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Bio Errors
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Q10 value | The Q10 value, more specifically, tells us how the rate of biological processes changes when an organism’s internal temperature shifts by 10°C. |
| If the Q10 value of an organism is 2, which of the following is true? | If the internal temperature of the organism was decreased by 10°C, the metabolic rate decreases by half |
| Photosynthesis of plants can be broken down into two phases: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions. Which of the following occurs during the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis? | Fix CO2 into glucose |
| Flowers in a population: red (homozygous dominant), pink (heterozygous), and white (homozygous recessive). In a population of 200 flowers, 18 are red, 84 are pink, and the rest are white. What is the frequency of the dominant allele? | 0.3 Count 18*2 = 36 alleles 84 * 1 = 84 alleles 36 + 84 = 120 alleles 120/200 = 0.3 |
| Erythroblastosis fetalis is a hemolysis disease that can be fatal to the embryo. Which of the following conditions would cause this hemolysis disease? | Rh-negative blood from the mother interacts with Rh-positive blood from the baby |
| How many unique gametes can be produced from an organism with the genotype AaBBccDd? | 4 (2 * 1 * 1 * 2) |
| Where is the protein myosin primarily found? | Thick filaments |
| Which of the following are responsible for synthesizing bone? | Osteoblasts |
| What type of mutation causes sickle cell anemia? | Missense, A point mutation from A to T causes the valine amino acid to be synthesized instead of glutamic acid. This change affects the folding of hemoglobin, which leads to the production of “crescent” or “sickle-shaped” red blood cells. |
| Which of the following organisms contains nucleated cells and has a predominantly haploid lifecycle? Angiosperms Fungi Gymnosperms Tracheophytes Queen bees | Fungi |
| Which of the following processes causes the webbing between human fingers to disappear during embryonic development? | Apoptosis |
| An active culture of fibroblasts is treated with radioactive deoxycytidine triphosphate and then the cells are lysed. Where would the radioactive component be detected? | DNA, We know that deoxycytidine triphosphate will end up being incorporated into DNA because of the prefix ”deoxy”. The prefix “deoxy” indicates that the molecule in question is composed of a deoxyribose sugar. |
| Which of the following organisms are amniotes? | Mammals, birds, and reptiles |
| During which stage of embryonic development are the three germ layers initially formed? | Gastrulation |
| Which of the following traits is true of a deuterostome? | Enterocoelous, radial cleavage, indeterminate cleavage, anus forms first |
| Which part of the brain is responsible for coordination and balance? | Cerebellum |
| What occurs during the repolarization period of an action potential in neurons? | K+ channels open, leading to an efflux of K+ out of the cell |
| During embryonic development, which structure implants within the uterus? | Blastocyst |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of a smooth muscle cell? | Single nucleus |
| Which environment would have the slowest rate of decomposition? | Tundra |
| What duct carries bile directly into the gut? | Common bile duct |
| Describe the reproductive cycle of plants | The sporophyte is the multicellular diploid stage and the gametophyte is the multicellular haploid stage |
| If actin were deficient in a cell, what would be the effect on the cell cycle? | Cytokinesis would be impaired, During cytokinesis of animal cells, a cleavage furrow forms. Actin and myosin microfilaments are shortened and the plasma membrane is pulled into the center of the cell. |
| Which cellular process would be utilized to synthesize glucose if no carbohydrates were available? | Gluconeogenesis |
| Beta-oxidation | Beta-oxidation is a process by which fatty acids are cleaved to produce 2 carbon acetyl-CoA molecules. |
| A botanist has discovered a new plant and notes that it is predominantly found in its gametophyte form. Which category does this plant most likely belong to? | Bryophytes. While the tracheophytes (including seedless tracheophytes, seeded angiosperms, and gymnosperms) are found most prominently in the diploid sporophyte phase, bryophytes are found most prominently in their gametophyte phase. |
| In the fetal circulatory system, the ductus venosus allows blood to bypass which of the following? | Liver. Placenta is wrong because the ductus venosus does NOT allow blood to bypass the placenta. Blood, in fact, must return to the placenta in order to obtain oxygen and nutrients from the maternal blood supply. |
| Which of the following would be the most immediate consequence of a defective sperm without an acrosome reaching the egg for fertilization? | Inability to penetrate zona pellucida, Prevent fusion of sperm with zona pellucida is incorrect because the acrosome is tasked with helping to penetrate past the zona pellucida, not fusing the sperm with it. The sperm fuses with the oocyte membrane. |
| All of the following are characteristics of IgG antibodies EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Heavy and light chains connected via disulfide bonds Involved in passive immunity of fetus Participates in opsonization Pentameric structure | Pentameric structure, pentameric structure is unique to IgM (IgG has a monomeric structure instead) |
| What is the effect of progesterone at its peak? | Thickens the endometrial wall. Lactation is incorrect because prolactin and oxytocin are hormones associated with lactation. |
| During which process does the chromosome number become halved? Meiosis I Meiosis II Mitosis Fertilization Binary fission | Meiosis I |
| Ectoderm has | epidermis, neurons, pigment cells, lens of the retina/cell |
| Mesoderm has | cardiac muscle cells, skeletal muscle cells, red blood cells, tubule cells of the kidney, smooth muscle cells (in gut), notochords |
| Endoderm has | thyroid cells, lung cells (alveolar cells), digestive cells (pancreatic), respiratory tract, urinacy tract |
| What does the lac operon do when allolactose is present? | When allolactose is present, it binds to and deactivates a repressor protein |
| Plants get their energy during daytime through photosynthesis. How do they keep producing energy and maintain themselves at night time? | Plants have built-up starch stored that they use for energy during night time |
| Which of the following does alternative splicing allow for? | Creation of multiple different proteins from one RNA strand |
| A woman using human chorionic gonadotropin during fertility treatment would expect to see stimulated production of which hormone as a direct result? | Progesterone, the corpus luteum continues to secrete estrogen and progesterone to maintain the endometrium for continued support of the developing embryo. |
| An archipelago is a group of islands. Which island would be expected to have the most species richness? | Largest island |
| Species diversity | overall variety of different kinds of organisms in a community and consists of two components: species richness and relative abundance. |
| Species richness | represents the diversity of a community by describing the total number of different species present. |
| Which hormone is secreted from the same organ that it targets? | Gastrin, Gastrin is secreted from G cells in order to stimulate the HCl production of parietal cells. Since G cells and parietal cells are both located in the stomach, gastrin is a hormone that is secreted from the same organ that it targets. |
| Action potentials, motor end plate potentials, and muscle contraction all have what in common? | Voltage gated ion channels |
| Ligand gated ion channels | type of ion channels that respond to the binding of neurotransmitters. |
