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Vet 240
Final
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the name and function for cranial nerve VII | None of these |
| Which of the following statements is correct | The lower the solubility of the anesthetic, the more rapid gas anesthetics will go |
| Which of the following inhalants is twice as soluble as sevoflurane | Isoflurane |
| In which organ are most inhalant anesthetic drugs metabolized (biotransformed) | Lungs |
| Which of the following reflexes should always be present in patients under anesthesia | Corneal reflex |
| The use of oscillometric blood pressure monitoring should be reserved for patients weighing more than how many kilos because of inaccuracies in smaller patients | 5 kg |
| Blood pressure cuff placement is common in all of the following areas except the | Foot patrol |
| Treatment for hypotension during anesthesia includes | Increasing the drip rate of the IV fluids |
| Which of the following techniques help to minimize the occurrence of respiratory depression when using propofol as an induction agent | Slow IV administration |
| Which side effects are common with injectable and inhalant anesthetics | Progressive depression of the cardiovascular and respiratory function as the depth of anesthesia increases |
| For which of the following patients would it be advantageous to use a laryngeal mask airway | Brachycephalic dogs, Rabbits, Pigs |
| With sufficient stimulation, a patient be aroused from | Sedation, Narcosis, Hypnosis |
| Which of the following statements defines balanced anesthesia | Administration of multiple drugs concurrently is smaller quantities than would be required if each were administered alone |
| What is the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Classification system rating for a patient that is anemic or moderately dehydrated | Class 3 |
| What classifies a patient that is hypotensive | MAP less than 60 mmHg |
| Which of the following is considered a sensible loss | Urine output |
| Which of the following patients should have coagulation profile submitted before anesthetizing for an elective hernia repair | Doberman |
| Recommended fasting times to withhold food prior to anesthesia in dogs and cats are | 8 to 12 hours |
| Kidney function can be assessed by all of the following preanesthetic screening tests except | ALT |
| Which of the following are NOT important aspects of recording controlled substances in practice | None of these |
| During which stage of anesthesia do the swallowing and gagging reflexes diminish to the point where endotracheal intubation is possible | Stage III, Plane 1 |
| An 18 ga IV catheter is in diameter than a 22 ga IV catheter | Larger |
| Obese animals may experience problems with which of the following both before and during anesthesia | Venipuncture, Assessing dehydration status, Auscultation, Dyspnea at rest, |
| Patients are fasted prior to anesthesia for which of the following reasons | Anesthetic drugs may cause patients to become nauseated, Esophageal reflux may lead to esophagitis |
| The IV fluid shock rate for feline patients is approximately , while the IV fluid shock rate for canine patients is approximately | 55 mL/kg 90 mL/kg |
| Anesthetic doses should be calculated based on an animal's actual body weight | False |
| A patient with 5% dehydration would exhibit which of the following clinical signs | Mild skin turgor with tacky mucous membranes (MM) |
| How is maintenance fluid rate calculated | None of these |
| If you were only able to evaluate three systems on a preanesthetic physical examination, which of the following systems would you prioritize | None of these |
| Obstructive shock is NOT caused by which of the following conditions | Acute hemorrhage |
| Which of the following properties of meloxicam makes it an excellent choice for managing chronic pain and inflammation | Meloxicam can be very easily titrated to the lowest effective oral dose |
| Which of the following is true regarding non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs | Can be more effective than opioids for certain types of pain |
| Which of the following statements regarding carprofen is NOT true | Carprofen is available only in injectable form |
| Hydromorphone is more potent than morphine | True |
| "Wind up" Phenomenon, or central sensitization is the result of concurrent hyperalgesia and allodynia | True |
| Meloxicam can be an excellent choice for managing chronic pain and inflammation in canine patients | True |
| Which of the following would be a contraindication for using morphine or morphine PF | Premedication prior to resection of a mast cell tumor |
| When discussing the pain pathway, transmission is blocked by which of the following | Local anesthetics |
