? | A session key that is changed frequently |
| What protocol example in this material combines certificates, asymmetric methods, and a session key? | TLS |
| What does a TLS certificate contain according to this material? | A public key and digital signature |
| What verifies the signature on a trusted certificate? | The certification authority's public key |
| Where is a local Windows account stored? | The Security Account Manager |
| What does SAM stand for? | Security Account Manager |
| Where is the SAM associated in Windows according to this material? | HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE |
| Can a local account normally be used to log on to a different computer? | No |
| How is a Microsoft account commonly identified? | By an email address |
| Why are security groups used? | To assign permissions efficiently to multiple users |
| What group should additional Windows users normally belong to? | The standard Users group |
| Why should membership in the Administrators group be restricted? | Administrator accounts have extensive privileges and increase security risk |
| What is the default state of the built-in Administrator account? | Disabled |
| What is the modern purpose of the Power Users group in Windows 10 and 11? | It has the same permissions as the standard Users group |
| What command is used to manage Windows user accounts from the command line? | net user |
| What command is used to manage local Windows groups? | net localgroup |
| What net user switch disables an account when used with active? | /active:no |
| What does JIT stand for in access control? | Just-in-Time |
| What is Just-in-Time access? | Granting access only when needed and only for the required amount of time |
| What does PAM stand for? | Privileged Access Management |
| What is the purpose of PAM? | To secure, control, and monitor privileged accounts |
| What security principle does UAC help enforce? | Least privilege |
| What must a standard user provide at a UAC prompt for an administrative task? | Administrator credentials |
| What must an administrator do when UAC prompts for elevation? | Explicitly approve the action |
| What shortcut can run a selected application with elevated privileges? | Ctrl+Shift+Enter |
| Why does lowering UAC notification settings reduce security? | It makes it easier for malware to perform privileged actions |
| What is zero trust? | A security model in which users and devices are not automatically trusted |
| What phrase summarizes zero trust in this material? | Never trust, always verify |
| What three principal authentication factor categories are identified in the lesson text? | Knowledge, possession, and inherence |
| What is a knowledge authentication factor? | Something you know |
| What is an example of a knowledge factor? | A password |
| What is a possession authentication factor? | Something you have |
| What is an example of a possession factor? | A smartphone or smart card |
| What is an inherence authentication factor? | Something you are |
| What is an example of an inherence factor? | A fingerprint |
| What additional authentication factor does the lesson video describe as something you do? | A behavioral factor such as a gesture |
| What additional authentication factor does the lesson video describe as somewhere you are? | A location factor such as geographic location |
| What does MFA stand for? | Multifactor Authentication |
| What is required for authentication to count as MFA? | At least two different authentication factor types |
| Does using a password and a PIN count as MFA? | No, both are knowledge factors |
| Does using a password and fingerprint count as MFA? | Yes, they use knowledge and inherence factors |
| What is 2-step verification? | An authentication process that requires an additional verification step after initial sign-in |
| What is an OTP? | A One-Time Password valid for a single login |
| Why does an OTP improve security? | A stolen normal password alone is not enough to authenticate |
| What does TOTP stand for? | Time-Based One-Time Password |
| How does TOTP work? | The code is valid only for a limited period of time |
| What does HOTP stand for? | Hash-Based Message Authentication Code One-Time Password |
| How does HOTP generate unique passwords? | It uses a counter that increases for each requested code |
| How does challenge-response authentication work? | A server sends a challenge that is used to generate a unique response |
| What can an authenticator app provide? | Passwordless authentication or an additional authentication factor |
| How is an authenticator app commonly registered with a service? | By scanning a QR code and completing validation |
| What is a hard token? | A physical authentication device such as a smart card or USB token |
| What authentication standard are many hard tokens designed to support? | FIDO2 |
| What Windows component handles local authentication? | Local Security Authority |
| What does LSA stand for? | Local Security Authority |
| Where are local Windows account credentials stored? | Security Accounts Manager database |
| What does SAM stand for? | Security Accounts Manager |
| What type of logon is a Windows local sign-in also called? | Interactive logon |
| Is signing in to Windows with a Microsoft account still considered a local sign-in in this material? | Yes |
| What authentication protocol is preferred for Windows domain network sign-in? | Kerberos |