| Mechanical gated ion channels | used to generate graded potentials, but are not used to generate action potentials, play no role in motor end plates or muscle contraction. Respond to pressure or vibration and are found in sensory receptors in the skin, ear, etc. |
| Voltage-gated ion channels | crucial role in excitable cells such as neuronal and muscle tissues, allowing a rapid and co-ordinated depolarization in response to triggering voltage change. Found along the axon and at the synapse |
| What effect do T3 (triiodothyronine) & T4 (thyroxine) have on the body? | Increases metabolism, necessary for growth and neurological development in children as well as increasing basal metabolic rate in the body. |
| In the given action potential graph, what does E represent? Slowed down portion at the way end | Efflux of potassium ions causing hyperpolarization, followed by the refractory period to restore resting potential |
| Which of the structures below is analogous with a bird's wing? | Bat wing |
| Analogous structures | body parts resulting from convergent evolution. In convergent evolution, species without a common ancestor evolved structures with similar functions as adaptations to similar environments |
| Homologous structures | body parts resulting from divergent evolution. In divergent evolution, species with a common ancestor develop into very different species. |
| X-linked recessive | X-linked recessive traits tend to show up in males more often than females, if the trait were to be X-linked recessive, an affected mother should only have sons that are affected. Can skip generations. |
| X-linked dominant | if the trait were to be X-linked dominant, all daughters of an affected father will be affected. Can skip generations. |
| Autosomal dominant | autosomal dominant traits do not skip a generation if one parent is affected, affects both genders equally, two heterozygous affected parents can have unaffected offspring |
| Autosomal recessive | can skip a generation, both genders, two unaffected carrier parents can have affected offspring |
| Y-linked | Only males are affected by Y-linked traits because females lack a Y chromosome. |
| A segment of DNA reads as follows: 5’ – ATATATGCGCACGC – 3’ What is the corresponding mRNA synthesized directly from this strand? | 5’ – GCGUGCGCAUAUAU – 3’, switch everything over nitrogenous base wise (the A's would become U's), and then put it in the reverse direction. RNA doesn't contain thymine, so A = U. |
| Two species of monkeys have a common ancestor. Both species of monkeys have evolved prehensile tails and increased upper arm strength. Despite their similarities, they are not capable of interbreeding. Which form of evolution has taken place? | parallel evolution, came from a common ancestor and developed similar characteristics |
| Which chamber of the heart directly pumps the highest concentration of oxygenated blood for distribution to the rest of the body? | Left ventricle |
| Which of the following characteristics would be seen in an inefficient respiratory system? | Open circulatory system |
| Tracheids are specialized plant cells that function to ___________. | Transport water, found in the xylem |
| phloem | transports sugar, leaves to roots. Xylem does opposite. |
| Which of the following was the important organic molecule formed by the Miller-Urey experiment? | Amino acids |
| Miller–Urey experiment | experiment that simulated the conditions of the primordial, early Earth and tested the chemical origin of life under those conditions. Found that simple organic molecules such as amino acids had formed + fatty acids, carbon monoxide, and aldehydes. |
| What is Vmax? | The maximum velocity of a reaction when the enzyme is fully saturated with substrate. |
| What is the Michaelis Constant (Km)? | The substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of Vmax. |
| What does a small Km indicate? | High binding affinity — less substrate is needed to reach Vmax. |
| What does Km inversely represent? | Binding affinity between the enzyme and substrate. |
| Which component of the phospholipid bilayer is hydrophilic? | Polar phosphate head |
| Which of the following cannot diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer? | (MOST) Small, Hydrophobic Molecules: O2, CO2, N2, Steroid Hormones (LEAST) Ions: H+, Na+, HCO3-, K+, Ca2+, Cl-, Mg2+ |
| Which of the following is correctly associated with NAD+? | Coenzyme |
| Is cellular respiration exergonic or endergonic? | Exergonic |
| Which of the following steps acts as a regulator for the rate of glycolysis? | Phosphofructokinase phosphorylation, which consumes a molecule of ATP to convert Fructose 6-phosphate to Fructose 1,6-Bisphosphate via phosphorylation. |
| What is considered the smallest unit of matter? | Atoms |
| What is the correct flow of blood from the pulmonary arteries to the left atrium? | Right ventricle -> pulmonary arteries -> pulmonary capillaries -> pulmonary veins -> left atrium |
| Precapillary sphincters | muscles located at the start of capillary beds that can control blood flow in the capillaries by constricting or relaxing. When constricted, they narrow the lumen of the capillaries, reducing the flow of blood through the capillaries. |
| Griffith Experiment | Showed that when heat-killed smooth bacteria were mixed with rough bacteria, the R were transformed into virulent S bacteria, proving the existence of a transforming principle. |
| Avery, MacLeod, McCarty | isolated different biomolecules from bacteria and showed that only when DNA was left intact did transformation occur, identifying DNA as the genetic material. |
| Hershey Chase | used bacteriophages labeled with radioactive phosphorus DNA and sulfur, and found that only DNA entered bacterial cells, proving DNA carries genetic information |
| Messelson Stahl | Grew bacteria in heavy nitrogen then shifted them to light nitrogen and used density centrifugation to show that each new DNA molecule contained one old and new strand, semiconservatism. |
| Which of the following is a direct, nontropic hormone? ACTH TSH FSH LH ADH | ADH, also known as vasopressin), is a nontropic peptide hormone. It directly stimulates the nephrons of the kidneys and collecting ducts to increase water reabsorption and retention |
| Which of the following best describes the role of T-cells in the immune system? | Involved in cell-mediated response |
| Where is chromosomal DNA found in bacteria? | Nucleoid |
| Secondary messengers are important in cell signaling pathways and can greatly amplify the strength of the signal. All of the following are secondary messengers EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? cAMP IP3 Calcium GTP DAG | GTP |
| There are 3 major classes of secondary messengers to know for the test: | Cyclic nucleotides (e.g., cAMP and cGMP) Inositol trisphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG) Calcium ions (Ca2+) |
| GTP | Guanosine Triphosphate (GTP) is an essential purine nucleotide similar to ATP. Acts as an energy source. |
| The improper use of antibiotics can result in __________. | Vitamin deficiency |
| Which of the following smells like rotten eggs and is produced under anaerobic conditions in swamps and sewers? | H2S |
| Where does blood flow go in the left ventricle? | This blood returns to the heart through the pulmonary veins, into the left atrium, and then through the mitral (aka bicuspid) valve into the left ventricle. |
| A cancer researcher wants to track a p53 protein related to tumor suppressor functions. Which technique could be used to locate this p53 protein within a cell? | Immunofluorescence staining, it's a genetic technology where a protein is tagged with a fluorescent molecule to visualize target proteins. NOT Western, because western finds the location. |
| An E. Coli cell culture is radioactively labeled with sulfur and the cells are then lysed. Where would the radioactive label most likely be found? | Proteins, sulfur is most likely to be found in proteins, as shown in the image below. To be exact, the amino acids cysteine and methionine contain sulfur. Nucleic acids DON'T have sulfur. |
