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MN QB Exam

for Minnesota residential building contractor license (BC) exam

QuestionAnswer
A MN contractor must first contact which department when filing for an assumed name? MN Secretary of State
A MN contractor must notify the Commissioner of any change in personal name, trade name, business entity, or business location within how many days after the change? 15
A _______ bond will ensure the contractor that wins the project will put into action the contract at the bid price and proceed accordingly. Bid Bond
Within a written contact, _________ take priority over numbers to ensure clarity and reduce misunderstandings. words
When building a new home, or remodeling in MN, who directs the subcontractors? The prime contractor who works for the home owner
__________ are the forces that result from the weight of the building materials, occupants and their possessions, environmental effects, differential movement and other restrained dimensional changes. Loads
Those loads in which variations over time are rare: Permanent loads
The weight of the construction materials fully incorporated into the building, including, but not limited to walls, floors, roofs, ceilings, stairways, built-in partitions, finishes, cladding, plus the weight of fixed service equipment Dead Loads
Non-licensed, independent contractors must register with which organization? Dept. of Labor and Industry (DLI)
This protects and safeguards a contractor if there is devastation or loss to a project prior to completion, and helps protect the project from certain kinds of property damage. Builders Risk Insurance
Timely renewal of a license occurs every other year on which date? March 1
A licensed ______________ ______________ can remodel homes and do roofing but cannot pull permits for building new homes, except for their own personal residence. Residential Remodeler
The Construction Code and Licensing Division (CCLD) of the DLI publishes which free quarterly newsletter? The CCLD Review
Characterized by it's triangular shape and is mostly used for roof construction. Pitched Truss (aka common truss)
Characterized by parallel top and bottom chords and is often used for floor construction. Parallel Chord Truss (aka flat truss)
The material or assembly of materials applied on the exterior side of the walls for providing a weather-resistant barrier, insulation, or aesthetics. A wall covering
Which insurance aims to cover claims in excess of regular homeowners? Umbrella (or excess) liability insurance
A facing that is attached to the wall for providing ornamentation, protection, and insulation. A veneer
This stays behind an exterior wall covering to resist liquid water that has penetrated behind the exterior covering from intruding any further. water resistive barrier
Who is eligible to file a lien against a MN property? Those who perform engineering or land surveying, and/or those who contribute labor, skills, or machinery for improvements of real estate.
Lien rights attach when? These attach when the first item is furnished for the project.
True or false? A lien notice is assumed for any work provided on a property. FALSE; Contracts must explicitly include notice of this within the contract, and they must be in 10-point bold type.
Liens expire how many days after the last item is furnished unless filed and the homeowner notified? 120 Days after the last item is furnished (unless filed and the homeowner notified)
________ __________ _________ _ corresponds to buildings in areas where expected ground shaking is quite minor. Seismic Design Category A
The percentage of lumbar used for framing that is typically wasted. 10%
Under Minnesota status, a violation of the code is a __________ . misdemeanor
Erecting a garden shed that measures _______ square feet or less does not require a permit. 200 sqft
Who would receive reports of evidence of noncompliance with certification? the State Building Inspector
An application for a permit for any proposed work shall be considered abandoned ________ days after the date of filing if a permit hasn't been issued. 180
All pre-fabricated buildings must bear a seal and compliance certificate and data plate evidencing the __________ of code compliance. manufacturer's certification
Who has the job of approving prefabricated buildings? the State Building Inspector
A prefabricated building is defined as a building intended for use as which of the following? R-3, One Family Dwelling, U-1 Accessory Building
Decks and platforms not more than _________ inches above adjacent grade are exempt from permit. 30 inches
Keep records of applications, plans and permits, grant changes to specifications if compliant, conduct inspections Duties of a building official
Deferral of any submittal items shall have the prior approval of the _______. Building Official
Minnesota Plumbing code is found in which Minnesota Rules chapter? 4714
Storage buildings that are ________ square feet or less in floor area do not count as prefabricated buildings. 1500 sq ft
If a stop-work order has been issued, how soon must you cease all activities? IMMEDIATELY
Which of the following chapters of the IECC are considered mandatory? 2[RE] - 5{RE}
Which gypsum board is NOT required to be inspected? gypsum board not part of the fire-resistive assembly
Which chapter of the Minnesota Administrative Rules provides the Minnesota specific amendments that have been incorporated into the 2020 Code? Chapter 1309
Chapter 1 of the Residential Provisions of the IECC and any references to code administration are deleted and replaced with Minnesota Rules, Chapter 1300
How many sets of construction documents should be retained by the building official? One set of construction documents
Chapter 11 of the IRC (Energy) has been replaced by which of the following? Minnesota Rules 1322 and 1323
If the municipality has issued a permit within the last _______ months, occupancy groups do not have to be the same construction, classification, or have the same exit system. 12 months
When submittal documents for similar plans are approved under subpart 6, plan review fees shall not exceed ______ percent of the normal building permit fee. 25 percent
Which version of the IRC has Minnesota adopted with amendments? 2018 IRC
lateral pressure of soil held by the wall, pressure of water behind the wall, lateral pressure from any surcharge on the soil behind the wall the general causes of pressure on a wall
The primary design standard for wind load calculations: ASCE 7 (7-02?)
