click below
click below
Normal Size Small Size show me how
aud ch 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which organization is responsible for issuing Statements on Auditing Standards (SAS) for audits of nonpublic entities? | The AICPA Auditing Standards Board (ASB). |
| The _____ was created by the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) to oversee and discipline CPAs who audit public companies. | Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) |
| Prior to April 2003, existing standards issued by the ASB were adopted by the PCAOB as _____. | Interim Standards |
| What is the primary purpose of Generally Accepted Auditing Standards (GAAS)? | To identify necessary auditor qualifications and guide the conduct of an audit examination. |
| Which component of GAAS is considered the most authoritative and guides the general conduct of audit engagements? | Fundamental Principles |
| What are the three categories of the 10 basic auditing standards? | General Standards, Standards of Fieldwork, and Standards of Reporting. |
| The Responsibilities Principle in the fundamental principles corresponds to which set of the 10 basic standards? | General Standards |
| Which specific fundamental principle maps to the 10 basic Standards of Fieldwork? | Performance Principle |
| Under the Responsibilities Principle, what three things are auditors responsible for? | Competence and capabilities; ethical requirements; and professional skepticism/judgment. |
| Independence in Fact | The auditor's actual state of mind, characterized by an impartial and unbiased mental attitude. |
| Independence in Appearance | The perception by financial statement users that the auditor is independent and has no conflicting relationships. |
| What is the definition of 'Due Care' according to the Responsibilities Principle? | The level of diligence expected of a prudent auditor in similar circumstances. |
| The mental attitude of maintaining a questioning mind and critically assessing audit evidence is known as _____. | Professional Skepticism |
| Why must an auditor maintain professional skepticism regarding management? | Because a potential conflict of interest always exists as managers want to portray the company in the best light. |
| Professional judgment is defined as the application of _____, knowledge, and experience in making informed decisions during an audit. | training |
| What is the primary goal of the Performance Principle? | To provide reasonable assurance that the financial statements do not contain material misstatements. |
| Why can an audit provide only 'reasonable assurance' rather than an absolute guarantee? | Due to the nature of financial reporting (estimates), the nature of auditing (sampling), and time/cost constraints. |
| In the Performance Principle, the concept of _____ refers to information that would impact the decisions of financial statement users. | materiality |
| What are the two primary characteristics of audit evidence? | Appropriateness (quality) and sufficiency (quantity). |
| The two components of 'Appropriate' audit evidence are relevance and _____. | reliability |
| Which source of audit evidence is generally considered the most reliable? | Direct personal knowledge obtained through the auditor's own physical observation. |
| How does the effectiveness of a client's internal controls typically affect the 'sufficiency' of audit evidence required? | Effective internal controls lead to lower control risk, allowing the auditor to evaluate less evidence. |
| The risk that the audit team's procedures will fail to detect an existing material misstatement is called _____. | detection risk |
| What is the primary requirement of the Reporting Principle? | To express a written opinion (or indicate that an opinion cannot be expressed) regarding the financial statements. |
| Which audit opinion is issued when the financial statements are in conformity with GAAP in all material respects? | Unmodified (or Unqualified) opinion. |
| What does a 'Qualified' audit opinion indicate? | The financial statements are in conformity with GAAP except for a limited, specific item. |
| When an auditor concludes that the financial statements are NOT in conformity with GAAP, which opinion must be issued? | Adverse opinion. |
| Under what condition would an auditor issue a 'Disclaimer' of opinion? | When the auditor is unable to express an opinion, often due to a significant limitation in the scope of the audit. |
| What is the terminology difference for a 'clean' opinion between public and nonpublic entity audits? | Public entities use the term 'unqualified,' while nonpublic entities use the term 'unmodified.' |
| What are the three major sections required in a standard audit report for a public company? | Opinion on the Financial Statements, Basis for Opinion, and Critical Audit Matters (CAMs). |
| According to the PCAOB report structure, which section contains the description of the auditor's and management's responsibilities? | The Basis for Opinion section. |
| What is defined as a 'Critical Audit Matter' (CAM)? | A matter communicated to the audit committee that relates to material accounts and involved especially challenging or complex auditor judgment. |