| How does ovulation occur? | Ovulation occurs due to a peak in LH levels |
| Which process directly causes an excitatory response in skeletal vertebrate muscle? | Influx of calcium in the cytosol |
| How are dizygotic twins born? | Fertilization of two eggs by two different sperm |
| How are monozygotic twins born? | Fertilization of a single egg by single sperm |
| The plasma membrane is predominantly composed of which macromolecules? | Phospholipids and proteins |
| White fat cells (white adipocytes): | White fat cells primarily store excess energy as fat and help insulate and cushion the body. |
| Brown fat cells (brown adipocytes): | Brown fat cells burn stored fat to generate heat, helping regulate body temperature through a process called non-shivering thermogenesis. |
| All of the following have mitochondria EXCEPT for one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Muscle cells Nerve cells Brown fat cells Red blood cells Lymphocytes | Red blood cells |
| Which of the following correctly identifies a difference between the anterior and posterior pituitary gland? | The posterior pituitary is connected to the hypothalamus via a neuron while the anterior pituitary is not |
| After the muscles in her legs are depleted of all ATP, which of the following would best describe the state of her muscular filaments? | Myosin head is attached to actin immediately after a power stroke. A new ATP molecule causes the detaching of the myosin head from actin filaments, allowing the myosin head to return to its original position ready for the next power stroke. |
| Which of the following signaling molecules is released by virally infected cells? | Interferon |
| Interleukin | cytokines (signaling proteins) that are released by various leukocytes (white blood cells) and enhance communication between immune cells. |
| Which of the following plant hormones promote fruit ripening? | Ethylene |
| Abscisic Acid | inhibits growth and induces seed dormancy. |
| Gibberellins | gibberellins induce seed germination and cell division (flower and stem elongation). |
| Auxin | stimulates the growth of plants through elongation. |
| Cytokinin | stimulates cell division and organ development. Additionally, cytokinin delays the aging of leaves, antagonist to ethylene |
| The first intermediate formed by the process of glycolysis is __________. | Glucose-6-phosphate |
| Which of the following is a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme RuBisCo? | Oxygen |
| How does the DNA of daughter cells compare to that of the parent cell following mitosis? | Identical and the same amount of DNA, meanwhile meiosis does four daughter cells with half the amount of DNA. |
| Which of the following describes the concentric rings formed by osteoblasts in compact bone? | Lamellae. In compact bone, the fundamental structural unit is called an osteon, which includes a hollow Haversian canal and surrounding circular layers of bone called lamellae. Small spaces within the lamellae house osteocytes and are called lacunae. |
| The tiny channels between lacunae are known as... | canaliculi, which allow osteocytes to communicate with each other and to exchange nutrients and waste. |
| What are Volkmann's canals? | Canals that connect blood vessels and lymph vessels contained in Haversian canals; found in very organized, dense (compact) bone. |
| Acetylcholine | Acetylcholine is a neurochemical that has a wide variety of functions in the brain and other organ systems of the body. It is a neurotransmitter that acts as a chemical message that is released by neurons and allows them to communicate with one another |
| In what plant structure of an angiosperm does meiosis take place to produce eggs? | Pistil - Ovary |
| A father has hemophilia, an X-linked trait. The mother is a carrier but does not have hemophilia. What are the chances that their son will have hemophilia? | 50%, remember that hemophilia is recessive and of the two potential male offspring, only one would have the recessive gene |
| A geneticist is investigating several genes of interest. At the end of the experiment, she concludes that two of the genes are linked. Gene linkage refers to the inheritance of __________. | Different genes on the same chromosomes |
| All of the following are characteristics of epigenetics EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Modifies nucleotide sequence Heritable Contributes to phenotypic variability Influences gene expression May result from external environmental factors | Modifies nucleotide sequence |
| Epigenetics | involves heritable phenotypes that result from changes to the expression of the genome without modifying the nucleotide sequence. Epigenetics regulates when certain genes are expressed. |
| How do epigenetic changes take place? | Epigenetic changes take place by altering the chromatin structure. The more tightly DNA is wrapped around histones, the less accessible it is for transcription and the lower the gene expression. The more loosely DNA is wrapped, the more accessible it is. |
| DNA Methylation: | Addition of methyl groups that silences genes by causing DNA to wind more tightly around histone proteins and preventing transcription factors from binding, leading to lower gene expression. |
| Histone Acetylation: | Addition of acetyl groups that promote gene expression and formation of euchromatin, a lightly packed form of chromatin (DNA, RNA, and protein) that is enriched in genes. |
| Euchromatin vs Heterochromatin | Euchromatin is loosely packed, gene-rich, and actively transcribed. In contrast, heterochromatin is tightly condensed, gene-poor, and largely inactive. |
| Endotoxin | lipopolysaccharides (LPS) contained in the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. When a bacteria is broken down, the lipopolysaccharides are released and can initiate a host inflammatory response. |
| Glycocalyx | dense, gel-like carbohydrate coat that surrounds some bacteria. It functions to help the bacteria adhere to other cells, and protect against infection by viruses by serving as a physical barrier, and in cell-to-cell recognition. |
| The survival of some bacteria even in harsh and extreme environmental conditions is facilitated by which structure? | Endospore |
| What accurately describes T-lymphocytes? | Are necessary for cell-mediated immunity |
| MHC I Vs. MHC II (T-lymphocytes) | MHC I molecules present intracellular (endogenous) antigens to CD8⁺ cytotoxic T cells, whereas MHC II molecules present extracellular (exogenous) antigens to CD4⁺ helper T cells and are expressed mainly on professional antigen-presenting cells. |
| Which of the following develops into macrophages? Neutrophils Mast cells Eosinophils Monocytes Dendritic cells | Monocytes |
| Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system? | Return fluids that have escaped from blood vessels |
| What prevents acetylcholine from remaining for too long in the synapse? | Acetylcholinesterase |
| Degradation of the acetylcholine signal in the synaptic cleft may occur in various mechanisms: | Hydrolysis by acetylcholinesterase Diffusion away from the synaptic cleft Active reuptake by the pre-synaptic cell |
| What is the earliest stage seen during embryonic development? | Zygote |
| Four different nerve fibers are tested to determine which transmits signal the fastest. Which nerve fiber would be expected to have the fastest conduction impulse? | Thick and myelinated |
| A chicken embryo goes through 8 rounds of division, but no G-phase is occurring during its cell cycle. After 8 rounds of cell division have occurred, how many cells will the embryo consist of and what will the embryonic cell size be? | Cell size gets smaller, cell number will increase to 2^8. Remember that the G-phase is where cells grow, so without it, the cells would be smaller. |
| Where do viruses store their genetic information? | Capsid. Nucleoid and nucleolus are incorrect, because both of those things cannot be found in a virus. |
| Where do bacteria store their genetic information? | Nucleoid |