Wind loading is primarily determined based on: conditions for a REGION
The Valid Surface Roughness Categories are: B, C, D (Category A was deleted from the ASCE 7)
Surface Roughness category defined in ASCE 7 as urban and suburban areas, wooded areas or other terrain with numerous, closely spaced obstructions the size of a single-family dwelling or larger. surface roughness category B
This shows all of the activities that have to be completed in order for a project to be completed. work breakdown structure
An owner has how many days after completion of work to request information from all that submitted a properly filed notice? 15 days (Minnesota Statutes Section 514.011, this provision relates to mechanics' liens)
Retaining walls that are free to move and rotate at the top should be designed for? "Active" pressure, or active earth pressure
_________ of soil moisture can cause the foundation to settle, especially near the perimeter. loss / decrease
_______ in soil moisture is the most serious threat, as the swelling potential of expansive soil is much greater than the shrinkage potential. gain / increase
Expansive soil (aka shrink-swell soil) can cause the lifting of a building during periods of __________ moisture. HIGH
Generally, soils with a plasticity index of _____________ or greater should be considered expansive. 15 or greater
In order to prevent settlement problems, soil must extend at least how many times the distance from the base of the footing to the influence depth? 0.5 times (or half)
The SPT test is routinely used for estimating the relative density and friction angle of ________. cohesionless soils (granular soils like sand and gravel)
____________ is a measure for determining the quality of strength of soil that underlies a pavement. California Bearing Ratio (CBR)
_____________ is a measure of the rate of flow of water through saturated soil under a given hydraulic gradient. Coefficient of permeability
A test one can use to determine the in-situ dry density of soil. core cutter method
The __________ of a roof is the ratio of the rise to the run of the rafters. pitch
A relatively level step that is excavated into the earth on which fill is to be placed. a BENCH
Refers to earth materials that have been acquired from an offsite location for use in grading a site. BORROW
Gutters and leaders placed on the outside of the building should be made of: noncombustible material or Schedule 40 plastic pipe
Matting and planting are useful control measures against: erosion
The minimum recommended slope for standard installation of (roof) shakes, is ______________. 4:12
If the soil located directly under a footing or foundation overlies a layer of soil that has a smaller allowable bearing value, the ______________ value should be used for determining the load that can be allowed. smaller bearing value
When working on a construction project, there are certain things that must be done even though they are not on a deadline to complete. They are on a flexible schedule, or __________ float time
What cam be used to keep track of the submittal process to anyone associated with the construction project or orders for materials? An Expediting Log (helps manage deliverable dates)
The American Concrete Institute's "Building Code Requirements for structural Concrete"; the authority in concrete ACI 318-08
An effective form of concrete insulation. Consists of sheets of rigid foam insulation that are connected to form a sandwich type panel. Insulated Concrete Form (ICF) Panel
The warranty commences when: when the building official signs the certificate of occupancy
Refers to the process in which concrete is protected from moisture loss and kept within a reasonable temperature range. Curing process
In a typical residential project, it is the _______________ that awards the certificate of substantial completion. the Architect
In a typical residential project, it is the ____________________ who inspects the work to determine if the certificate of occupancy would be denied. Fire Marshall
Comprehensive strength of concrete is usually measured in_________. PSI
Refers to the volume of freshly mixed concrete from a known quantity of ingredients. Concrete yield
The basis for calculating the volume of ready mix concrete is described how in which ASTM specification? Divide total weight of the batch by the average weight per cubic foot of the concrete. (C94)
An ______________ may be added only after the original bid has been placed and before the project has been awarded. An Addenda
A method which intends to overcome concrete's natural weakness in tension. Prestressed Concrete
Generally made of high tensile steel cable or rods, used to give a clamping load that can produce a compressive stress to balance the tensile stress. prestressing tendons
This can occur due to excess water in the concrete mix, and usually occurs in a decreasing rate for many years. Concrete shrinkage
Generally, after 90 days, the average concrete shrinkage is ______ and about _____________ after one year. 60%, 80%
ACI 305 "Hot Weather" conditions that tend to impair the quality of freshly mixed OR hardened concrete. High Ambient temperature, High concrete temperature, low relative humidity, wind speed, solar radiation
ACI 306 defines cold weather concreting as a period when for more than 3 consecutive days, the average daily air temperature is less than ______________ and that the air temperature is not greater than __________ for more than 1/2 of any 24 hour period. 40 degrees F (5 C), 50 degrees F (10 C)
Slab on grade can be used in areas where the ground_________________. does not freeze
___________________ foundation may be uses where the ground freezes. T-shaped
Generally, wood may be protected from the attack of things like decay fungi and harmful insects by applying____________________ chemical preservatives
Required guards shall not have openings which allow passage of a sphere____inches in diameter. 4 inches
Fire separation distance is the distance from a building face and _____________ measured at right angles from the face of the wall. the closest interior lot line, the centerline of a street, alley, or public way, or an imaginary line between two buildings on the lot measured at right angles from the face of the wall.
