Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
A&P 2
blood, immune, lymphatic
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| functions of blood | waste removal and nutrient delivery, temperature regulation, maintains acid-base balance, protection, transports hormones to target receptors |
| red bone marrow from which bones is source of all blood cells | rib, sternum, pelvis |
| hemocytoblasts | hemopoietic stem cells |
| true or false: red bone marrow can differentiate into myeloid or lymphoid stem cells | true |
| hematocrit | percentage of blood volume that consists of RBCs (makes- 47%, females-42%) |
| true or false: RBCs have no nucleus | true |
| what are RBCs filled with | hemoglobin |
| erythropoiesis | generation of RBCs |
| reticulocyte | immature RBC, take 2 days to become fully deveeoloped |
| hypoxia | low blood oxygen, stimulates kidney to produce erythropoietin |
| what does erythropoietin (EPO) do | targets receptors on reticulocytes to increase their rate of development |
| RBC lifespan | 120 days |
| aged cells phagocytized by macrophages in ___ and ____ | spleen (graveyard of RBCs), liver |
| when heme is transported to liver/spleen for storage + reuse, remaining biliverdin is converted into | bilirubin- filtered out of blood by liver and secreted as bile into small intestine. inability to do this is jaundice |
| true or false: globin is degraded into amino acids and released to blood | true |
| anemia | too few RBCs, thin blood + hypoxia |
| aplastic anemia | damage to red bone marrow, treated via marrow transplant from iliac crest |
| pernicious anemia | improper absorption of vitamin B12, decreases total # of RBCs, and forms poorly made ones |
| iron deficiency anemia | from blood loss or not enough iron in diet to generate hemoglobin for new RBCs |
| hemolytic anemia | RBCs don't live as long as they should |
| polycythemia | increase in blood viscosity due to too many RBCs, due to smoking/bone marrow cancer |
| diapedisis | WBCs get skinny and squeeze through capillary wall |
| ameboid motion | WBCs can migrate through tissues |
| positive chemotaxis | WBCs can follow chemical trails released by damaged tissue and other WBCs |
| nonspecific leukocytes controlled by | colony stimulating factors (CSF) |
| neutrophils | most common, 3-6 lobed nucleus |
| which leukocyte produces defensins + generate a respiratory burst to kill microbes | neutrophils |
| which leukocyte respond to bacteria and live 1-2 days after entering tissue | neutrophil |
| eosinophil | bilobed nucleus, attack parasitic worms, live in tissues for 5 days |
| which leukocytes play role in allergies and asthma | eosinophils and basophils |
| basophils | least common, secrete heparin, histamine, serotonin to initiate inflammatory response. u/s shaped nucleus |
| mast cells | similar to basophils, found in CT + congregate beneath epithelial surfaces along BVs |
| which is largest phagocyte | monocyte |
| monocyte | kidney shaped nucleus, become macrophages/dendritic cells |
| macrophage | travel through tissues looking for antigens, functions as APCs, have toll like receptors, phagocytize antigens into epitopes to present them |
| what do macrophages secrete | interleukin 1, a pyrogen which raises body temperature |
| true or false: dendritic cells are more important to APCs | true |
| natural killer cells | differentiate from lymphoid stem cells, kills self cells if don't have right MHC 1 receptor on surface |
| T and B cells differentiate from | lymphoid stem cells |
| immature t cells migrate from bone marrow to _____ to finish development, while immature B cells stay in _____ | thymus, bone marrow |
| leukocytosis | WBC count 11,000-100,000 suggests acute infection |
| leukemia | bone marrow cancer, over 100,000 WBCs, cells are subject to infection, aplastic anemia occurs, platelet numbers reduce causing inability to clot blood |
| leukopenia (penia = deficient) | WBC count below 4,000, due to viral diseases (HIV) |
| platelets | fragments of megakaryocytes, play role in hemostasis |
| 3 steps of hemostasis | vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation |
| platelets adhere to exposed collagen of vessel wall via | von Willebrand's factor |
| what chemicals to platelets release | PF3 (clotting factor), serotonin (cause vascular spasm), thromboxane + ADP |
| what does thromboxane do during platelet plug formation | cause platelets to get more sticky, promotes platelet aggregation where platelets stick together via fibrinogen to form platelet plug |