| Which of the following correctly describes a macromolecule formed from the polymerization of its corresponding monomer? Phospholipid bilayer from monosaccharides Cellular enzyme from amino acids Glycogen from nucleic acid Peptide from fatty acid | Cellular enzyme from amino acids Not phospholipids because the monomer for carbohydrates is a monosaccharide, while the monomers for lipids are actually fatty acids. |
| What is true of B lymphocytes and their role in immunity? | Can retain the memory of previously encountered antigens |
| A point mutation in the shell of a turtle results from a nucleotide change due to radiation. Which of the following best describes the likelihood of the turtle's progeny inheriting the mutation? | 0%. The genetic information in somatic cells is not passed on to offspring, as these cells are uninvolved in the reproductive process. Regardless of how mutated somatic cell DNA becomes, such DNA is never heritable. |
| The presence or absence of each of the organelles listed below could be used to distinguish a prokaryote from a eukaryote EXCEPT for one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Mitochondria Golgi apparatus Nucleolus Ribosomes Nucleus | Ribosomes |
| Which of the following best explains why eukaryotic DNA is generally longer than bacterial DNA? | Introns |
| Introns Vs. Exons | Introns are intervening regions of DNA that are removed from the pre-mRNA following transcription to form the mature mRNA. Exons are the regions that are expressed and thus not removed. |
| Process of Fertilization | Capacitation activates the sperm, causing hyperactive movement and the acrosomal reaction after binding ZP3 on the zona pellucida. Enzymes digest the zona, allowing sperm entry. The sperm and egg nuclei then fuse to form a diploid zygote. |
| Fast block to polyspermy | occurs when Na⁺ rapidly enters the egg after sperm binds ZP3, depolarizing the oocyte membrane. This temporary positive charge prevents other sperm from fusing with the egg until the membrane returns to its resting potential. |
| Slow block to polyspermy | triggered by Ca²⁺ release after membrane depolarization. Cortical granules release enzymes that inactivate ZP3 and harden the zona pellucida into a fertilization envelope, preventing additional sperm from entering the egg. |
| Which of these is involved in the polyspermy blocks? Hyperpolarization Intracellular acetylcholine release Extracellular calcium influx Release of cortical granules Synthesis of ZP3 | Release of cortical granules |
| palindromic sequence | one in which the nucleic acid sequence of a given strand and its complementary strand is the same when both are read in the same direction, (5’-3’). |
| For a gene in equilibrium, a researcher determined that the dominant allele had a frequency of 0.40 while the recessive allele had a frequency of 0.60. What is the frequency of heterozygotes for this gene? | 2pq -> 2×0.4×0.6 = 0.48. |
| Which of the following is the product of spermatogenesis? Primary spermatocytes Spermatogonia Secondary spermatocytes Spermatids Spermatozoa | Spermatozoa |
| Spermatogenesis | meiotic cell divisions that produce sperm. Spermatogonia divide by mitosis to 4 primary spermatocytes, which undergo meiosis I and II to produce 4 spermatids. In spermiogenesis, Sertoli cells turn spermatids into spermatozoa (mature sperm). |
| Sertoli Cells | Sertoli cells nourish, protect, and support the development of sperm cells within the seminiferous tubules of the testes. |
| Non-stem cells have a limit to the number of rounds of cell division they can go through due to which of the following? | Telomere shortening |
| tRNA is necessary to link together __________. | Amino acids |
| Which of the following scientists proposed the theory of trait inheritance through use and disuse? | Lamarck |
| Cuvier | proposed the theory of catastrophism where major natural disasters shaped the structure and types of life on Earth. |
| Mendel | experimented with pea plants to explore the nature of inheritance. |
| Darwin | proposed the theory of natural selection, also known as “survival of the fittest”, to explain evolution. |
| Which part of the digestive system functions to absorb water, electrolytes, and bacteria-produced Vitamin K? | Large intestine. While the jejunum and the ileum that follows are the primary sites of nutrient absorption and some water absorption occurs as well, mineral absorption does not occur in these sites. |
| Duodenum: | The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine, where chyme mixes with bile and pancreatic enzymes for chemical digestion. |
| Jejunum: | The jejunum is the middle section of the small intestine and is the primary site of nutrient absorption. |
| Ileum: | The ileum is the final part of the small intestine, where vitamin B₁₂, bile salts, and remaining nutrients are absorbed before contents enter the large intestine. |
| SNOW DROP | Southern - DNA Northern - RNA Western - Protein |
| In which region of the kidney is the glomerulus located? | Renal cortex |
| Codons to Amino Acids | Exactly one codon specifies one amino acid. Each codon is a unique sequence of three consecutive nucleotides (e.g., AUG or UUU). |
| the genetic code is redundant | There are 64 total codon combinations. 61 of these codons specify the 20 standard amino acids. 3 codons are "stop" signals that do not code for any amino acid. |
| Non-cylic phosphorylation | 2 electrons go through an ETC and combine with NADP⁺ and H⁺ to form NADPH, which is then used in the Calvin cycle to create glucose. |
| Cyclic phosphorylation | 2 electrons from PSI go back through the first ETC, generating 1 ATP; the electrons are recycled into PSI and can repeat the cycle. |
| Which of the following functions as a support cell for muscle tissue? | Satellite cell |
| All of the following are cell types found in the stomach EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Mucous cells Chief cells Parietal cells G Cells Goblet Cells | Goblet Cells. Goblet cells are found in the small intestine and are responsible for the secretion of mucus in order to protect the epithelial lining of the small intestine. |
| Mucous cells | secrete mucus which serve to lubricate and protect the lining of the stomach from the highly acidic juices of the stomach. |
| Parietal cells | secrete hydrochloric acid, as well as intrinsic factor. The acidic hydrochloric acid (HCl) is responsible for the activation of pepsinogen into its active form pepsin, as well as the breakdown of proteins. |
| Chief cells | secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase. Pepsinogen is the zymogen (inactive precursor) of pepsin which is a protease responsible for the breakdown of proteins. |
| G cells | secrete the hormone gastrin. Gastrin has multiple functions, one of which is the stimulation of parietal cells to secrete hydrochloric acid. Gastrin also functions to stimulate chief cells to secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase. |
| All of the following contribute to the circulation of lymph throughout the body EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Location of re-entry Smooth muscle contractions Skeletal muscle contractions Lymph node contractions Lymphatic valves | Lymph node contractions |
| Which of the following structures of a bird embryo is used to store uric acid and is later used for gas exchange? | Allantois |
| Chorion | the outermost extraembryonic membrane. In egg-laying animals, the chorion will fuse with the allantois to form a membrane for gas exchange. |
| Yolk sac | In egg-laying animals, the yolk sac provides nourishment to the developing embryo. In placental animals, the yolk sac is not as important for nourishing the embryo as the placenta is responsible for nourishment. |
| Amnion | The amnion is the innermost extraembryonic membrane. The amnion contains amniotic fluid that functions to cushion and protect the developing embryo. |
| Glycolysis: | 2 pyruvate + 2 ATP + 2 NADH |