Guards shall be provided for portions of open-sided walking surfaces, including stairs, ramps and landings, that are located more than _____ inches vertically to the floor. 30 inches
Habitable rooms with sloped ceilings shall have a minimum ceiling height of 5 square feet, and not less than _____ percent of the required floor area shall have a ceiling height of not less than 7 feet. 50%
Required guards at open-sided walking surfaces, including stairs, porches, balconies or landings, shall be not less than _____ inches. 36 inches
A _________ polyethylene film shall be applied over the below-grade portion of exterior foundation walls prior to backfilling. 6-mil-thick
Glazing in windows is considered to be hazardous if the exposed area of an individual pane is larger than____square feet. 9 square feet
Where wood joists are located closer than _________ inches of exposed ground in a crawlspace the joists are required to be of naturally durable wood or preservative-treated wood. 18 inches
Construction documents are written, graphic and pictorial documents that describe the design, location and physical characteristics of the project. True
What gauge should ducts in garages, and walls or ceilings separating the dwelling from the garage be? No. 26
The ________ is often a proprietary stamp or symbol but may also be the label and located with use, and warranty instructions. manufacturer's mark
At least one side-hinged egress door must be in each dwelling unit and must be a minimum of _____ inches wide. 32 inches
For address identification, the characters shall not be less than____inches in height. 4 inches
Bathrooms must be provided with an aggregate glazing area no less than _____ square feet, half of which must be openable. 3 square feet
All exterior footings shall be at least____inches below grade. 12 inches
Handrail height, measured vertically from the tread nosing shall not be less than____inches or more than____inches. 34 and 38
Bolts for anchoring sole plates shall be a minimum of____inches in diameter. 1/2 inch
Wall and ceiling finishes shall have a flame-spread classification of no more than ______ . 200
Habitable rooms shall have a floor area of a minimum of _________ square feet. 70 square feet
Joists shall have a bearing not less than ______inches. 1.5 inches
Grade floor openings or below-grade openings must have a clear opening of at least ______ square feet. 5 square feet
Maximum riser height shall be____inches and minimum tread depth shall be____inches. 7.75 and 10
Surface drainage shall be diverted to a storm sewer, or other approved point of collection. The grade shall fall a minimum of 6 inches in _____ feet. 10 feet
What thickness of gypsum board can be used as fireblocking? 1/2 inch
A stud used for a nonbearing partitions may not be notched more than ____% of the stud width. 40%
The minimum ceiling height for habitable spaces shall be not less than____feet. 7 feet
True or False: The footing width shall be based on the load-bearing value of the soil. True
Townhouses must be separated by two ____ -hour fire-resistance-rated wall assemblies. 1-hour
Where a window is the emergency escape and rescue opening, the sill height should be not more than _____ above the floor. 44 inches
A combined slab and foundation is often used in areas with : warm climates (rare frost penetration)
A kind of foundation system designed to distribute the weight of a structure over unstable soil. Grade Beam
Used to monitor and evaluate a contractor's costs during the course of construction Cost Codes
The one responsible for making any repairs to claims made by the homeowner for up to 2 years: The Prime Contractor
Violation of a building code in MN is legally classified as a misdemeanor
In regards to concrete slabs that are exposed to freezing and thawing in the presence of moisture or deicing salts, this can happen with the use on non-air-entrained concrete OR with too LITTLE entrained air in the concrete concrete "scaling"
A kind of expansion joint that allows movement of the slab and minimizes cracking caused when movements are restrained. isolation joint
What structural members support columns and walls by distributing loads to the soil? Footings
This form needs to be completed within 3 days of a hire for the US Customs and Immigration Service Federal Form I9
offers a single point of contact with the foundation traditional "spot" footing
a footing that can extend across an entire building foot print spread footer
If a new code is adopted after a permit has been issued, which code applies? The code current at the time of permit application
The stable colloidal suspension of powdered cement, bentonite, additives and other similar materials in water. Grout
Masonry in which the tensile resistance is taken into consideration and the effects of stresses in reinforcement are totally neglected. Plain Masonry
refers to ashlar masonry laid in courses of stone of equal height for each course Coursed ashlar
refers to ashlar masonry laid in courses of stone set with no continuous joints or drawn patterns Random Ashlar
a wall built of masonry units or of concrete or a combination of these materials. Arranged to provide airspace within the wall, and in which the inner and outer parts are tied together with metal ties. Cavity wall
built of concrete masonry units where the units are stacked dry, without mortar on the bed or head joints, and then both sides of the wall are coated. dry-stacked surface-bonded wall
refers to the part of any wall that is entirely above the roof line parapet wall
wall that has masonry units installed on one or both sides of a structurally independent wall (wood or masonry). Usually decorative (not structural). masonry veneer wall
An R-Value identification mark shall be applied by the manufacturer to each piece of building thermal envelope insulation _____ inches or greater in width. 12"
Adding an extra layer of _______ can increase R-value. glazing
A basement wall must be _____ percent or more below grade. 50%
Thermostats shall include the capacity to set back or temporarily operate the system to maintain zone temperatures of not less than _____ ºF to not greater than _____ ºF. 55, 85
One set of reviewed construction documents shall be retained by the code official, and another set should be __________. a) returned to the applicant b) kept at the site of work AND c) open to inspection by the code official or a duly authorized representative
Which of the following prevents condensation inside and outside a home? a) drainage and venting b) using a vapor barrier AND c) use insulation on the cold side of assemblies
Interior design temperatures used for heating and cooling load calculations shall be a maximum of _____ ºF for heating and a minimum of _____ ºF for cooling. 72, 75
__________ is defined as the inverse of the time rate of flow through a body from one of its bounding surfaces to the other. R-Value
A minimum of _____ % of permanently installed lighting fixtures shall be high-efficiency lamps. 75%
Which of the following will help increase energy efficiency in windows? a) inert gas between the panes b) low emissivity coatings & c) better insulated frames
The process by which heat transfer takes place in solid matter is known as what? conduction
It is most important in northern climates to place a ____________ ______________ on the warm-in-winter side of the framing. vapor retarder
Extruded polystyrene is _____ per inch. R5.0
Which foam board insulation has a higher R-value than EPS? XPS
One set of approved construction documents shall be retained by the code official for a period of not less than ______ days from the date of completion. 180 days
A ground surface inclination expressed as a ratio of horizontal distance to vertical distance is called ____________. slope
You would use a ________ to determine a floor is level, but this tool would not help determine if a wall is plumb. builder's level
Every survey of conveyance must start from evidence that proves the position of at least ______ survey monuments. 2
What type of material allows for the best drainage? granular soils
examples of how restrictive covenants impact residential neighborhoods a) types of materials fences may be made of b) protect the aesthetic appearance of the neighborhood c) dictate how many pets can be kept in a home
The condition of erosion control devices must be checked after a rainfall event of _______ or more within a 24 hour period. 1/2 inch
_________ is changing the earth's surface by either excavating or filling or a combination of both. grading
Detached accessory structures have different setback requirements than dwellings. true
Contractors should be cautious not to harm or kill trees intended to be saved on a construction site by not a) wounding the trunk b) tearing the bark of the tree c) running heavy equipment over the trees root system
When building in a floodplain, special precaution must be made concerning: a) flood resistant construction. b) determining the design flood elevation. c) placing the lowest floor at the proper elevation.