| List the 5 stages of an audit in sequential order. | 1. Obtain (or retain) clients; 2. Engagement planning; 3. Risk management; 4. Audit evidence; 5. Reporting. |
| In which of the 5 stages of an audit is 'competence and capabilities' primarily evaluated? | The Obtain (or retain) clients stage. |
| The 'Responsibility Principle' requirements (independence, skepticism, etc.) must be applied during which stages of an audit? | All stages of the audit. |
| What is the purpose of a system of 'Quality Control' within a public accounting firm? | To provide reasonable assurance that the firm complies with professional standards and issues appropriate reports. |
| How often does the PCAOB inspect firms that audit more than 100 public entities? | Annually. |
| How often does the PCAOB inspect firms that audit 100 or fewer public entities? | Every three years. |
| What is the difference between Part I and Part II of a PCAOB inspection report? | Part I details audit deficiencies and is public; Part II details quality control deficiencies and is private unless not remedied within a year. |
| True or False: An auditor can be independent in fact but fail to be independent in appearance. | True. |
| What is the 'auditor-client revolving door' issue? | When audit firm personnel leave to take management positions at a client they recently audited, potentially compromising independence. |
| Under the Performance Principle, what is the 'nature' of the financial report that prevents absolute assurance? | Financial reports include significant components based on management's judgments and estimates. |
| Evidence generated by the client is generally considered _____ reliable than evidence obtained directly from a third party. | less |
| Which specific auditing standard (AS) is most frequently cited for deficiencies in PCAOB inspections related to integrated audits? | AS 2201 (Audit of Internal Control Over Financial Reporting). |
| The requirement for auditors to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment is part of which fundamental principle? | Performance Principle (Risk Assessment). |
| According to the Responsibilities Principle, how is an auditor's competence usually gained? | Through education (CPA requirements) and experience (expertise in specific industries). |
| Which management assertion is most closely tested when an auditor physically observes computer equipment to ensure it actually exists? | Existence. |
| What is the 'Financial Reporting Framework'? | The set of criteria (e.g., GAAP or IFRS) used to determine the recognition, measurement, and disclosure of items in financial statements. |
| According to SOX Section 206, how long is the 'cooling off' period before an audit team member can join a client as a CEO or CFO? | One year. |
| The requirement that all audit documentation indicate the identity of the preparer and reviewer relates to which performance element? | Adequate planning and supervision. |
| In terms of evidence reliability, why are bank statements obtained directly from the bank more reliable than vendor invoices provided by the client? | They are obtained directly from a third party and have not passed through the hands of client personnel who could alter them. |
| An audit firm's 'Monitoring' activities are part of which overall system? | The System of Quality Control. |
| Why is 'audit quality' often considered a 'black box' to the general public? | Audit quality is an intangible good that is usually unobservable until a failure (like a restatement) occurs. |
| If an auditor is not independent, which type of audit opinion must be issued regardless of the financial statement's conformity with GAAP? | A disclaimer of opinion. |
| In the context of the Performance Principle, 'Planning and Supervision' requires the preparation of a written _____. | audit plan |
| What level of quantitative misstatement is generally considered 'material'? | A magnitude that would impact the perceptions or decisions of a reasonable financial statement user. |
| Materiality depends on both quantitative factors and _____ factors, such as the presence of fraud. | qualitative |
| Does an auditor assume management is dishonest when practicing professional skepticism? | No; the auditor assumes management is neither dishonest nor perfectly honest. |
| Which stage of the audit involves determining the nature, timing, and extent of substantive procedures based on internal control effectiveness? | Risk Management (Risk Assessment). |
| Which PCAOB standard addresses the requirement to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence? | AS 1105 |
| If an auditor lacks the necessary industry-specific expertise to audit a complex new client, they must either obtain that knowledge or _____. | decline the engagement |
| The 'Basis for Opinion' section in a public audit report must state that the audit was conducted in accordance with the standards of the _____. | PCAOB |
| What is 'Independence in Mental Attitude' also known as in the fundamental principles? | Independence in Fact. |
| The three components of the 'General Standards' in the 10 basic standards are Training/Proficiency, Independence, and _____. | Due Professional Care |