| Pyruvate oxidation: | 2 acetyl-CoA + 2 NADH + 2 CO₂ |
| Krebs cycle: | 2 ATP + 6 NADH + 2 FADH₂ + 4 CO₂ |
| How much ATP does the ETC/oxidative phosphorylation produce? | Approximately 34 ATP. |
| Photosystem II (PSII) | Absorbs light energy. Splits water (photolysis) into: O₂, H⁺ ions, Electrons. The electrons enter the electron transport chain. |
| Electron Transport Chain (ETC) in Photosynthesis Vs Cellular Respiration | In photosynthesis, pumps H⁺ from the stroma into the thylakoid lumen. In cellular respiration, pumps H⁺ from the mitochondrial matrix into the intermembrane space. |
| Photosystem I (PSI) | Absorbs light energy again. Re-energizes the electrons. Electrons reduce NADP⁺ to NADPH. |
| Bryophytes + example | non-vascular plants. Recall that vascular tissue consists of xylem and phloem. Examples of bryophytes include mosses, hornworts, and liverworts. Bryophytes spend the majority of their lifecycle in the gametophyte stage |
| Tracheophytes + example | seedless vascular plants, examples are ferns and quillworts, spend the majority of their lifecycle in the sporophyte stage, not the gametophyte stage. |
| Gymnosperms + example | vascular plants whose seeds are not protected. Examples are conifers and pine trees. Gymnosperms spend the majority of their lifecycle in the sporophyte stage, not the gametophyte stage. |
| Angiosperms + example | flower-bearing plants, examples are sunflowers and anything with the word flower in them, most diverse plants, spend the majority of their lifecycle in the sporophyte stage, not the gametophyte stage. |
| Which one of the following features are found in all members of Class Mammalia? Fur Feathers Sweat glands Diaphragm Tail bone | Diaphragm |
| Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys? Excretion of wastes Mineral secretion Filter blood Monitor blood pressure Nutrient absorption | Nutrient absorption |
| Which of the following structures produce epinephrine? Pineal gland Adrenal medulla Anterior pituitary Posterior pituitary Adrenal cortex | Adrenal medulla is the right answer. NOT adrenal cortex , because it is responsible for the production of glucocorticoids, like cortisol, as well as mineralocorticoids, like aldosterone. |
| Biologist notes that there are 50 bears, 20 squirrels, and 10 beavers so she writes Forest: 50, 20, 10. She does this for several more biomes. Which community demonstrates the most species diversity? Desert: 20, 20, 20, 20, 20 Tundra: 90, 7, 3, 1 | Desert: 20, 20, 20, 20, 20 |
| A student is running late for their exam and sprints across campus. During this short period of intense exercise, decreased _________ availability leads to increased production of _________. | O2, lactate |
| Allopatric speciation | formation of new species, speciation, due to reproductive isolation resulting from a geographic barrier. This geographic barrier separates a population and interrupts gene flow. |
| Sympatric speciation | speciation event that occurs without geographic barriers. Instead, reproductive isolation occurs by other mechanisms (balanced polymorphism, polyploidy, and hybridization). |
| The first living organisms to appear on Earth were __________. Autotrophic eukaryotes Heterotrophic prokaryotes Unicellular eukaryotes Photosynthetic prokaryotes Autotrophic archaea | Heterotrophic prokaryotes. Photosynthetic prokaryotes is NOT correct, because the first organisms to utilize photosynthesis were cyanobacteria, however, cyanobacteria were not the first organisms on earth. |
| The earliest autotrophic cells to appear on Earth could be described as __________. | Anaerobic photosynthesizers |
| What hormones produce female secondary sex characteristics? | Estrogen and Progesterone |
| What does ACTH do? | Stimulates adrenal cortex → releases glucocorticoids |
| What does TSH do? | Stimulates thyroid gland to release thyroid hormones |
| What does LH do in females vs males? | Female: triggers ovulation; Male: stimulates interstitial cells of testes to produce testosterone |
| What does FSH do in females vs males? | Female: stimulates maturation of ovarian follicles to secrete estrogen; Male: stimulates seminiferous tubule maturation and sperm production |
| What does GH (Growth Hormone) do? | Stimulates bone and muscle growth |
| What does Prolactin do? | Stimulates milk production |
| What does Oxytocin do? | Increases strength of uterine contractions; stimulates milk ejection; induces maternal behavior |
| What does Calcitonin do? | Stimulates osteoblast activity (builds up bone by using calcium in the blood); antagonistic to PTH |
| What does Testosterone do? | Steroid hormone; increases spermatogenesis and secondary sex characteristics |
| What does Estrogen do? | Steroid hormone; menstrual cycle regulation and secondary sex characteristics |
| What does Progesterone do? | Steroid hormone; menstrual cycle regulation and pregnancy |
| Which of the following is not present on a eukaryotic DNA strand? A region for ribosomes to bind A region coding for proteins Simple sequence repeat of nucleotides Noncoding regions | A region for ribosomes to bind. Ribosomes do NOT bind to DNA, but rather, they bind to messenger RNA during protein translation. Ribosomes are unable to directly use DNA during protein translation. |
| Why do nerve cells differ from skin cells despite both cells having identical genomes? | Differences in gene expression |
| A father with muscular dystrophy (X-linked recessive disease) and a mother of an unknown genotype produce a son with muscular dystrophy and a normal daughter. What is the genotype of the mother? | XmX |
| The primary and tertiary structure of a protein is determined by which of the following, respectively? | mRNA sequence; interactions of R-groups |
| Primary | Linear chain sequence of amino acids |
| Secondary | Local folding of chain into α-helices/β-sheets via H-bonding between amino & carboxyl groups of adjacent amino acids |
| Tertiary | The 3D shape of a protein due to noncovalent interactions between R groups (disulfide bonds are covalent exceptions). |
| Quaternary | A 3D protein shape consisting of 2 or more separate peptide chains. |
| A tiger (2N = 40) mates with a lion (2N = 38), producing a hybrid offspring known as a liger. What is the makeup of the liger offspring? | 2N = 39 |
| What is the offspring makeup in humans? | 46 chromosomes (2N = 46), arranged as 23 pairs. |
| Where does the Calvin Cycle take place? | Stroma |
| Where does the electron transport chain take place in chloroplast? | Thylakoid Membrane |
| The intracellular transportation of substances is primarily accomplished by _________________. Dynein and actin filaments Dynein and intermediate filaments Kinesin and microtubules Kinesin and intermediate filaments | Kinesin and microtubules |
| Dynein | motor protein that walks along microtubules toward the center of the cell (Retrograde transport). |
| Kinesin | motor protein that also walks along microtubules but away from the center of the cell (Anterograde transport). |
| A certain bacterium was found to release endotoxins after its cell membrane was destroyed. What else would be true of this bacterium? | It would be gram-negative and have an outer membrane. |
| Does not produce exotoxins Contains a thick peptidoglycan cell wall No outer membrane Stain dark purple Contain teichoic acids These are all characteristics of...? | Gram positive |
| During which phase of the cell cycle does crossing over occur? | During formation of chiasma - Prophase I |
| What is disjunction and when does it occur? | pulling of chromosomes to opposite poles of cell. In mitosis, it occurs during anaphase when sister chromatids are pulled apart. In meiosis I, homologous chromosomes disjoin during anaphase I; in meiosis II, sister chromatids disjoin during anaphase II. |
| What is independent assortment? | During metaphase I, the random orientation of homologous chromosomes allows gametes to be produced with many different assortments of alleles. |