Soil that is _________, and only breaks into a few pieces when dropped, is considered to have ideal moisture content. moldable
When building in a floodplain, enclosed areas below the design flood elevation will be used solely for a) parking vehicles b) building access c) storage
Required by land surveyors when setting survey monuments: a) monument must be marked or tagged with the certificate number of the surveyor setting it b) monuments must be durable c) monuments must not be easily disturbed
The _________ is used to establish horizontal plane and vertical plumb lines or straight lines. transit level
Soil should be compacted in consecutive layers called __________ of 6 inches at a time. lifts
The exact location of property lines should be determined early in the design phase in order to comply with __________ requirements. setback
What type of soil compactor would be the best choice for compacting cohesive soils? rammer
What tool would you use to strip topsoil? bulldozer
the method used to determine the soil type or types that will be supporting the footings at a proposed building site. soil boring
Which drawings show the shape and boundary lines of a lot, as well as locating the building, driveway, sidewalks, utilities, and elevation contours, etc.? site plan and plot plan
Three basic soil types: Cohesive, granular, organic
The temporary withdrawal of __________ by a dewatering well may affect the operation of nearby water wells. groundwater
The area that the structure or building must stay within Building Restriction Line (BRL)
minimum requirement for sediment fence support wire 14 gauge with 6" mesh
OPM stands for optimum moisture content
If you're able to build in a floodplain, code requires that if the floodplain isn't in _________ the lowest floor level must be at or above the 100-year design flood elevation. Coastal Zone A
methods of determining soil density a) Proctor test b) Sand cone test c) Nuclear density test
Code requires that the grade around the buildings must be sloped so rain water drains away from the foundation area. The minimum slope shall be _____ of fall in 10 feet. 6"
The stage where the foundation is backfilled, topsoil is put back, and the property reaches the elevation needed at final grade is known as: rough grading
The _______ the plates are on a vibratory plate compactor the more compaction force it will generate. heavier
Grants for sewer, water, drainage, or conservation purposes. municipal easement
The temporary removal of ground or surface water from a construction site to allow construction to be done under dry conditions is known as dewatering
It is important to call your state One Call utility locator ______ before excavation starts. 48 hours
principal reasons to compact soil a) reduce settling b) provide stability c) increase load-bearing capacity
All construction sites disturbing more than _________ are required to obtain permit coverage. one acre
Land developers often create restrictive covenants that dictate what can and can't be done on an owner's property. These covenants are referred to as deed restrictions
provide utilities the access to run lines or pipes across or under your property public utility easements
You can cut down trees or build structures in an easement area on your property, UNLESS unless the property is subject to a conservation easement.
