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| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| An AP axial cervical projection with accurate positioning demonstrates | - open intervertebral disk spaces. - the spinous processes aligned with the midline of the cervical bodies. |
| For an AP thoracic projection, the | - hips and knees are flexed until the lower back is pressed against the imaging table. - central ray is centered to the fifth thoracic vertebra. - tighter collimation to area of interest. |
| The cervical spine offers a convex curvature, while the thoracic spine is concave. | False |
| Which of these is NOT a joint of the spinal column? | Costochondral |
| What anatomical structure appears slightly magnified on a swimmer's projection? | right humeral head |
| Which of the following fractures is due to a hyperflexion force injury? | Chance |
| It is OK to have the patient flex their hips and knees 90 degrees for an AP axial view of the sacrum. | False |
| The superior and anterior projecting bony process of the sacrum that forms part of the inlet and articulates with L5 is the: | promontory of the sacrum |
| The radiographic appearance on an oblique lumbar spine in which the neck of the Scottie dog appears “broken” suggests the presence of: | Spondylolysis |
| A Scottie Dog is created when the body is rotated ______ degrees. | 45 |
| What purpose do the sacral foramina have? | transmit blood vessels and nerves |
| What is a potential risk associated with the use of water-soluble contrast agents, such as barium sulfate? | dehydration |
| Patient preparation for an esophagogram includes NPO _____ before the procedure. | None of the options; patient preparation is not needed as long as an upper GI series is not scheduled to follow |
| Why would a patient undergo Valsalva maneuver during an esophagogram? | To demonstrate possible esophageal reflux |
| Protective aprons worn during fluoroscopy must possess at least ____ mm lead equivalency (Pb/Eq.). | 0.50 |
| A large outpouching of the proximal esophagus above the upper esophageal sphincter is termed: | Zenker diverticulum |
| In a patient with esophageal varices, the veins in the wall of the proximal esophagus are dilated. | False |
| Why is the posteroanterior (PA) rather than the AP projection recommended for a small bowel series? | Better separation of loops of small intestine |
| Which exam allows us to see the functionality of intestines? | Small bowel series |
| What are the involuntary wavelike contractions of the intestines? | Peristalsis |
| An abnormal opening in the stomach or intestines that allows the contents to leak out into another part of the body are called: | fistulas |
| An AP axial cervical projection with accurate positioning demonstrates | - every vertebra’s spinous processes within the inferior adjoining vertebral body. - open intervertebral disk spaces. - the spinous processes aligned with the midline of the cervical bodies. |
| Why should the hips and knees be flexed for an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the lumbar spine? | Both for patient comfort and to reduce the lumbar curvature |
| What type of CR angulation is required for an AP axial projection of the coccyx? | 10-degree caudad |
| Where is bile produced? | liver |
| Swallowed air can be used as a negative-contrast medium during an upper GI series. | True |
| Why is the posteroanterior (PA) rather than the AP projection recommended for a small bowel series? | Better separation of loops of small intestine |
| Which of the following is caused by a parasite within the small intestine? | Giardiasis |
| Inflammation of the bladder is termed | cystitis |
| This pathology appears as a "bundle of grapes." | Polycystic Kidney Disease |
| The kidneys lie halfway between the __________ and __________. | xiphoid process / iliac crest |
| All of the following are reasons why a patient should void before an IVU exam EXCEPT: | -Prevent potential rupture of bladder -Enhances contrast, and doesn't dilute it |
| In preparation for a venipuncture, a tourniquet should be applied ____ above or proximal to the site of injection. | 3 to 4 inches |
| The rapid introduction of contrast agents into the vascular system is termed: | bolus injection |
| Which of the following functions is not performed by the urinary system? | Producing and releasing adrenaline |
| A fracture involving the facial bones where a blow to one side causes a fracture to the opposite side is termed a ____ fracture. | Contrecoup |
| Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the facial bones? | Zygoma, midway between the EAM and the outer canthus |
| Patients with a history of a GSW (gun shot wound) need to have a pre-CT x-ray done to provide clearance for the exam. | False |
| A modified Waters view has the patient place their ________ and ______ against the bucky. | nose and chin |
| Which is NOT a common positioning error when it comes to head work? | Breathing |
| Which of the following is NOT a sinus cavity? | Nasal |
| Which vein drains and receives blood from the intercostal, bronchial, esophageal, and phrenic veins? | Azygos vein |
| Which is the longest vein in the body? | Great saphenous vein |
| Which vessel is the preferred site for arterial puncture for most angiography? | Femoral |
| Muscular structures seen on a CT image would appear: | gray |
| All exams require the patient to be supine on the table, but depending on the exam, they could be head or feet-first. | False |
| ________ have replaced high-tension cables, which allows for continuous rotation of the x-ray tube within the CT unit. | Slip rings |
| Which of the following is generally true for knee arthrography? | A common nontrauma clinical indication is a Baker’s cyst. |
| Most disk pathology of the spine occurs in the thoracic and lumbar regions. | False |
| A minimum of 2 projections should be obtained in trauma situations that should be _____ degrees apart from each other. | 90 |