| A patient with colon cancer undergoes a surgical procedure to have a lymph node examined. The purpose of this examination is to __________. | Check where cancer cells have traveled |
| A contains an organism that is a eukaryote capable of sexual reproduction. Test tube B contains an organism that is a prokaryote closely resembling a chloroplast. Both organisms are autotrophic. Which organism could be found in each test tube? | Plant, Cyanobacteria |
| To initiate a skeletal muscle contraction, a sharp increase in which of the following would first be observed in the cytosol of the post-synaptic cell? | Calcium |
| A zygote undergoes regulative cleavage, forming a 2 cell embryo. These 2 cells are then split apart and their development is observed. The result would be __________. | 2 normal, independently viable organisms |
| What is determinate (mosaic) cleavage? | Cell fate is decided early in development; separated blastomeres cannot form a complete organism. In protosomes. |
| What is indeterminate (regulative) cleavage? | Cell fate is determined later; if a blastomere is removed, both it and the remaining embryo can form complete organisms (twins). In deuterostomes. |
| What is radial cleavage? | New cells form directly above previous cells (deuterostomes) |
| What is spiral cleavage? | New cells form at an angle to previous cells (protosomes) |
| Compare protostomes vs. deuterostomes across 4 features. | Cleavage direction: Spiral vs. Radial | Cleavage type: Determinate vs. Indeterminate | First formation: Mouth vs. Anus | Coelom: Schizocoelus vs. Enterocoelus |
| What is determination? | When a cell has decided which genes will be expressed and which will be repressed |
| What is differentiation? | A visible physical change in a cell expressing certain genes; observable under a microscope |
| Statement #1: Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer instead of a capsule. Statement #2: Gram-negative bacteria stain purple due to a capsule and have two membranes. | Both statements are false. Both gram negative and positive have capsules. |
| Differences between gram positive and negative | Both have capsules, thick vs thin, purple vs pink, positive has no outer membrane while negative does, both release exotoxins, positive doesn't release endotoxins, negative doesn't have technoic acids |
| Which of the following organisms is most similar in taxonomic categorization to yeast? Slime molds Amoeba Dinoflagellates Blue-green algae Mushroom | Mushroom. Both yeast and mushrooms are members of the kingdom Fungi. Slime molds is incorrect, because because slime molds are fungi-like protists, which belong to the kingdom Protista. |
| A decreased concentration of blood plasma proteins would result in __________. | Greater lymph volume. If there were fewer proteins, oncotic pressure is reduced and less fluid will be reabsorbed into the venous end of capillary. Therefore, more fluid remains behind and will enter lymphatic vessels as lymph. |
| Hydrostatic pressure | the pressure of fluid against vessel walls, pushes fluid out of blood vessels. |
| Oncotic pressure | the pressure of blood proteins pulling fluid towards themselves, draws the fluid back into the blood vessels. |
| A runner is struck by a car, resulting in a bruised elbow and torn anterior cruciate ligament. Which of the following structures would no longer be connected? Diaphysis and metaphysis Femur bone and tibia bone Calf muscle and calcaneus bone | Femur bone and tibia bone |
| Dense Regular Connective Tissue: | Tissue with well-organized, parallel collagen fibers |
| Ligaments | join bone to bone |
| Tendons | join bone to muscle |
| Dense Irregular Connective Tissue | Tissue with scattered, non-parallel collagen fibers |
| Periosteum | an outer membrane surrounding bones that distribute nutrients around the bone. The Volkmann’s canals link the periosteum to the Haversian canals in osteons. |
| Endosteum | inner membrane that lines the medullary cavity of the long bones. It also lines the cavities of Haversian and Volkmann’s canals. |
| Which of the following enzymes is a protease? Amylase Nuclease Helicase Chymotrypsin | Chymotrypsin |
| What does trypsin/chymotrypsin digest? | Proteins |
| What does lipase digest? | Lipids |
| What does amylase digest? | Carbohydrates |
| What do nucleases digest? | Nucleic acids |
| What are zymogens? | Inactive forms of digestive enzymes; they are initially produced this way and then cleaved into their active form in the small intestine |
| What does pepsinogen convert to and what does it do? | Converts to pepsin, which digests proteins |
| Observation of nitrogen fixation would best occur by analyzing which of the following? Rhizoids Dinoflagellates Root nodules Detritivores | Root nodules |
| Nitrogen fixation | atmospheric nitrogen (N2) is converted into ammonia (NH3) and ammonium (NH4+) by nitrogen-fixing bacteria in legume root nodules. |
| Denitrifying bacteria convert... | nitrates (NO3-) back into atmospheric nitrogen (N2). |
| What results in the growth of long bones? | Growth of cartilage in the epiphyseal plate |
| A scorpion's sting releases venom that binds to acetylcholine and blocks its function. What mechanism explains the effects of the venom? | Post-synaptic cell will not depolarize |
| Glutamate | major excitatory neurotransmitter that plays a dominant role in the central nervous system, most common. |
| GABA | major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain |
| Serotonin | Inhibitory neurotransmitter of the brain that plays many roles including memory and mood |
| Dopamine | plays a role in reward-motivated behavior |
| Glycine | Inhibitory neurotransmitter of the brain that participates in the processing of motor and sensory information that permits movement, vision, and audition |
| Which of the following structures of a seed develops into the root of a plant? | Radicle |
| epicotyl | develops into the shoot tip (very top region of the shoot) of the plant. |
| coleoptile | sheath in monocots that protects the epicotyl. |
| An organism is 2N = 16. What will the chromosome and chromatid count be in each cell after Meiosis I has completed? | 8 and 16 |
| What is the site of eukaryotic ribosome synthesis? | Nucleolus |
| The endometrium is a mucous membrane that thickens during the menstrual cycle. Where in the reproductive system would this thickened layer be found? | Uterus |
| Effects of Parasympathetic System | Constricts pupils, increases saliva production, reduces heart rate, constricts brochi, stimulates digestive activity, constricts urinary bladder |
| Effects of Sympathetic System | Dilates pupils, inhibits saliva production, dilates bronchia, rises the heart rate, inhibits digestive activity, relaxes urinary bladder |
| What is an advantage of internal fertilization over external fertilization? | Fewer gametes are necessary |
| External fertilization | The female lays the eggs then the male releases sperm near the eggs, after which the sperm must make their way to the eggs. Since there can be many females and males involved, there is a greater mixture of genes. |
| Internal fertilization | occurs inside reproductive organs when the sperm arrives at or is deposited into the female reproductive system. Thus, the external environment does not play any direct role in the success of fertilization. |
| Which organelle is responsible for protein glycosylation? | Golgi apparatus |
| Polygenic inheritance | occurs when one phenotype is controlled by two or more genes with a continuous variation. |
| Epistasis | the process by which one gene affects the phenotypic expression of a second gene. Pigmentation in mice is an example of epistasis. One gene affects the production of pigment while the other gene affects the color of the pigment. |
| Pleiotropy | the event when one gene influences two or more seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits. Pleiotropy can be viewed as the exact opposite of polygenic inheritance. |
| Which of the following describes the asexual reproduction and development of an embryo without egg fertilization? | Parthenogenesis |
