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Unit 3
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is privacy? | Freedom from unauthorized intrusion. |
| What amendments establish the right to privacy? | First, Third, Fourth, Fifth, Ninth, and Fourteenth Amendments. |
| What should information collected and stored about individuals be limited to? | What is necessary to carry out the functions of the business or government agency collecting the information. |
| Who should have access to collected personal information? | Employees who must use the information in performing their jobs. |
| Can personal information be released outside the organization without permission? | No. |
| What should a person know about information being collected about them? | The person should know the information is being collected and have the opportunity to check it for accuracy. |
| What is confidentiality? | The act of holding information in confidence, not to be released to unauthorized individuals. |
| What is privileged communication? | Information held confidential within a protected relationship. |
| When can a nurse access patient information? | When it is necessary. |
| What should be obtained to maintain confidentiality? | Signed consent. |
| What judgments should be avoided when maintaining patient confidentiality? | Judgments about patients' morals. |
| Is financial information confidential? | Yes. |
| What should you avoid doing on the phone when others are around? | Using the patient's name. |
| What precaution should be taken when leaving messages on voicemail? | Use caution. |
| How should patient information be handled around other patients or visitors? | Keep patient information out of sight. |
| What exceptions to disclosure should be made? | Only legal exceptions. |
| When may confidentiality be waived for an employment medical examination? | When a third party requests the medical examination and that party pays the physician's fee. |
| When may confidentiality be waived during a lawsuit? | When patient records are subpoenaed. |
| When may confidentiality be waived by the patient? | When a waiver has been signed by the patient agreeing to the release. |
| What is HIPAA Standard 1? | Transactions and Code Sets. |
| What is HIPAA Standard 2? | Privacy Rule. |
| What is HIPAA Standard 3? | Security Rule. |
| What is HIPAA Standard 4? | National Identifier Standards. |
| What must be protected against unauthorized disclosure under the HIPAA Privacy Rule? | Protected health information, or PHI. |
| In what forms must PHI be protected? | Spoken, written, and electronic form. |
| What health conditions are considered PHI? | Past, present, or future physical or mental health conditions. |
| Is documentation of the provision of health care PHI? | Yes. |
| Is information about payment for health care PHI? | Yes, including past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care. |
| What are covered entities? | Health care providers who conduct administrative and financial transactions in electronic form. |
| Who is included under covered entities? | Employees, volunteers, trainees, and all others under the control of the entity. |
| What are business associates? | Individuals or organizations that provide functions, activities, or services on behalf of covered entities involving access to, use of, or disclosure of protected health information. |
| What disclosures to patients are permitted under HIPAA? | Disclosures to patients. |
| For what purposes may patient information be used or disclosed? | Treatment, payment, or health care operations. |
| What may covered entities receive for treatment, payment, or health care operations? | Patient information. |
| What does use and disclosure with an opportunity to agree or object involve? | Informal permission that clearly allows the individual to agree or object. |
| What are incidental uses and disclosures? | Reasonable precautions between health care providers. |
| How many national priorities are included under public interest and benefit activities? | 12 national priorities. |
| What is a limited data set used for? | Research. |
| What is removed from a limited data set? | Specific, direct identifiers. |
| What does HIPAA's Security Rule establish requirements for? | Maintaining the security of electronic health records. |
| What two areas of electronic health records must be secured? | Transmission and storage. |
| What may happen if an organization is found to be noncompliant with the Security Rule? | Substantial fines. |
| What does HITECH stand for? | Healthcare Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act. |
| What did the HITECH rule strengthen? | Privacy and security protections. |
| What must covered entities implement to protect PHI? | Safeguards. |
| What must covered entities ensure regarding PHI? | Confidentiality, integrity, and availability of all PHI they create, receive, maintain, or transmit. |
| What threats must covered entities identify and protect against? | Reasonably anticipated threats to the security or integrity of the information. |
| What impermissible activities must covered entities protect against? | Reasonably anticipated, impermissible uses or disclosures. |