| When is Kerberos commonly used in Windows? | When authenticating on an Active Directory domain |
| What can be used for remote sign-in when the device is outside the local network? | A VPN or web portal |
| What Windows feature provides PIN, fingerprint, facial recognition, and security key sign-in options? | Windows Hello |
| How is a Windows Hello PIN different from a Microsoft account password? | The PIN is configured separately for each device |
| What hardware security feature does Windows Hello use to protect the PIN? | TPM |
| What does TPM stand for? | Trusted Platform Module |
| Why can a Windows Hello PIN work while the computer is offline? | Authentication occurs locally using the device TPM |
| Can a Windows Hello PIN contain letters and symbols? | Yes |
| What Windows Hello biometric method uses a fingerprint sensor? | Fingerprint recognition |
| What Windows Hello biometric method uses an infrared camera? | Facial recognition |
| Why does Windows Hello facial recognition use infrared and a 3-D image? | To reduce spoofing with photographs |
| What physical authentication devices can Windows Hello use as security keys? | USB tokens, smart cards, or compatible smartphones |
| What is SSO? | Single Sign-On |
| What does Single Sign-On allow a user to do? | Authenticate once and access multiple applications or services |
| What authentication system provides SSO in an Active Directory domain? | Kerberos |
| What is a major advantage of SSO? | Users do not need to manage separate credentials for every service |
| What is a major security disadvantage of SSO? | A compromised account may expose multiple services |
| What does Windows Hello for Business use instead of transmitting a reusable password? | Public and private encryption keys |
| Where is the Windows Hello for Business private key stored? | In the device TPM |
| Which Windows Hello for Business key is registered with the server? | The public key |
| What does SAML stand for? | Security Assertions Markup Language |
| What is SAML commonly used for? | Single Sign-On between an identity provider and a service provider |
| What does IdP stand for? | Identity Provider |
| What does SP stand for in SAML? | Service Provider |
| What does the Identity Provider do in SAML? | Authenticates the user and creates a signed SAML assertion |
| What does the Service Provider do with a SAML assertion? | Verifies it and grants access to the requested resource |
| What is a Windows domain? | A centrally managed network of users, computers, and resources |
| Why are domains more scalable than local accounts? | Accounts and permissions can be centrally managed |
| What server is required to create a Windows domain? | A domain controller |
| What does DC stand for? | Domain Controller |
| What directory service database is stored on a Windows domain controller? | Active Directory |
| What types of objects are commonly stored in Active Directory? | User, group, and computer objects |
| Where are domain user accounts stored? | In Active Directory on a domain controller |
| What console is used to manage Active Directory accounts? | Active Directory Users and Computers |
| What console is used to manage accounts that exist only on one Windows computer? | Local Users and Groups |
| What is one responsibility of a domain controller? | Authenticating domain users |
| Which group normally has administrative control over the Windows domain? | Domain Admins |
| What is a member server? | A server joined to a domain that does not store the Active Directory database |
| What services might a member server provide? | File, print, email, database, or application services |
| Why are security groups useful in Active Directory? | They allow permissions to be assigned to groups of users efficiently |
| What is an OU in Active Directory? | Organizational Unit |
| What is the purpose of an Organizational Unit? | To divide a domain into administrative areas for easier management and delegation |
| What can an OU be based on? | Departments, locations, or other organizational needs |
| What can be delegated through an OU? | Administrative control over selected users and computers |
| What is a Group Policy Object? | A collection of policy settings that can be applied to users and computers |
| What does GPO stand for? | Group Policy Object |
| Where can a domain GPO be linked? | A domain or Organizational Unit |
| What happens to accounts placed in an OU with a linked GPO? | The applicable policy settings are applied to them |
| Can an OU or domain have more than one GPO linked to it? | Yes |
| What does RSoP stand for? | Resultant Set of Policies |
| What does RSoP describe? | The final set of policies that apply to a user or computer |
| When are Group Policies normally applied? | At sign-in and during periodic refreshes |
| How often does this material say Group Policy normally refreshes? | About every 90 minutes |
| What command applies new or changed Group Policy immediately? | gpupdate |
| What does gpupdate /force do? | Reapplies all Group Policies |
| What gpupdate switch can sign the user out when required by a policy? | /logoff |
| What gpupdate switch can restart the computer when required by a policy? | /boot |
| What command displays the Group Policies applied to a user or computer? | gpresult |
| What gpresult switch displays policy information for the desktop? | /r |
| What is a login script? | A script that runs when a user signs in |
| What can a login script configure for a user? | Environment variables, mapped drives, printers, and other resources |