| The portion of an allele that codes for a protein product is found where in a gene? | Open reading frame |
| Promoter region | region is the sequence of DNA where transcription is initiated. |
| Regulatory region | this region in the chromosome controls gene expression, by either increasing or decreasing it. |
| The presence of cyanobacteria in the early Earth allowed for the emergence of which of the following? | Aerobic organisms, because cyanobacteria are prokaryotic, photosynthetic bacteria. |
| What are the 6 types of glial cells | Oligodendrocytes, Schwann cells, Microglia, Ependymal cells, Satellite cells, Astrocytes |
| What do oligodendrocytes do? | Produce myelin in the CNS |
| What do Schwann cells do? | Produce myelin in the PNS |
| What do microglia do? | Act as CNS phagocytes |
| What do ependymal cells do? | Circulate CSF using cilia |
| What do satellite cells do? | Serve as support cells in the PNS |
| What do astrocytes do? | Physically support CNS neurons and maintain nutrient and mineral balance |
| What happens if no ATP is available during muscle contraction? | Myosin stays bound to actin and the muscle is stuck in contraction — this is called rigor mortis. |
| Sliding Filament Model | muscles contract as calcium exposes binding sites on actin, allowing myosin heads to bind to actin filaments through power strokes. ATP then makes myosin detach and re-cocks the myosin head, allowing the cycle to repeat if Ca and ATP are available. |
| Somatic Vs Automatic Nervous Systems | The somatic nervous system controls voluntary body movements using skeletal muscles, whereas the autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary, behind-the-scenes bodily functions like heart rate, digestion, and breathing. |
| R-selected species | have numerous offspring that are small and have fast maturation, allowing minimal parental care. Remember R for rabbit! |
| K-selected species | organisms have low reproductive rates with longer maturation times. These organisms also demonstrate strong parental care, resulting in the survival of most organisms of the population. |
| Type I Survivorship | High survival rates throughout early and middle life, with a steep drop-off in older age (humans) |
| Type II Survivorship | A constant mortality rate across all ages, meaning the probability of dying is equal at any life stage. Often seen in birds, lizards, etc. |
| Type III Survivorship | Extremely high mortality in early life, but those who survive the vulnerable juvenile stage have a high likelihood of reaching adulthood (fish, insects) |
| Oogenesis | Oogonia → primary oocytes (prophase I arrest) → primordial → primary → secondary → mature follicle → meiosis I: secondary oocyte + polar body → metaphase II arrest → ovulation → fertilization completes meiosis II → corpus luteum → corpus albicans. |
| Which molecule can be deadly if bound to hemoglobin? | Carbon monoxide |
| Platelets are best described as __________. | Fragments of megakaryocytes |
| Percentage of Blood Components | 55% = Plasma (liquid portion) 45% = Red blood cells <1% = white blood cells <1% = platelets |
| Where does oxygenated blood from the lungs directly enter? | Left atrium |
| What are the two atrioventricular valves and what do they connect? | Tricuspid — connects right atrium to right ventricle. Bicuspid/Mitral — connects left atrium to left ventricle. |
| What are the two semilunar valves and what do they connect? | Pulmonary — connects right ventricle to pulmonary artery. Aortic — connects left ventricle to aorta. |
| What is the sinoatrial (SA) node and what does it do? | The pacemaker node located in the upper right atrium. It initiates contraction of the atria and stimulates the atrioventricular (AV) node. |
| What is the correct order of the cardiac conduction pathway? | SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → ventricular contraction |
| What is the pulmonary circuit? | Heart (right) → Lungs → Heart (left). Carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs and returns oxygenated blood to the heart. |
| Which vessel has the lowest oxygen concentration in the body? | The pulmonary artery. |
| Which vessel has the highest oxygen concentration in the body? | The pulmonary vein. |
| What is the systemic circuit? | Heart (left) → Body → Heart (right). Delivers oxygenated blood to body tissues and returns deoxygenated blood to the heart. |
| What are capillaries? | The smallest blood vessels, consisting of a single layer of endothelial cells. They allow exchange of gas, nutrients, and waste with body tissues. |
| Trace blood flow through the pulmonary circuit. | Deoxygenated blood: right atrium → tricuspid valve → right ventricle → pulmonary semilunar valve → pulmonary artery → lungs (oxygenated) → pulmonary vein → left atrium |
| Trace blood flow through the systemic circuit. | Oxygenated blood: left atrium → bicuspid valve → left ventricle → aortic semilunar valve → aorta → arteries → arterioles → capillaries → tissues → venules → veins → vena cava → right atrium |
| An adult photoreceptor cell is isolated and its nucleus is removed and placed into an enucleated oocyte. Which of the following best describes the growing embryo that results? | Clone |
| Cloning | isolated gene or DNA fragment is inserted into a suitable vector that can be injected into host. Aka transformation. One method of transformation is taking a somatic cell with the desired genes and removing its nucleus to put into an enucleated egg cell |
| Which of the following would occur if there were no single-stranded DNA binding proteins present? | DNA strands will not be able to remain separated. helicase unwinds DNA, separating the two strands and forming a Y-shaped replication fork. Once the DNA is unwound, single-stranded DNA binding proteins keep them separated. |
| Which cell junction produces a seal to prevent the movement of molecules between cells? | Tight junctions |
| Anchoring junctions (desmosomes) | Anchoring junctions mechanically attach neighboring cells (or cells to the extracellular matrix) to provide strength and resist stretching, and are commonly found in the epidermis, cardiac muscle, and other tissues under mechanical stress. |
| Gap junctions | Gap junctions are channels that allow ions and small molecules to pass directly between adjacent cells for rapid communication, and are commonly found in cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and some epithelial tissues. |
| Tight junctions | Tight junctions form a sealed barrier between adjacent cells to prevent leakage of substances between them, and are commonly found in the lining of the small intestine, urinary bladder, and blood-brain barrier. |
| What is a polymer stored in the human liver and used as an energy source? | Glycogen |
| The contraction of the diaphragm will __________. | Bring lungs downward, increase volume, decrease pressure. Remember C is next to D for down! |
| Which of the following is the correct order that which carbon dioxide diffuses out of the blood? | Red blood cells, blood, pulmonary artery, alveolar wall |
| The absorption of water from which of the following structures would be most affected if the antidiuretic hormone was removed from the human body? | Collecting duct |
| What does ADH (antidiuretic hormone) do? | Increases collecting duct permeability to water → water is reabsorbed out of the kidney tubule and back into the bloodstream → urine becomes more concentrated while blood pressure increases. Less urine. |
| What blocks ADH synthesis? | Alcohol and coffee block ADH synthesis, leading to more dilute urine flow. |
| What is the osmotic challenge for marine fish and how do they cope? | Their body cells are hypotonic to the environment so water loss occurs; they constantly drink water to offset water loss and rarely urinate. |
| What is the osmotic challenge for freshwater fish and how do they cope? | Their body cells are hypertonic to the environment so water enters; they rarely drink water and constantly urinate to stop body fluid from being diluted. |
