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ANS 378 Exam 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the treatment for enigma syndrome in leopard geckos? A) Treat with medication provided by a veterinarian B) Surgical intervention C) There is no treatment for leopard geckos, only supportive care D) Therapy to help with brain function | C) There is no treatment for leopard geckos, only supportive care |
| True or false: enigma syndrome symptoms only affect leopard geckos that display the enigma morph coloration. | False |
| True or false: if a dog is double homozygous with the MM alleles, it will absolutely have the defective traits. | False |
| In Australian Shepard breeding, which mating combination completely eliminates the chance of producing double merle (MM) puppies? A) Mm * Mm B) MM * mm C) Mm * mm D) MM * Mm | C) Mm * mm |
| Which type of inheritance best describes cryptorchidism? A) Dominant B) Recessive C) Polygenic D) Sex-linked | C) Polygenic |
| True or false: Environmental factors cannot influence the inheritance of cryptorchidism. | False |
| True or false: SMA in Maine Coon Cats is a dominant sex-linked trait. | False |
| True or false: There is no cure for SMA in Maine Coons. Maine Coons with SMA will need supportive care for the rest of their lives. | True |
| True or false: Loss of genetic diversity in cheetah's is contributed to by the cheetah's low homozygosity. | False |
| What is one major consequence of genetic bottleneck in the cheetah population? A) Increased genetic diversity and stronger immune system B) Reduced genetic variation leading to higher chances of inbreeding C) Greater ability to adapt quickly to environmental changes D) Complete prevention of genetic drift | B) Reduced genetic variation leading to higher chances of inbreeding |
| True or false: dSCC is a polygenic trait. | True |
| Which dog is at the highest risk for developing dSCC? A) Light colored dog with mutated MC1R and low KITLG copies B) Black coated dog with high KITLG copies C) A dog with lots of sun exposure | B) Black coated dog with high KITLG copies |
| True or false: Primary and secondary lymphangiectasia are causes of PLE. | True |
| Mutations in what genes cause PLN? A) KIRREL2 B) NPHS1 C) C-3PO D) A and B | D) A and B |
| In what breed of sheep did Spider Lamb Syndrome first present? A) Hampshire B) Shropshire C) Southdown D) Suffolk | D) Suffolk |
| True or false: A white face breed of sheep with no Suffolk or Hampshire parentage showing terrible leg structure is a likely candidate for a Spider Lamb Syndrome diagnosis. | False |
| True or false: Degenerative myelopathy mainly affects a dog's hind legs first. | True |
| True or false: Genetic testing can help reduce the spread of degenerative myelopathy in Corgis. | True |
| True or false: EJSCA symptoms can be observed by 4 weeks of age. | True |
| A foal inherits one copy of the EJSCA allele. What will be its phenotype? A) Affected B) Carrier with no clinical signs C) Severely ataxic D) Lethal | B) Carrier with no clinical signs |
| What part of the nervous system is primarily affected in EJSCA? | The spinal cord |
| Define degenerate in reference to amino acids | Degenerate is when one amino acid can be specified by more than one codon triplet |
| Define unambiguous in reference to amino acids | Unambiguous is when one codon triplet will only code for one amino acid |
| Recognize the general features that characterize the genetic code. Differentiate between these characteristics to get a better understanding of the code. | 1. Code is linear 2. Nucleotides are "letters" 3. The "words" within the code are in groups of three 4. The code is unambiguous 5. The code is degenerate 6. Code contains 1 "start" and 3 "stop" signals 7. Code is comma-less 8. Code does not overlap 9. Code is nearly universal |
| Explain a frameshift mutation | Gain or loss of a nucleotide should shift the reading frame. Hazzard also considers the insertion of a triplet a frameshift mutation |
| Describe a cell-free system and what the necessary components are for one | Def. In vitro protein synthesizing system that allows protein synthesis to happen outside of a living cell. Allows you to determine the percentage of amino acids in a DNA sequence based on the ratios of nitrogenous bases - Uses polynucleotide phosphorylase - Requires the same components needed for translation (tRNA, amino acids, ribosomes, enzyme like polymerase to phosphorylate), energy, and a mRNA |
| Describe the triplet binding assay. Explain how this helped to establish the coding dictionary and helped to characterize the genetic code. | Used ribosomes, and provided a 3 ribonucleotide sequence (codon). This "codon" attracts the appropriate tRNA "anticodon" - Directly assigned specific mRNA three-base sequences (codons) to their corresponding amino acids |
| Define the wobble hypothesis. | The third base of an mRNA codon can form non-standard base pairs with the first base of the tRNA anticodon, allowing one tRNA to recognize multiple codons |
| Define a nonsense mutation. | A mutation that alters the sequence to show a stop codon (UAG, UAA, and UGA) causing premature termination of the DNA sequence |
| Define a consensus sequence. | A common nucleotide sequence or amino acid found in highly conserved regions of DNA or RNA = promoter |
| Define introns and exons. | Introns: intervening sequences - In eukaryotes the introns can be excessive Exons: Expressed portion of the message Splicing: involved removing introns and rejoining exons |
| Define splicing and a spliceosome | RNA splicing is the essential genetic process in eukaryotes where non-coding sequences (introns) are removed from pre-mRNA and coding sequences (exons) are joined together to form mature mRNA for protein synthesis. The spliceosome is the massive, highly dynamic molecular machine composed of RNA and proteins that catalyzes this splicing reaction |
| Define a TATA box. | A conserved DNA sequence found in the core promoter region of genes, generally consisting of the sequence TATAAA |
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