Which dozer blade is commonly used for road construction and is great for slot dozing? semi-u blade
A deposit of earth material placed by artificial means fill
test to assess how water is absorbed in soil percolation test
an optimum moisture content for compaction is dictated by soil type
masonry tends to be _________ in compression strength and ________ in tension strength high / low
a horizontal structural member supporting the wall load above a window or door. May be concrete, steel, wood or other approved product lintel
Steel furnished for structural load-carrying purposes must be properly identified for conformity to ASTM standard
Floor joists should be supported at the end by a minimum of ______________________ or a joist hanger 1 to 1.5 inches
Joist span "rule of thumb" joists spaced 16" o.c. can span 1.5 times in feet their depth in inches
an optional lateral insertion between floor joists for preventing lateral distortion, twisting or warping. Helps distribute load "bridging" (blocking)
if at the end of a simply-supported beam, this would need a different type of connection from tension and compression members a shear connection
When wood is used for building projects, this will be required by code. Examples: chromated copper arsenate (CCA) pressure treated wood, or organophosphates or pyrethroids termite prevention
keep soil _____________ below the wood member 6-18 inches (best practice)
serves well as a physical termite deterrent since it resists moisture build-up and termites struggle to tunnel through it sand barrier
has a proven ability to withstand weathering and in preventing wood damage from insects and fungus; however, the EPA doesn't recommend it for outdoor areas with frequent human contact creosote
is a wood structural panel manufactured with rectangular shaped strands of wood, oriented lengthwise and arranged in layers oriented strand board (OSB)
several layers of dimensional timber glued together, capable of producing curved or arched shapes glued laminated timber (glulam)
most common shingle; easy to maintain and has distinct patter. NRCA recommends they be applied over continuous or closely spaced wood/wood plank decking 3 tab asphalt shingles
Okay for APP modifiers (plastic modifiers) if not adhesively applied. NOT recommended for modified bitumen membrane sheet on a wood deck torch application
Non-structural; always requires a solid substrate beneath it architectural steep slope metal roof
have a tabbed layer fused to the base shingle which effectively doubles the thickness of the material. Stronger than standard 3 tab laminate shingles
these metal roofs may be applied directly over bar joists (where non-metal systems would require an underlying substrate, or deck) low slope metal roof
these metal roofs are mostly applied over open framing steep slope structural metal roof
this is considered the range of a medium pitched roofs 3.5 to 7.5 : 12
steep pitched roofs have a pitch of _________________________ 7.5 or greater : 12
the standard specification that covers EPDM, sheet used in single ply roof membrane ASTM D4637
PER IBC 2012 and onward, copper sheet roofing (minimum 16 ounce) over combustible roof deck may be considered class____________ without testing "Class A"
these are not compatible and should not be used together. ___________ is made of ethylene and chlorine and is supposed to be more durable than EPDM. ___________ roofing is often used for insulation PVC and perlite membranes
always do this at intersecting roof surfaces (hips, ridges) may be site made or factory made, but must come with alternate overlaps and concealed nailing capped for weather tight joint
should be used with every steep-slope covering. Should be applied over roof decks or substrates prior to the roof covering application underlayment
Should NOT be applied with their grain parallel to the valley centerline Valley shingles
can be used to meet class A and one-hour fire-resistant-construction requirements APA-rated plywood
acts as a baffle that prevents wind-driven snow or other foreign material from entering the attic cavity. Can actually force water to the surface during heavy rain felt interlay
aims to ensure water is properly diverted to the outside of the wall covering. Recommended for use with asphalt shingles, slate and wood roof systems step flashing
This is why you should NEVER use polystyrene insulation with built-up and modified-bitumen roofing systems it will melt at the temperature of hot asphalt
do NOT use these on low-slope or flat roofs. It's very easy for water to infiltrate. asphalt shingles
tile and shingles will work well, but a rubber membrane is not ideal for this steep slope-roofs
type of glass which is composed of layers of glass and layers of transparent / pigmented and specialty treated plastic polyvinyl butyral. Can absorb impact, resist penetration and remain intact when broken. laminated glass
Concrete slabs on the ground must have a ______ base of graded sand, gravel, or crushed stone between the slab and the base course. 4" base
To prevent shifting of reinforcement bars use __________ . stirrups
Concrete should never be allowed to freeze before reaching a strength of _______ psi. 500 psi
On large areas, it may be necessary to use a __________________ to finish the surface area. power trowel
Contraction and construction joints help prevent: uncontrolled cracking in concrete
What is the development of a network of fine random cracks or fissures on the surface of concrete or mortar caused by shrinkage of the surface layer? crazing
The maximum size aggregate is limited to the lesser of: Three-fourths the clear spacing between the bar and the side of the form; One-fifth the narrowest distance between sides of the form
What is the purpose of adding retarders to a concrete mixture? slow down the setting time of concrete
What is added to make concrete more workable with less water? water reducers
What is the minimum thickness of concrete used for floors? 3.5 inches
How much does one cubic foot of concrete weigh? 150 lbs
A two car wide driveway is usually how wide? 18 feet
When water is added to Portland cement it causes the mass to set. This reaction is called: hydration
When the concrete materials are heated, the temperature of the materials should be between _____and _____F at the time of placing. 50 and 70 Farenheit
The more Portland cement in the mixture, the ______ the mixture. Richer
The white salty powder that forms on the finished surface of concrete is called ___________. efflorescence
Ready mix concrete is purchased by the cubic yard, which is how many cubic feet? 27
The most commonly used accelerator is: calcium chloride (CaCl2)
Beams and columns or concrete footers can have their forms removed __________ after placement. 12 hours
In comparison to regular concrete, air entrained concrete: -has more workability -better in freeze/thaw conditions
Proper ________ prevents most problems in the finished concrete. curing
A slump cone is a metal cone used for: determining water content and workability
On hot sunny days in the summertime, a contractor may decide to use ____________ to slow down the setting time of concrete. retarders
How much does a cubic yard of concrete weigh? 4050lbs
Cold weather concreting procedures must be followed any time the temperature is less than _______ degrees F. 40 Farenheit
____________ are a separation or joining between two concrete components and are a stopping place for a day's work. construction joints
Expansion joints should be placed every _______ in a driveway. 40 feet
A concrete floor may also be called a: slab on ground
facts regarding cold-weather concrete construction a) water for mixing can be heated b) insulated blankets can be placed over concrete footings c) agregate can be heated
Slab-on-ground floors should have a protective covering that is lapped a minimum of _______ inches. 6 inches minimum
"Fine aggregate" refers to well-graded gravel that can pass through a _____ sieve. 1/4 inch sieve
A one car driveway should have a minimum width of? 10 feet wide
Adding too much water to a concrete mix will _______________ it. weaken
_________________ concrete is the process of leveling freshly poured concrete. screeding
proper curing of concrete aids in: a) durability b) desired hardness c) reducing cracking d) strength
When sawing a contraction and construction joint in a concrete slab, the joint must be a minimum of how deep? 1/4 of the thickness
Rebar should be placed in the middle ______ of a footer. middle 1/3
What is the reason for using welded wire fabric reinforcement in concrete? It reduces random cracking and controls crack width.