| What does aldosterone do? | Increases Na⁺ reabsorption from kidney tubules into the bloodstream → water follows Na⁺ out of the kidney and back into the blood → water retention in blood is increased. Less urine. |
| The term sarcomere refers to the __________. | Functional unit of the muscle fiber, NOT plasma membrane of the muscle fiber because that would be the sarcolemma |
| Human semen contains a high amount of prostaglandins because they have which effect on the female reproductive system? | Stimulates uterine contractions |
| Cholesterol is a precursor for which of the following molecules? Triglycerides Waxes Phospholipids Peptide hormones Adrenocorticoids | Adrenocorticoids, NOT triglycerides because those are formed from fatty acids, which are lipids. |
| Which of the following describes a function of the stratum germinativum? | Forms new keratinocytes cells |
| Which of the following best describes DNA that is introduced into a bacterium through a virus that becomes incorporated into the bacterial DNA? | In the lysogenic phase. |
| Lytic cycle | virus injects its genetic material into a host cell by penetrating membrane. Then produces viral proteins that can be assembled into new viruses. These new viruses can burst out from the cell and infect other cells. |
| Lysogenic cycle | incorporates its viral DNA into the host genome. As the host replicates itself and its genome, the viral DNA is also replicated. In this stage, the virus is considered a provirus and is dormant. May enter the lytic cycle later. |
| The microflora found inside the body of humans and other mammals is composed of many bacteria. Which type would you expect to be predominantly found? | Facultative anaerobes |
| Which of the following organs is responsible for majority of female sex hormone production? Pancreas Pineal gland Posterior pituitary Ovaries Adrenal cortex | Ovaries |
| Which of the following animal phyla is considered a coelomate? Echinodermata Nematoda Rotifera Platyhelminthes Porifera | Echinodermata, consists of coelomate deuterostomes, including sea stars, urchins, and sand dollars. |
| Nematoda | phylum of roundworms that are pseudocoelomates, which have a coelom that is not entirely lined by mesoderm-derived tissue. |
| Rotifera | Bilateral, triploblastic, pseudocoelomate, alimentary canal. Not truly segmented. Sexual or parthenogenetic reproduction. Mostly freshwater; ciliated corona draws food in. |
| Key characteristics of Platyhelminthes? | Bilateral, triploblastic, acoelomate, protostome, gastrovascular cavity. Most primitive triploblastic animals. Examples: tapeworm, planarian. |
| Key characteristics of Arthropoda (Insecta)? | Chitin exoskeleton, three leg pairs, tagmata, spiracles/tracheal tubes, Malpighian tubules, open circulatory system. Undergo metamorphosis and ecdysis. Most species-rich phylum. Examples: ant, dragonfly. |
| Key characteristics of Arthropoda (Arachnida)? | Chitin exoskeleton, four leg pairs, book lungs or trachea, Malpighian tubules, open circulatory system. Terrestrial. Examples: spider, scorpion. |
| Key characteristics of Arthropoda (Crustacea)? | Chitin exoskeleton, jointed appendages, gills, Malpighian tubules, open circulatory system. Aquatic. Examples: lobster, crab. |
| Key characteristics of Chondrichthyes? | Jaws and teeth, cartilaginous vertebrae, two-chambered heart, gills. Notochord only in embryo; replaced by vertebrae in adulthood. Examples: shark. |
| Key characteristics of Osteichthyes? | Bony skeleton, scales, two-chambered heart, gills. Examples: salmon, halibut. |
| Key characteristics of Agnatha? | Cartilaginous skeleton, no jaws, scaleless skin, keratinized mouth plates, two-chambered heart, gills. Notochord persists into adulthood. Hagfish have a skull but no vertebral column. Examples: hagfish, lamprey. |
| Key characteristics of Mammalia — Monotremes? | Amniotes, warm-blooded, four-chambered heart. Lay leathery eggs; young suck milk from fur (no nipples). Examples: platypus, echidna. |
| The immune system has several lines of defense, ranging from non-specific to increasingly specific. Which of the following would you expect to find in the final, most specific line of defense? | Cytotoxic T-cells |
| What are the 3 lines of defense in order? | 1. Physical barriers (External) 2. Innate Immunity — internal cellular defense (Internal) 3. Adaptive Immunity — humoral response & cell-mediated response (Internal) |
| What is the relative abundance of leukocytes (most to least)? | Neutrophils > Lymphocytes > Monocytes > Eosinophils |
| What do NK (Natural Killer) Cells do? | Attack abnormal body cells — either tumors or pathogen-infected cells |
| What is an Epitope? | A specific part of an antigen to which an antibody binds |
| A mutation causes the epithelium to no longer adhere to the basement membrane. This mutation most likely involves __________. | Hemidesmosome |
| Hemidesmosomes | cell junctions that are involved in the adhesion of epithelial cells to the extracellular matrix, specifically at the basement membrane. |
| Desmosomes | cell-to-cell junctions that provide a strong, mechanically stable connection between cells. Desmosomes are found in tissues with mechanical stress, like cardiac and epidermis. They cross cell membrane and connect to the intermediate filaments (keratin) |
| He knows that one of the strands is extremely rich in cytosine and guanine, which would correspond to the melting point of __________. | C-G are connected by 3 hydrogen bonds, which means they'd have the highest available melting point. |
| Throughout its life cycle, a mushroom is __________. | Haploid and diploid. This is known as alternation of generations. In fungi, the haploid stage is dominant predominates, but the diploid stage may emerge during sexual reproduction. |
| Reabsorption of water from the collecting duct results in an increase in the volume of water in __________. | Blood. Both aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone, through separate mechanisms, will ultimately lead to an increase in water reabsorption from the collecting duct into circulation, thus increasing blood pressure. NOT distal tubule |
| Hormones produced by the anterior pituitary are derived from what type of molecule? | Protein, because it secretes peptide hormones. Cholestrol is incorrect, because the adrenal glands and gonads are responsible for secreting steroid hormones. Tyrosine-derived hormones are secreted by the thyroid gland and the adrenal medulla. |
| Glucagon is a hormone produced by which organ? | Pancreas |
| In an experiment, DNA is introduced into bacteria through transformation. Which of the following is a term that describes bacteria that were gathered from this experiment? | Library. Bacteria with the correct plasmid gathered from DNA cloning are referred to as a library, as the bacteria can contain many unique DNA sequences. |
| The common bile duct empties its contents into the __________. | Duodenum |
| Which of the following occurs during the power stroke of skeletal muscle contraction? | ADP and inorganic phosphate are released from the myosin head. Cross-bridge is WRONG, cause shift in tropomyosin exposes the binding sites on actin, this happens before the power stroke. After power stroke, ATP binds, myosin detaches from actin. |
| cardiac sphincter | controls the passage of a bolus from the esophagus to the stomach |
| pyloric sphincter | controls the passage of chyme from the stomach to the small intestine |
| ileocecal valve | passage connecting the small intestine to the large intestine |
| Which of the following carries oxygenated blood? | Pulmonary and umbilical vein |
| Which type of neuron carries information towards the central nervous system? | Afferent neuron. An efferent neuron, or motor neuron, carries information away from the central nervous system toward skeletal muscle, glands, or other tissues. Interneuron connects afferent and efferent. |
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