| to keep plug localized, endothelium of BV produces ____ which inhibits thromboxane and ADP | prostacyclin |
| true or false: thromboxane inhibited by aspirin | true |
| platelet derived growth factor (PDGF) | stimulates fibroblasts + smooth muscle cells to repair vessel wall |
| albumins | smallest + most common proteins, contributor to BOP. binds to + transports fatty acids, hormones, drugs |
| globulins | - alpha + beta: carrier molecules, transport hormones/vitamins/lipids/metals - gamma: consist of all antibodies within blood |
| true or false: gamma globulins are made by B cells | true |
| fibrinogen converts to fibrin which are | protein fibers that form blood clot |
| prothrombin converts to thrombin which is | clotting enzyme |
| extrinsic pathway | trigger: release of tissue factor --> factor 7 |
| intrinsic pathway | trigger: exposed collagen --> factor 12 --> factor 11 --> factor 9 --> factor 8 |
| common pathway (PF3 and Ca must be present) | Factor 10 + prothrombin = thrombin + fibrinogen = fibrin = platelet plug = blood clot |
| clot retraction | shortening of fibrin threads |
| what is incorporated into clot as it forms | plasminogen |
| tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) | after 2-3 days, clot vessel walls release TPA, reacts with bound plasminogen and activates it into plasmin (enzyme that digests fibrin and dissolves the clot) |
| heparin | prevents conversion of prothrombin ---> thrombin |
| coumadin (warfarin) | interferes with livers ability to use vitamin K to produce prothrombin |
| thrombocytopenia | too few platelets, inhibits intrinsic and extrinsic pathways |
| thrombus | clot that forms in undamaged vessel |
| embolus | clot moves from formation site |
| treatments that eliminate clots | - administration of TPA - streptokinase: enzyme that converts free + bound plasminogen to plasmin |
| hemophilia | sex linked genetic disorder, persons blood wont clot |
| universal donor | O- |
| universal recipient | AB+ |
| if given cell exposed to matching antibody, cells will | agglutinate- leads to kidney failure |
| 2 methods of Rh+ exposure | 1. Rh- person receives transfusion of Rh+ blood 2. Rh- mother gives birth to Rh+ baby and placenta tears (hemolytic disease of newborn (2nd birteh)) |
| Rhogam | given within 12 hours of birth, Rh antibodies wont develop |
| innate immunity | nonspecific barrier to microbial entry with which a person is born |
| physical barriers of 1st line of defense | skin, mucous membranes, flushing mechanisms |
| chemical barriers of 1st line of defense | acids in stomach + female reproductive tract, lysozyme in tears + saliva |
| chemical barriers of 2nd line of defense | complement, interferon |
| complement | 25-30 blood proteins activated by antibody binding to antigen, results in change reaction leading to MAC causing microbe lysis, stimulates release of histamine-enhances inflammation |
| interferon | first antiviral identified, attaches to receptor sites on neighboring cells causing them to produce antiviral proteins. if virus tries to enter these cells, protein binds virus + prevents replication |
| biological barriers of 2nd line of defense | phagocytosis via nonspecific leukocytes (neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells) |
| inflammation is part of which line of defense | 2nd |
| true or false: adaptive immunity is specific and takes time to respond (5 days) | true |
| MHC 1 receptors | unique to each individual- identify "self", associated with all nucleated cells, part of intracellular surveillance, MHC 1-epitope complexes examined by effector T cytotoxic cells |
| true or false: MHC 1 receptors associated with RBCs | false |
| MHC 2 receptors | associated with cell membrane of all APCs, part of extracellular surveillance system |
| T cells whose receptor can recognize MHC 1 as ours are... (must recognize self major proteins) | positively selected |
| T cells whose receptors can recognize self epitopes without binding too tightly are... (must not recognize self antigens) | negatively selected |
| what are costimulatory receptors on TCD8 and TCD4 cells | CD28 and B7 |
| what do naive TCD8 cells become when activates | - effector T cytotoxic cells - delayed hypersensitivity cells |
| what do effector cytotoxic T cells do | leave lymphoid tissue to look for infected cells, release perforin which forms pores in cell, cause infected cell to undergo apoptosis, produce lymphokines that attract other lymphocytes |
| what are delayed hypersensitivity cells involved with | allergic reactions |