A _________________ is a 12" high cone which determines the amount of water in the mix. slump cone
Concrete slabs have a tendency to curl because: top cures faster (bad result)
Where concrete is cast against and permanently exposed to the earth, reinforcement steel should be __________________ from the earth. 3" from the earth
There is a concern that calcium chloride accelerators promote corrosion in __________. reinforced concrete
When concrete becomes flaky and fragmented on the surface, this is called: scaling or spalling
Concrete cures best in cool, damp environment
Concrete is considered to be fully cured or set after ______________days. 28 days
________ are classified according to their degree of corrosion resistance and sized by ability and height. chairs (concrete)
protects concrete from frost damage, but also makes concrete more workable. For that reason, not as much water is necessary for the mix. air entrainment
keeps the rebar in place while pouring. It does not add any additional strength to the concrete. wire reinforcing ties
Isolation joints allow for independent __________ . movement
What is the usual size of tie wire for rebar placement? #16 gauge soft annealed
Pouring concrete on frozen earth is: never acceptable
the standard test method for compressive strength of masonry prisms ASTM C1314 - 10
sets forth the requirements for design, fabrication, erection and even painting, of structural steel AISC 360
spruce, pine, fur (SPF), hemlock, cedar, redwood softwood examples
oak, maple, cherry, birch, walnut, ash, poplar hardwood examples
implies that this lumber is the best choice when appearance and finish are important select lumber
these should also be reinforced or deepened to avoid cracks close to the wall and avoid overload of the soil widened footings
should be used after concrete forms have been removed. Does not retain moisture. Promotes healthy drainage and percolation sand backfill
these will usually work fine with concrete walls since they can be reinforced to take the loads discontinuous footings
Glass is subject to BOTH external wind pressure (e.g. pressure increase due to wind flow around corner) and internal wind pressure (a function of facade porosity and internal compartmentalization)
affected by temperature (increase temp can soften interlayer), affected by variation in pressure between the inside of an insulating unit and external environment can impart load laminated glass capacity
the overall engineering term for any sealed glass unit built for thermal performance. It covers standard double pane, but also other configurations insulated glazing
uses exactly two panes of glass separated by a sealed space. The space holds trapped air or an inert gas (e.g. argon, krypton) which is non-conductive and slows heat transfer double glazing
The best process that can reduce solar radiation via blocking of light coming through . Can filter 40-70% of heat transmitted through while allowing full amount of light Reflective window glazing (specifically Spectrally Selective Glazing)
Code requires that wooden beams entering a masonry or concrete wall have an air clearance of at least _____ on tops, sides and ends. 1/2 inch
must be preservative treated or kept off the ground. Wood posts or columns that are in direct contact with the ground and support permanent structures
Protecting foundation walls against ordinary seepage such that may occur after a rainstorm is called: dampproofing
In frost-protected footings, the minumum distance from grade to the bottom of the footing is __________________. 12 inches
For proper drainage, the grade shall fall a minimum of ___________ inches for the first 10 feet 6 inches
Pile foundations distribute loads which are larger than ______ can bear. one pile
Anchor bolts must be within __________ from the end of each piece of the sill plate. 12"
Reinforcement steel bar placed in footings must be kept _____ from the footing edges or the earth. 3"
Under what circumstances would it be recommended to use a step footing: sloped grade
Joints in the polyethylene film shall be lapped ____inches. 6" (and sealed with adhesive
Rubble stone foundations must be how many inches wide? 16" wide
The footing for a wood foundation is made up of _________. gravel or crushed stone
until the wall has sufficient strength and has been anchored to the floor, or the walls have been braced. Foundation walls shall not be backfilled until
When a structural load must be carried by a wall or column next to a wall and the wall thickens to accommodate the structural requirements, this is called what? pilaster
What is designed for bending and typically spans between pile caps or caissons, and is reinforced to distribute the weight of a wall to separate foundations? grade beam
Where lumber or plywood is cut or drilled after treatment, affected surfaces shall be field treated with a copper naphthenate solution containing _____ percent copper metal. 2% copper metal
What would be the elevation change on a graded site if the foundation is 100 feet away? 3 feet
What is the maximum unbalanced backfill height of a pier and curtain wall foundation that is 4 inch solid masonry. 24" (max)
Backfill material should be free of: clay, scrap lumber, tree limbs
What is the minimum diameter of a steel column? 3" (minimum)
What is the minimum diameter anchor bolt used to anchor the sill plate to the top of the foundation wall? 1/2" minimum
The unsupported height of masonry pier foundations are limited in height to_______ times their least dimension. 10 times
Foundation walls, piers, and other supports shall be protected by frost in these ways a) constructed in accordance with Section R403.3. undefineda) constructed in accordance with Section R403.3 b) extend below the frost line c) built on solid rock
Pier and curtain wall foundations require: a) continuous footings for load bearing walls. b) load bearing walls minimum of 4 inches thick nominal. c) maximum height of 4 inch nominal load bearing walls is 4 feet
If a footing and a foundation wall is constructed by the same form work and poured at the same time, this is called a _______________. monolithic slab
What is the minimum requirement for how far a standard hook must extend into a stem wall? 14"
Footings must always bear on on undisturbed soil or engineered fill
If approved drain tiles are to be used along the footing of the foundation wall, what are the coverage requirements of the fill? 2 inches of washed gravel base and 6 inches of washed gravel
Unbalanced backfill must not be more than _________ feet in height. 8 feet
The minimum projection (P) of the footing is 2" and it should not exceed: the thickness of the footing
Wood columns must be a minimum of __________ nominal. 4"x4"
The minimum size of the footings needed to support a building structure is determined by: a) the type of building b) the number of stories c) the type of soil supporting the building
In areas of the country with frequent seismic activity, anchor bolts are required to be ____ feet on center for buildings over 2 stories in height. 4 feet o.c.