| Boxers, giant breed dogs, and ALL cats appear to have increased sensitivity to acepromazine | False |
| Which of the following statements regarding opioid drugs is true | Opioids are very potent analgesics |
| Which of the following are considered physiologic signs of pain | Increased heart rate |
| Endotracheal tubes manufactured from vinyl plastic are resistant to cracking and typically come fitted with low volume, high pressure cuffs | False |
| Which of the following statements regarding cycloheximide dissociative agents is NOT true | Easily reversed using competitive antagonists |
| The standard "triple drip" protocol for equine patients contains which combination of drugs | Xylazine, ketamine, guaifenesin |
| Which of the following statements would NOT be considered a desirable characteristic of constant rate infusion (CRI) induction | CRI's are more labor intensive for veterinary staff and require special equipment |
| The combination of ketamine/diazepam, or Ket/Val can be used as an intramuscular (IM) induction agent | False |
| The MOST accurate way to confirm proper placement of a patient's ET tube is | Connect the ET tube to and ETCO2 monitor |
| When managing a patient's airway using a mask, the fresh gas (oxygen and inhalant anesthetic) is delivered closer to the patient's lungs than it is when using an ET tube. This decreases dead space and allows for lower oxygen flow rates to be utilized | False |
| Which of the following terms would NOT be necessary in order to perform endotracheal intubation | Anesthetic machine |
| ET tubes should be left in place longer in patients with respiratory compromise, as well as | Brachycephalics |
| You are monitoring a 5 year old FS DSH under anesthesia when you note that her systolic blood pressure is 70 mmHg. Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate response | Increase ("turn up") the anesthetic vaporizer setting |
| Which of the following is NOT a reason that patients are maintained on 100% oxygen after turning off the anesthetic vaporizer | None of these |
| Oxygen flowmeters which have a bobbin within the gauge, should be read from the point/tip of the bobbin | False |
| The EKG strip below was recorded at 50 mm/sec. What is the rhythm | Ventricular fibrillation |
| The EKG strip below was recorded at 50 mm/sec. What is the heart rate | 320 bpm |
| Desflurane requires a heated vaporizer due to its low boiling point | True |
| The EKG strip below was recorded at 25 mm/sec. What is the heart rate | 20 bpm |
| After turning off the vaporizer at the end of anesthetic procedure, how long should a NORMAL patient be maintained on 100% oxygen before disconnecting the ET tube from the anesthetic circuit | 5 minutes |
| When providing assisted ventilation/IPPV, which of the following statement is true | The pressure in the circuit should not exceed 20 cmH2O |
| Oxygen flowmeters which have a ball within the gauge, should be read from the top of the ball | False |
| There are several types and etiologies of shock. In which shock condition is it contraindicated to administer large volumes of intravenous fluids | Cardiogenic shock |
| Of the following statements regarding confirming ET tube placement, which is NOT true | You can confirm proper placement of the ET tube by palpation of two firm tubes in the animal's cervical region |
| Which drug below antagonizes midazolam | Flumaxenil |
| "General Anesthesia" starts at which stage of anesthesia | Stage III, Plane 2 |
| Anesthetic agents cause hypotension through all the following mechanisms EXCEPT | None of these |
| Anesthetic complications can occur from all of the following equipment failures EXCEPT | Properly inflated ET tube cuff |
| The primary disadvantage of circle rebreather systems is | Dead space |
| Which of the following drugs antagonizes ketamine | None of these |
| Which procedures can be performed on cattle using local using local anesthesia | Caesarean section, Left displaced abomasum repair, Right displaced abomasum repair, Partial caudectomy (tail amputation) |
| At this plane of anesthesia the patient experiences cardiovascular collapse and apnea. The pupils are fully dilated and unresponsive. The patient requires immediate resuscitation | Stage IV |
| A patient must be at a surgical plane of anesthesia in order for endotracheal intubation to be successful | False |
| This is a deep plane of anesthesia with significant cardiovascular and respiratory depression. The patient's pupillary light reflex is very sluggish to absent, the eyes are centrally located and skeletal muscle tone is greatly reduced | Stage III, Plane 3 |
| Which of the following are NOT effects of a-2 agonists | Increase in heart rate |
| What is the function of cranial nerve XII | Motor |
| Which cardiac valves cannot be auscultated over the left thoracic wall | Tricuspid |
Created by:
Scoots223