| How can a login script help enforce security requirements? | It can check whether the client meets requirements before allowing access |
| Can many login script tasks also be performed using Group Policy? | Yes |
| What is a Windows workgroup? | A peer-to-peer network where each computer manages its own users and shared resources |
| What is a Windows domain? | A client-server network with centralized administration and security |
| What is the default Windows workgroup name? | WORKGROUP |
| What command opens System Properties? | sysdm.cpl |
| What can System Properties be used to change for networking? | The computer name and workgroup or domain membership |
| Which Windows network profile should normally be used for workgroup sharing? | Private |
| What two settings must normally be enabled to share resources on a workgroup? | Network discovery and file and printer sharing |
| Why is enabling sharing on a Public network not recommended? | It can expose the computer to devices on untrusted networks |
| What is a major disadvantage of password-protected sharing in a workgroup? | Users need local accounts configured on each computer they access |
| Does enabling file sharing automatically share folders? | No |
| What permission allows a user to view shared files without changing them? | Read |
| What permission allows a user to view and modify shared files? | Read/write |
| What special Windows group contains all user accounts? | Everyone |
| What character at the end of a Windows share name makes the share hidden from normal browsing? | A dollar sign |
| What is the hidden administrative share for the root of the C drive? | C$ |
| What is the hidden administrative share for the Windows system folder? | ADMIN$ |
| Who can normally access Windows administrative shares? | Members of the local Administrators group |
| What does UNC stand for? | Universal Naming Convention |
| What is the standard UNC format for a network share? | \\server\share |
| What is a mapped drive? | A network share assigned a drive letter on the client |
| What option keeps a mapped drive connected after sign-in? | Reconnect at sign-in |
| What is an advantage of mapping a network share instead of using its UNC path directly? | It provides a drive letter and can reconnect automatically |
| What command displays servers on the local Windows network? | net view |
| What command can display the shares available on a specific server? | net view \\ServerName |
| What command is used to map and manage network drives? | net use |
| What net use option makes a mapped drive remain after reboot? | /persistent:yes |
| What command removes a specific mapped drive such as M? | net use M: /delete |
| What command removes all mapped network drives? | net use * /delete |
| What should you check if a net use command fails? | Network connectivity, permissions, and the share path |
| How does a network printer with its own Ethernet or Wi-Fi adapter differ from a Windows shared printer? | Clients can connect directly without depending on another PC |
| What information can be used to add a network printer directly? | Its IP address or hostname |
| What must remain powered on for a printer shared through a Windows PC to remain available? | The Windows host computer |
| Where is a Windows printer configured for sharing? | The Sharing tab in Printer Properties |
| What are share permissions? | Permissions that apply when a resource is accessed over the network |
| What are NTFS permissions? | File system permissions that apply to both local and network access |
| Do share permissions protect files from users logged on locally? | No |
| Do NTFS permissions apply when a file is accessed locally? | Yes |
| Where are NTFS permissions configured? | The Security tab of a file or folder's Properties |
| What NTFS permission allows viewing files and running executables? | Read, list, and execute |
| What NTFS permission allows creating files and subfolders? | Write |
| What NTFS permission allows changing and deleting files? | Modify |
| What NTFS permission includes changing permissions and ownership? | Full Control |
| What happens when no permission grants access to a resource? | Implicit deny applies |
| What is an explicit permission? | A permission directly defined for a user or group |
| What is an inherited permission? | A permission passed down from a parent folder |
| What happens to NTFS permissions assigned to a folder by default? | Files and subfolders inherit them |
| Can NTFS permission inheritance be disabled? | Yes |
| According to this material, what happens when an explicit permission conflicts with an inherited permission? | The explicit permission takes precedence |
| What happens when share and NTFS permissions both apply to network access? | The most restrictive effective permission applies |
| If share permission is Read and NTFS permission is Modify, what is the effective network permission? | Read |
| Which permissions apply when a shared NTFS folder is accessed locally? | NTFS permissions only |
| Which permissions apply when a shared NTFS folder is accessed over the network? | Both share and NTFS permissions |
| Can FAT32 provide NTFS-style file and folder permissions? | No |
| How can a FAT32 network resource be protected according to this material? | With share permissions |
| Why are share permissions often set broadly while NTFS permissions provide detailed control? | NTFS permissions provide more flexible file and folder security |