| Who must covered entities ensure complies with security requirements? | Their workforce. |
| What is a breach? | An impermissible use or disclosure of a patient's record by a covered entity. |
| When does a breach require notification of the media? | When more than 500 records are breached. |
| Who must also be notified when more than 500 records are breached? | The patients affected by the breach. |
| What organization has maintained a database of PHI breaches since 2009? | HHS Office for Civil Rights, or OCR. |
| Must business associates follow breach notification guidelines? | Yes. |
| What may result from breaches? | Substantial fines. |
| What is an example of a PHI breach? | A stolen laptop with PHI. |
| What does the Medicare Fraud Strike Force do? | Combines federal, state, and local law enforcement to find and prosecute fraud and abuse. |
| Is fraudulent spending always separated from total health care dollars? | No. |
| What is happening to health care fraud according to the notes? | Fraud continues to increase. |
| Is health care fraud always detected? | No, fraud is often undetected. |
| What does the Federal False Claims Act allow individuals to do? | Bring civil actions on behalf of the federal government for false claims. |
| What Latin term is commonly applied to the Federal False Claims Act? | Qui tam. |
| What may whistleblowers receive? | A share of court |
| What does the Federal Anti | Kickback Law prohibit? |
| What are possible punishments for violating the Federal Anti | Kickback Law? |
| What does the Stark Law restrict? | Physicians or members of their immediate family with a financial interest from referring patients to entities owned by the physician. |
| What programs does the Stark Law apply to? | Medicare and Medicaid programs. |
| What does the Criminal Health Care Fraud Statute prohibit? | Knowingly or willingly executing or attempting to execute a scheme to defraud any health care program. |
| What else does the Criminal Health Care Fraud Statute prohibit? | Obtaining money or property under the control of a health care benefit program by false pretenses, representations, or promises. |
| What are vital statistics used to assess? | Population trends and needs. |
| What information is included in vital statistics? | Live births, deaths, fetal deaths or induced abortions, and changes in an individual's civil status. |
| Who uses vital statistic information? | Educational institutions, governmental agencies, research scientists, private industries, and other organizations and individuals. |
| What are educational institutions? | Organizations dedicated to providing structured learning experiences and education to individuals of various ages, including schools, colleges, and universities. |
| What are governmental agencies? | Specialized organizations created by governments to administer laws, provide public services, and manage specific functions on behalf of the state and its citizens. |
| What are research scientists? | Professionals who conduct experiments and studies to expand knowledge in a specific scientific field and apply findings to solve problems or develop new technologies. |
| What are private industries? | Businesses and organizations owned, managed, and operated by individuals, groups, or companies rather than the government, with the primary goal of generating profit. |
| How should entries on birth and death forms be completed? | Type or print all entries. |
| Should any entries on birth and death forms be left blank? | No. |
| What should be avoided when completing birth and death forms? | Corrections and erasures. |
| Where should signatures be provided on birth and death forms? | Where requested. |
| What documents should be filed with state registrars? | Originals only. |
| What should be verified when recording names? | Spelling of names. |
| Should abbreviations be used on birth and death forms? | No. |
| Where should problems with birth and death forms be referred? | State officials. |
| What information about the cause of death is included on a death certificate? | Disease, injury, and/or complication that caused death. |
| What information about the time of death is included on a death certificate? | Date and time of death. |
| What location information is included on a death certificate? | Place of death. |
| What pregnancy information may be included on a death certificate? | Pregnancy in female death. |
| What autopsy information is included on a death certificate? | Whether an autopsy was performed. |
| What deaths may be subject to autopsy? | Deaths possibly due to criminal causes. |
| Is an unattended death subject to autopsy? | Yes. |
| When may a death with an undetermined cause be subject to autopsy? | When the cause is undetermined by the physician. |
| What suspicious deaths may be subject to autopsy? | Violent or otherwise suspicious deaths. |
| What is forensic medicine? | A division of medicine that incorporates law and medicine and involves medical issues or medical proof at trials having to do with malpractice, crimes, and accidents. |
| From what amendment are public health functions inferred? | The 10th Amendment of the U.S. Constitution. |
| What is federalism? | Sharing of power among national, state, and local governments. |