What type of building can be erected on a pier and curtain wall foundation? light frame
Exterior footings should extend into undisturbed soil a minimum of: 12 inches
A footing and a wall are two parts of a: 2 parts of a foundation
When building a step footing, what is the maximum slope of the grade under the step area? 10%
shall be protected with strips of building paper. The top of open joints of drain tiles
Gravel or crushed stone drainage systems must extend a minimum of 1 foot beyond the outside edge of the footing.
Maximum anchor bolt spacing is: 6 feet
Crawl space foundations are typically less than _______ feet high. 5 feet high
What is the required thickness of the moisture barrier that must be used under the basement floor (slab)? 6 mils
Concrete footings are often _______ and a groove formed in the surface of a footing supports the foundation wall keyed
All vented crawl spaces shall be vented within ________ of each corner. 3 feet
Anchor bolt washers for the sill plate must be a minimum of _____________ and must be used on each bolt, in areas with high levels of seismic activity. 3"x3"x0.229"
The required minimum strength of concrete used for footings is 2500 lb/sq-in
Foundations for all buildings where the surface of the ground slopes more than 1 unit vertical in 10 units horizontal (10% slope) shall be level or shall be _______________ so that both the top and bottom of the foundation is level. stepped
The mesh on the screen for vent openings must be less than or equal to _____ inch. 1/8"
Fasteners used below grade in wood foundations shall be: __________. stainless steel
Anchor bolts shall be embedded into at least ________ of concrete or grouted masonry. 7"
When a concrete foundation wall is exposed to the weather what is the minimum strength required? 3000 lbs/sq-in
Vented crawl spaces require a vent opening within 3 feet of each corner, totaling 1 sq. ft. of vented area for every ______ sq. ft. crawl space floor area. 150 sq-ft
Footings that are formed on a level grade with wood or steel forms held in place by fastening the boards to stakes are called: spread footings
types of acceptable mortar being used for foundations M and S
Code requires that ______ of well graded sand or gravel fill be placed and compacted under slabs on ground within the interior of buildings. 4"
For steel reinforcement in areas of frequent seismic activity, what psi does the steel need to be? 40,000 to 60,000 psi
If a class 1 vapor retarder is used in a crawl space, then what is the vent opening reduced to? 1 sq. ft. for every 1500 sq. ft of floor area.
per ASTM E1300, the probability of failure for vertical glass: 8/1000
per ASTM E1300, the probability of failure for overhead glazing: 1/1000
glazing material that can pass the 18 inch drop height and 150 foot-lbs impact classified as category 1 glass
SHOULD NOT be used in any exterior surface where it will likely be exposed to direct outside weather. Should not be used anywhere there may be direct exposure to water or continuous high humidity gypsum wallboard or gypsum plaster
If gypsum sheathing if used/installed on exterior surface, it should be installed in accordance with this standard ASTM Standard C 1280
Should not be less than 3 coats when being applied over metal lath or wire fabric lath Plastering gypsum plaster or cement plaster
steel that does not need to be primed or painted steel that is enclosed by building finish or in direct contact with concrete
steel that needs to be painted or primed steel used in exterior exposed applications
plan that locates the building footprint on the actual site. It is also the document that describes the required work the Site Plan
where a foundation drain should be located (in relation to the outside edge of the footing) 12 inches beyond; 6 inches above
drawn to scale, this will show interior and exterior wall, the door and window locations, room dimensions, stairs, cabinets, toilets, sinks, etc. the floor plan
this plan will show items such as dormers, hips, valleys, roof drains, roof pitch, roof mounted equipment, etc. the roof plan
this plan will show structural elements by describing the foundation work, framing and floor construction required, as well as reinforcing connection detail the structural plan
these are side views that show each of the exterior walls of the building. Usually, they are cross-sections on the floor plan. It will show windows, doors, roof lines, gutters/downspouts Elevations
these are "slices" through a building component. For example, showing inside, outside and interior components of a wall sections
this provides detailed information on each hazardous chemical at the job site, informing employees of potential dangers. Safety Data Sheet
a form of construction estimating in which a fixed price is given for the entire project. There is no unit price given. May be a total amount for the entire project, or a price for each bid category lump sum estimating
appropriate where hydrostatic pressure will not occur. Should be installed on exterior surface, extending from the top of the footing to above ground level dampproofing materails
hydrostatic pressure is the key. one is intended to keep out soil moisture, while the other is for both moisture and liquid water dampproofing vs. waterproofing
Signifies concentrations of substances. The standard typically used for the selection of respirators Immediately dangerous to life and health (IDHL)
e.g. asbestos, fiberglass, refractory ceramic fibers examples of dust that is fibrous in nature
Refers to anything that can produce an adverse biological effect. It may be chemical, physical, or biological a "toxic" agent
a material which has toxic properties. It may be a discrete toxic chemical or a mixture of toxic chemicals a toxic "substance"
one that affects the entire body or many organs rather than a specific site a systemic toxicant
waterproofing should be applied from the bottom of a wall to not less than 12 inches above the _______________________. ground water table
a combination of duration (amount of time) and magnitude (# of does) of exposure severity of poisoning