| What Windows editions in this material can join a domain? | Windows Pro and Enterprise editions |
| Can Windows Home join an Active Directory domain? | No |
| What must a computer have before it can join a Windows domain? | Valid network and DNS configuration plus authorization from an appropriate domain account |
| Why is DNS important when joining a domain? | The computer must resolve the domain name and locate domain services |
| What identifies a Windows domain on the network? | Its fully qualified domain name |
| What account is created for a computer when it joins a domain? | A computer account in the domain |
| What Windows Settings area can be used to join a domain? | Access work or school |
| What other Windows interface can be used to join a domain? | System Properties |
| What usually must happen after a computer joins a domain? | The computer must restart |
| What format specifies a domain account during sign-in? | Domain\Username |
| How can you explicitly sign in with a local account on a domain-joined PC? | Use .\Username or Hostname\Username |
| What is a home folder in a Windows domain? | A private network folder mapped for an individual user's files |
| Why are home folders stored on servers? | To centralize user data for management and backup |
| What variable is commonly used in a home folder path to create a per-user folder? | %USERNAME% |
| What is a roaming profile? | A user profile copied from a server at sign-in and copied back at sign-out |
| What is the main disadvantage of roaming profiles? | Large profiles can slow sign-in and sign-out and consume network bandwidth |
| What is folder redirection? | Redirecting profile folders such as Documents or Pictures to network storage |
| How is folder redirection commonly configured? | Through Group Policy |
| What is a key difference between roaming profiles and folder redirection? | Roaming profiles copy the profile while folder redirection keeps selected folders on the network share |
| Can folder redirection be used without roaming profiles? | Yes |
| What are the three As of access control? | Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting |
| What does authentication mean in the AAA model? | Proving the identity of a user or device |
| What does authorization mean in the AAA model? | Determining what an authenticated user is allowed to access or do |
| What does accounting mean in the AAA model? | Recording and tracking what a user does while accessing a system |
| What security records are commonly used for accounting? | Log files |
| What can accounting logs help determine? | Who performed an action and what changes they made |
| What is an example of something accounting might record? | A user changing a file or security policy |
| Why are security groups useful in large organizations? | They allow the same permissions and policies to be assigned to many users efficiently |
| What can a login script automatically configure when a domain user signs in? | Mapped drives and other user environment settings |
| What is temporary privilege elevation? | Granting higher privileges only long enough to perform a specific administrative task |
| How does temporary privilege elevation support least privilege? | Users retain limited rights except when elevated access is specifically required |
| What does Run as administrator do? | Starts a program with elevated administrative privileges |
| What can a UAC prompt require from a standard user? | Administrator credentials |
| What is the purpose of a logical security policy? | To define rules that protect an organization's digital systems and data |
| What three areas does the security policy exercise emphasize? | Password management, user access, and data encryption |
| What should happen to access when an employee leaves an organization? | The user's access should be revoked |
| What two states of sensitive data does the exercise say should be considered for encryption? | Data in transit and data at rest |
| Which Windows editions are primarily aimed at home users? | Home editions |
| Which Windows edition is primarily aimed at small and medium-sized businesses? | Windows Pro |
| Which Windows edition is primarily aimed at large organizations? | Windows Enterprise |
| What is Windows Pro for Workstations designed for? | High-performance workstations and advanced hardware |
| What file system support is specifically highlighted for Windows Pro for Workstations? | ReFS |
| What are Windows N editions? | European Windows editions that omit certain built-in multimedia features |
| What can be installed to restore missing multimedia features to a Windows N edition? | Media Feature Pack |
| What is an OEM Windows license? | A license supplied with a computer and tied to that device |
| Can an OEM Windows license normally be transferred to another computer? | No |
| Who normally provides support for an OEM Windows license? | The computer manufacturer |
| What is a retail Windows license? | A separately purchased license that can be transferred between computers |
| Can a retail Windows license be active on multiple computers at the same time? | No |
| Who normally provides support for a retail Windows license? | Microsoft |
| Can Windows Home join an Active Directory domain? | No |
| Which Windows editions support joining an Active Directory domain? | Pro, Enterprise, and Education editions |
| Which Windows edition includes Group Policy Editor while Home does not? | Windows Pro and higher editions |