| memory cells are result of _______, and are basis for _____ | affinity maturation, anamnestic/secondary immune response |
| TCD8 synapses with | macrophage |
| TCD4 synapses with | dendritic or macrophage |
| what do naive TCD4 cells become when activated | - effector T helper 1 and 2 cells - regulatory/suppressor cells |
| effector T helper cells | - commander and chief, release cytokines that regulate activity of other immune cells - T helper 1 cells regulatae TCD8 cells/effector T killer cells/macrophages - T helper 2 cells regulate naiive B cell production |
| no T helper cells = | no adaptive immune response |
| effector T helper 2 cell synapses with | naive B cell |
| what are costimulatory receptors on effector T helper 2 cells and Naive B cell | CD40L and CD40 |
| when naive B cells become activated they become | plasma cells (make specific antibodies) and memory cells |
| IgD | used as B cell receptor |
| IgM | first to be produced, cant pass through placenta |
| IgG | appear later in primary immune response as result of class switching, most common antibody, can pass through placenta |
| IgA | produces when plasma cells in mucous membranes and glands class switch- in mother milk, sweat, saliva, tears |
| IgE | normally attack parasitic worms, but will initiate allergies if attached to mast cells and basophils |
| neutralization | antibodies bind to surface of virus and keep it from penetrating host |
| precipitation | antibodies link soluble antigen molecules and bring them out of solution |
| opsonization | bacteria coated with antibodies more easily consumed by WBCs |
| agglutination | antibodies clump foreign cells together |
| complement fixation | MAC insertion |
| active naturally acquired immunity | "wild type" antigen you encounter stimulates adaptive immune response, improves with # of times exposed to that antigen |
| passive naturally acquired immunity | no exposure to antigen, occurs when fetus acquires antibodies from mother via placenta (IgG or milk (IgA) |
| active artificially acquired immunity | primary injection results in adaptive immune response, is a preventative technique (getting a vaccine) |
| passive artificially acquired immunity | antibodies provided made by another person/animal |
| functions of lymphatic system | collecting excess interstitial fluid and delivering them to circulatory system, filtering lymph to reduce cellular debris, transporting fats from small intestine, place for APCs to activate T and B lymphocytes |
| interstitial fluid is called ___ after entering lymphatic vessels | lymph |
| lymph capillaries | blind ended vessels, larger and more permeable that blood capillaries, collect excess IF and deliver it to larger lymph vessels |
| lymph vessels (lymphatics) | thinner walls and more valves than veins, collect lymph and deliver it to thoracic or ight lymphatic ducts |
| thoracic duct | largest lymph vessel, collects lymph generated everywhere except body's upper right quadrant, empties into left subclavian vein |
| right lymphatic duct | collects lymph from body's upper right quadrant, empties into right subclavian veins |
| organs of lymphatic system | consist of reticular CT, some lymph tissue is loose (MALT: mucosa associated lymphatic tissue) |
| nodules | simplest lymph organs, oval shaped concentrations of lymph tissue, have a germinal center- has enlarged lymphocytes |
| where are nodules found | embedded in MALT or aggregated to form tonsils and feyers patches in appendix (small intestine) |
| tonsils | clusters of nodules that protect nose + pharynx, removes if large size blocks airway passages |
| lymph nodes | filter lymph for cell debris, clusters in axillary, linguinal, cervical body parts. bean shaped surrounded by capsule that invades node and divides cortex into lobes |
| thymus | in lower neck + extends to mediastinum, 2 encapsulated lobes, each has cortex + medulla - cortex: tightly packed T cells - medulla: Hassall's corpuscles (collections of degenerating epithelia cells) |
| true or false: thymus functional peak is during childhood and reaches max size at puberty | true |
| spleen | largest lymph organ, surrounded by thin easily ruptures capsule, filled with blood not lymph, consists of red and white pulp |
| which lymph organ is reservoir of RBCs/iron/platelets | spleen |
| spleen red pulp | RBCs + macrophages in venous sinuses |
| spleen white pulp | lymphocytes in nodules around BVs, responsible for immune functions of spleen |
| true or false: if spleen removed, liver and bone marrow take over functions | true |
Created by:
katiew0