| What do public health statutes help guarantee? | The health and well |
| What unsanitary conditions can public health statutes guard against? | Unsanitary conditions in public facilities. |
| What establishments can be inspected under public health statutes? | Establishments where food and drink are processed and sold. |
| What pests may public health authorities exterminate? | Pests and vermin that can spread disease. |
| What environmental resource can public health authorities check? | Water quality. |
| What can public health authorities establish for certain diseases? | Measures of control. |
| Who may be required to file certain reports for the protection of citizens? | Physicians, school nurses, and other health care workers. |
| What may states require during infectious disease outbreaks? | Investigations. |
| What can states require as a condition for school entry? | Childhood vaccinations. |
| What cigarette | related activity can states prohibit around schools or areas where children congregate? |
| What smoking regulations may states establish? | Smoking bans or restrictions. |
| What can states do to individuals who have certain infectious diseases? | Involuntarily detain or quarantine them. |
| What may states do with property to contain the threat of toxic substances? | Seize and/or destroy the property. |
| What does the CDC provide? | A variety of protective and safety services and education. |
| What does the CDC analyze? | Data to determine solutions for disease threats. |
| What is an example of a CDC service? | Notifying the public of food poisoning outbreaks. |
| Who determines which diseases are reportable? | Each state. |
| When are sexually transmitted diseases reported? | When diagnosed. |
| Who may receive HIV notification? | Past and present sexual partners or needle |
| For whom is communicable disease reporting more stringent? | Patients who work with the public. |
| What are examples of reportable diseases listed in the notes? | Mumps, pertussis, poliomyelitis, and rabies. |
| What federal law addresses vaccine legal liability? | National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986. |
| What does VICP stand for? | National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program. |
| What does SEPPA stand for? | Smallpox Emergency Personnel Protection Act. |
| What vaccines and boosters are listed under vaccine legal liability? | COVID |
| What date must be documented when administering a vaccine? | Date the vaccine was administered. |
| What manufacturer information must be documented when administering a vaccine? | Vaccine manufacturer. |
| What identifying number must be documented for a vaccine? | Vaccine lot number. |
| What health care provider information must be documented when administering a vaccine? | Name, address, and title of the health care provider who administered the vaccine. |
| What does VAERS stand for? | Vaccine Adverse Events Reporting System. |
| What events should be reported to VAERS according to the notes? | Any event listed in the Vaccine Injury Table. |
| What manufacturer | listed events should be reported to VAERS? |
| What injuries are listed as reportable? | Assault and rape. |
| What forms of domestic violence are listed? | Child abuse, spousal abuse, and elder abuse. |
| What are physical signs of abuse? | Unexplained fractures, repeated injuries, burns with unusual shapes, friction burns, bite marks, malnutrition or dehydration, and possible sexual abuse. |
| What are behavioral signs of abuse? | Illogical explanation for injuries, frequently changing physicians, and changes in appetite. |
| What does FDA stand for? | Food and Drug Administration. |
| What department is the FDA part of? | Department of Health and Human Services. |
| What does the FDA do with prescription drugs? | Tests and approves prescription drugs. |
| What does DEA stand for? | Drug Enforcement Administration. |
| What department is the DEA part of? | U.S. Department of Justice. |
| What does the DEA regulate? | Sale and use of drugs. |
| How many categories of drugs does the Controlled Substances Act provide? | Five schedules. |
| What are the drug schedules based on? | Potential for abuse. |
| What is Schedule 1? | No currently accepted medical use. |
| What are examples of Schedule 1 drugs? | Heroin and LSD. |
| What is Schedule 2? | High potential for abuse and follows strict rules. |
| What are examples of Schedule 2 drugs? | Morphine and oxycodone. |
| What is Schedule 3? | Moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence. |
| What is an example of a Schedule 3 drug? | Ketamine. |
| What is Schedule 4? | Low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence. |
| What is an example of a Schedule 4 drug? | Benzodiazepines. |
| What is Schedule 5? | Lower potential for abuse than Schedule 4 drugs. |
| What is an example of a Schedule 5 drug? | Cough syrups with codeine. |
| According to the November 2021 notes, how many states had laws allowing medical marijuana? | 37 states. |
| According to the November 2021 notes, where was recreational marijuana allowed? | 18 states, two territories, and D.C. |
| Are marijuana laws the same in every state? | No, each state has different laws. |