| What command opens the Local Group Policy Editor? | gpedit.msc |
| Which Windows editions in this material support BitLocker while Home does not? | Pro, Enterprise, and Education editions |
| What Windows feature encrypts an entire drive to protect data if a device is stolen? | BitLocker |
| Can Windows Home act as a Remote Desktop host? | No |
| Can Windows Home use the Remote Desktop client? | Yes |
| Which Windows editions support acting as an RDP host? | Pro, Enterprise, and Education editions |
| Which Windows edition is available only through volume licensing in this material? | Windows Enterprise |
| What is volume licensing? | Licensing designed for organizations purchasing and deploying Windows in larger quantities |
| What Windows Enterprise feature controls which applications are allowed to run? | AppLocker |
| What Windows Enterprise security feature protects credentials from theft? | Windows Defender Credential Guard |
| Which Windows edition includes advanced enterprise management and security features beyond Pro? | Windows Enterprise |
| What is Windows Pro Education based on? | Windows Pro |
| What is Windows Education based on? | Windows Enterprise |
| What is an in-place Windows upgrade? | An upgrade that preserves compatible applications, settings, and data |
| What should be checked before performing a Windows upgrade? | Hardware and software compatibility |
| What Microsoft tool is mentioned for checking Windows 11 upgrade compatibility? | PC Health Check |
| What TPM version is required for Windows 11 according to this material? | TPM 2.0 |
| What firmware technology is required for Windows 11 according to this material? | UEFI with Secure Boot |
| What is the purpose of Secure Boot? | To allow the system to boot only trusted software |
| What additional hardware requirement must be met for a supported Windows 11 upgrade? | A supported processor |
| Can a 32-bit CPU run a 64-bit edition of Windows? | No |
| Can a 64-bit CPU run a 32-bit operating system? | Yes |
| Can 32-bit Windows run a 64-bit application? | No |
| Can 64-bit Windows normally run 32-bit applications? | Yes |
| What is the maximum RAM addressable by a 32-bit Windows edition in this material? | 4 GB |
| What type of driver is required by 64-bit Windows? | A 64-bit driver |
| What happens if hardware has no compatible 64-bit driver? | The hardware will not function properly in 64-bit Windows |
| What is a Windows feature update? | A major update that introduces new features and changes |
| What is a Windows quality update? | An update that primarily addresses security vulnerabilities and bugs |
| How often does this material say Windows 11 receives major feature updates? | Annually |
| What major taskbar change was introduced with Windows 11? | The taskbar is center-aligned by default |
| What Windows 11 feature allows separate workspaces for different groups of applications? | Multiple desktops |
| What is an attended OS installation? | An installation where a technician responds to setup prompts |
| What is a clean installation? | Installing a fresh OS while replacing the previous installation and deleting existing data and settings |
| What is an in-place upgrade? | Installing a newer OS version while preserving compatible applications, settings, and user data |
| Which is generally considered more reliable, a clean install or an in-place upgrade? | A clean install |
| What should be done before either a clean install or an in-place upgrade? | Back up important data |
| What hardware should be checked before an OS upgrade? | CPU, chipset, RAM, and other required hardware |
| What software-related items should be checked before an OS upgrade? | Application and driver compatibility |
| What should be done with incompatible applications or devices before an in-place upgrade? | Update, uninstall, or replace them as necessary |
| Why should important third-party drivers be obtained before installing an OS? | Setup media might not include the drivers required for certain hardware |
| What type of storage controller may require a separate driver during Windows setup? | A RAID controller |
| Why is it useful to have Ethernet or Wi-Fi drivers available before an OS installation? | The installed OS may need them before it can access the network for additional drivers or updates |
| What is an unattended installation? | An installation that automates setup choices using a script or configuration file |
| What is the Windows configuration file used for unattended installation called? | An answer file |
| Why are unattended installations useful in large organizations? | They reduce technician interaction when deploying many computers |
| What is image deployment? | Installing a cloned OS image containing a predefined system configuration |
| What can an OS deployment image contain? | The OS, settings, updates, and applications |
| What is a major advantage of image deployment? | It provides consistent software and configuration across systems |
| What is remote network installation? | Deploying an operating system or image to computers across a network |
| What is zero-touch deployment? | Automatic device setup and configuration with no user intervention |
| What is a major benefit of zero-touch deployment? | Devices can be automatically configured and made ready for users with minimal IT involvement |
| What determines which device a computer attempts to boot from first? | The firmware boot order |