known for its high early strength. It is ground finer and reacts faster Type III cement
refers to the amount of sound pressure measured in decibels (dB) amplitude
refers to the rate of vibration per unit time measure in cycles per second (Hz) frequency
a measurement used primarily for risk purposes, concerning sound weighting dBA
concerning sound weighting, this is primarily used for hearing protection selection dBC
tight fitting respirators that work by producing pressure differences between the volume of air inside and outside the respirator negative pressure respirators
a breathing air source that pushes air through the inlet covering of the respirator. Air pressure inside exceeds air pressure outside positive pressure respirator
a method for controlling worker exposure to airborne toxic chemicals or flammable vapors, by i.) exhausting contaminated air, and ii.) replacing it with clean air. industrial ventilation
-When levels of airborne contaminants are above their permissible limits -when the lower explosive limit of flammable vapors is exceeded -when the oxygen level drops below 19.5% in the air conditions that require control of worker exposure by ventilation
blows in clean air and exhausts some dirty air. Can capture contaminate emissions at or very near the source Dilution ventilation
cement used for moderate sulfate resistance and moderate heat of hydration. It limits the content of tricalcium aluminate (C3A) to 8% type II cement
becomes necessary when employees are exposed to high toxicity chemicals, when large amounts of dusts or welding fumes are generated, or when increased heating costs from ventilation in cold weather becomes a concern. local exhaust ventilation
gauge of sheet metal ties would be used to anchor masonry veneer to a wood wall 22 gauge strips
A grout lift over _____inches should be consolidated by mechanical vibration. 6 inches
How many concrete blocks are needed to lay one course of 8x8x16 blocks in a wall that is 24 feet long? 16 plus 2 full corners
When ties are used, at least one tie for every 2-2/3 sq ft of the wall is required for _______. 10 gauge ties
a mixture of portland cement, lime, sand and water thin-set mortar
The maximum pour height of grout lifts is typically _____feet. 5 feet
joints that are finished by removing mortar raked, struck, flush, etc.
Masonry walls for fireplaces shall not be less than __________ in thickness where a firebrick lining is used. 8 inches
The fireplace _______ shall not be less than 4" thick. hearth
A mason would use angle iron to build which of the following? sill
What are the dimensions of a standard concrete block? 7-5/8" high by 15-5/8" long
What is the minimum hearth extension in front of a fireplace with less than 6 sq. ft. opening? 16"
Which of the following would you do to prevent mortar from freezing? add calcium chloride, heat sand and water before mixing, use blankets
A lintel block is what shape? U shaped
Rumford style firebox depth may be reduced to at least 12 inches provided it's at least _____ the width of the opening. 1/3"
When the air temperature is above 80F, mortar should be used within _______ hours after originally mixed. 2.5 hours
When ties are used, at least one tie for every ________ sq ft of the wall is required for #9 gauge ties. 2&2/3
The bearing surfaces of ______ are molded or roughened mechanically to form a good bond with mortar. glass block
actual size of a nominal 8" square glass block 7-3/4" x 7-3/4" x 3-7/8"
To ensure that water moisture is not trapped behind brick veneer, small holes called ________ are made in the joints of the lowest course of bricks weep holes
dimensions of a standard modular brick 4 in. x 2-2/3 in. x 8 in.
What is the required termination for a chimney that isn't at the ridge? not less than 2' above anything within 10' horizontally
A solid masonry unit is one whose cross-sectional area in every plane parallel to the bearing surface is _____or more of its gross cross-sectional area measured in the same plane. 75%
Glass blocks are _____ thick and manufactured for a _____ bearing mortar joint. 3-7/8" , 1/4"
Mortar joints should typically be which size? 3/8"
Mortar joints should be ________ in nominal dimensions. 3/8"
Masonry chimney walls shall be a minimum of _______ inches. 4"
minimum height of a chimney that exits at the ridge of a roof 3 feet
Cleanouts shall be provided within ______ inches of the base of the chimney flue. 6"
What product is a non-corrosive, non-rusting and non-shrinking material that is best used to seal cracks in masonry and concrete? hydraulic cement
The firebox shall not be less than ___________ in depth. 18"
types of hydrated lime S, N, SA, etc
Any wall over 8 feet in height must be _______ during construction. braced
2 cores _______ cores are preferred when the cores are reinforced with steel and filled with grout.
_______ cores are preferred when the cores are reinforced with steel and filled with grout. 8'
_______ cores are preferred when the cores are reinforced with steel and filled with grout. 3/4"
Before the wall can be filled in, the ____________ must be laid. lintels
When the fireplace opening is 6 sq. ft. or larger the hearth extension for each side must be at least? 12"
A masonry column that is used to support other structural members and projects one-half of its own width beyond the outside of an inside wall is called which of the following? pilaster
The center stone in the middle of an arch is called? key stone
When the fireplace opening is more than 6 sq. ft. the hearth extension in front of the opening must be? 20"
types of portland cement generally used for mortar types 1, 11, & 111
When air temperature is below 80F use mortar within _______ hours. 3.5 hours
What is the minimum clearance from the outside of masonry chimneys to all wood/combustible framing components? 2"
What product is the best sill material used on exterior masonry walls to protect against water leakage? limestone
Created by: w3028297
 

 



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