| What should be changed to install an OS from a USB drive? | Set the USB device as the temporary or highest-priority boot device |
| What is slipstreamed installation media? | Installation media that already includes needed updates, patches, or drivers |
| What Microsoft tool can create bootable Windows installation media? | Media Creation Tool |
| What does PXE stand for? | Preboot Execution Environment |
| What is PXE used for? | Booting a computer from the network for installation or deployment |
| What network service does a PXE client use to obtain information needed to locate installation resources? | DHCP |
| After installation, what device should normally be restored as the highest-priority boot device? | The internal system drive |
| Why might unused alternate boot methods be disabled after installation? | To reduce the risk of unauthorized booting or OS installation |
| What is multiboot? | Installing multiple operating systems on one computer and choosing one at startup |
| Where should each operating system normally be installed in a multiboot configuration? | Its own partition |
| What software presents the operating system selection menu in a multiboot system? | A boot loader |
| What are examples of multiboot boot loaders mentioned in this material? | GRUB and Windows Boot Manager |
| When installing both Windows and Linux, which should be installed first according to this material? | Windows |
| Why should Windows normally be installed before Linux in a multiboot setup? | Windows can overwrite the boot loader while GRUB can detect other operating systems |
| When installing multiple Windows versions, which should be installed first according to this material? | The older version |
| What is a disk partition? | A logically separate storage area on a physical disk |
| What must be done before a partition can store files? | It must be formatted with a file system |
| What two partition styles are commonly used on Windows disks? | MBR and GPT |
| What does MBR stand for? | Master Boot Record |
| How many primary partitions does MBR support? | Up to four |
| Which MBR partition can be used to start an operating system? | The partition marked active |
| What can be used when more than four partitions are needed on an MBR disk? | An extended partition containing logical drives |
| Can a logical drive in an extended MBR partition be marked active? | No |
| What firmware boot method is associated with MBR in this material? | Legacy BIOS |
| What does GPT stand for? | GUID Partition Table |
| How many partitions can GPT support in Windows according to this material? | Up to 128 |
| What major disk-size advantage does GPT have over MBR? | GPT supports partitions larger than 2 TB |
| What reliability feature does GPT include? | A backup copy of partition information |
| What firmware boot method is associated with GPT? | UEFI |
| What Windows utility can convert an MBR disk to GPT without intentionally deleting data? | mbr2gpt |
| What firmware setting should be changed after converting the boot disk from MBR to GPT? | Switch the system to UEFI boot mode |
| What file system is normally used for a Windows OS partition? | NTFS |
| What file system is normally used by modern macOS? | APFS |
| What file systems are commonly used by Linux according to this material? | ext3 or ext4 |
| What is a factory recovery partition? | A hidden or separate partition containing tools and files used to restore the computer to its original state |
| Where is an OEM recovery partition normally stored? | On the computer's internal drive |
| What happens to user data during a factory recovery according to this material? | It is erased |
| What is a drawback of relying only on an internal recovery partition? | It may become unusable if the original drive fails |
| Does an OEM factory recovery image normally include updates installed after the computer shipped? | No |
| What does a Windows refresh or Keep my files style repair preserve? | User data and personalization while reinstalling system files |
| What happens to desktop applications during the repair option described in this material? | They are removed |
| What does a full reset remove? | The OS installation, applications, settings, and user data |
| How do you find a Windows computer's IP address using Command Prompt? | Open Command Prompt, run ipconfig, find the active adapter, and read the IPv4 Address line |
| How do you find the subnet mask using Command Prompt? | Run ipconfig, find the active adapter, and read the Subnet Mask line |
| How do you ping another device on the same network? | Open Command Prompt, type ping followed by the target device's IP address, and press Enter |
| What indicates that a ping test succeeded? | Reply from messages appear and the summary shows packets were received |
| What indicates that a ping test failed? | Look for Request timed out, Destination host unreachable, or packet loss in the summary |
| What part of a ping result should you check for packet loss? | The Packets section showing Sent, Received, Lost, and percentage lost |
| What does 100 percent packet loss mean in a ping test? | None of the ping requests received a reply, so the test failed |
| How do you manually change a Windows computer's IPv4 address? | Open Network Connections, open the adapter Properties, select Internet Protocol Version 4, choose Properties, select Use the following IP address, enter the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS, then select OK |
Created by:
KeraTheDerg