Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
RAD202_Midterm
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| An AP axial cervical projection with accurate positioning demonstrates | 2. open intervertebral disk spaces. 3. the spinous processes aligned with the midline of the cervical bodies. |
| For a lateral cervical projection: | 1. CR is perpendicular to level of C4. 4. a 72-inch SID is used. |
| The vertebral body of C7 is not demonstrated on a lateral cervical projection. To demonstrate this cervical vertebra, | 1. take the image on expiration. 2. have the patient hold weights on each arm to depress the shoulders. 3. take a lateral cervicothoracic (swimmer’s) image. |
| For an AP thoracic projection, the: | 1. shoulders and the ASISs are positioned at equal distances from the IR. 2. hips and knees are flexed until the lower back is pressed against the imaging table. 4. tighter collimation to area of interest |
| For a swimmer’s view, it is essential to have a cephalic angle (3-5 degrees) to better visualize C7-T1 joint space? (T/F) | False |
| For a swimmer’s view, the patient’s left arm will be elevated, and the right arm depressed at their side. (T/F) | True |
| An optimal lateral thoracic vertebrae projection demonstrates all of the following except: | Posterior half of each thoracic vertebral body |
| A left lateral thoracic vertebrae projection demonstrating more than 0.5 inch (1.25 cm) of space between the posterior ribs | demonstrates rotation |
| Which spinal fracture occurs when the neck is subjected to extreme hyperextension? | Hangman’s |
| Which of the following fractures results in a comminuted vertebral body and often times results in neurological damage? | Teardrop Burst |
| This condition is the abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that can affect both males and females. | Scoliosis |
| Scheuermann Disease is characterized by a decrease in thoracic kyphosis (T/F) | False |
| Which of these pathologies of the spine is congenital? | Klippel-Feil Syndrome |
| _____ imaging allows the visualization of spinal alignment, ligament stability and shows the natural curvature of the spine. | Erect |
| How many cervical and thoracic vertebrae are there in total? | 19 |
| The cervical spine offers a convex curvature, while the thoracic spine is concave. (T/F) | False |
| This is the circular opening in which the spinal cord passes through. | vertebral foramen |
| These are lateral projections off the vertebrae where the pedicles and lamina join. | transverse processes |
| Which of these is NOT a joint of the spinal column? | Costochondral |
| Which projection of the cervical spine best demonstrates the articulation of the atlas and axis? | Open Mouth |
| What is the CR angulation for an AP axial view of the C-spine? | 15-20 degrees cephalic |
| What can the patient do during a T-spine exam to help reduce the curvature of the spine to better visualize the joint spaces? | Flex knees and hips |
| A herniated disk is when the fibrous outer portion of the intervertebral disk protrudes into the spinal canal. (T/F) | False |
| A swimmer's view can be done for both the c-spine and the t-spine. (T/F) | True |
| Klippel-Feil Syndrome mainly occurs in the cervical spine. (T/F) | True |
| For a lateral trauma c-spine, it is OK to remove the c-collar for cervical x-rays. (T/F) | False |
| These projections are done to demonstrate the vertebral mobility of the cervical spine. | Flexion/Extension |
| Anterior obliques of the cervical spine require what kind of central ray angulation? | Caudal |
| What is a key feature of the thoracic vertebrae? | they have articulating facets for the ribs |
| What anatomical structure appears slightly magnified on a swimmer's projection? | right humeral head |
| The intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine are located at an angle of _____ in relation to the midsagittal plane. | 90 degrees |
| The superior and anterior projecting bony process of the sacrum that forms part of the inlet and articulates with L5 is the: | promontory of the sacrum |
| Which specific aspect of the sacrum articulates with the ilium to form the sacroiliac joint? | auricular surface |
| What is the term for the superior aspect of the coccyx? | base |
| What is the joint classification of the zygapophyseal joints? | Synovial/diarthrodial |
| The intervertebral joints in the lumbar spine are classified as: | cartilaginous/amphiarthrodial |
| Why should the hips and knees be flexed for an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the lumbar spine? | Both for patient comfort and to reduce the lumbar curvature |
| What type of CR angulation is required for an AP axial projection of the coccyx? | 10-degree caudal |
| The radiographic appearance on an oblique lumbar spine in which the neck of the Scottie dog appears “broken” suggests the presence of: | Spondylolysis |
| A destructive type of lesion with irregular margins and increased brightness is an indication of possible: | osteolytic type of metastases |
| A fracture through the vertebral body and posterior elements caused by lap seat belts during an auto accident involving sudden deceleration is a ____ fracture. | Chance |
| An anterior wedging of vertebrae with a loss of body height but rarely causing neurologic symptoms is called: | a compression fracture |
| Sciatic type of pain resulting from a “slipped disk” indicates: | herniated nucleus pulposus |
| An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is a congenital condition termed: | Scoliosis |
| What CR angle should be used for a lateral sacrum/coccyx projection? | None. CR is perpendicular to the image receptor |
| Which of the following fractures is due to a hyperflexion force injury? | Chance |
| How much obliquity of the body is required for posterior oblique (LPO/RPO) positions for the sacroiliac joints? | 25 to 30 degrees |
| A radiograph of the left sacroiliac joint demonstrates it open and clearly seen. How was the patient positioned to obtain this view? | RPO |
| The “nose” of the Scottie dog represents the spinous process of a lumbar vertebra. (T/F) | False |
| The LPO position for sacroiliac joints will best demonstrate the right joint. | True |
| The nose of the Scottie Dog correlates to what anatomical structure? | Transverse process |
| It is OK to have the patient flex their hips and knees 90 degrees for an AP axial view of the sacrum. (T/F) | False |
| A Scottie Dog is created when the body is rotated ______ degrees. | 45 |
| What purpose do the sacral foramina have? | transmit blood vessels and nerves |
| The sacrum has two ala, just like the pelvis. (T/F) | True |
| The intervertebral foramina are formed at a 45 degree oblique, while the zygapophyseal joints are formed at a 90 degree oblique (lateral). | False |
| The liver is located primarily in the ____ of the abdomen. | RUQ |
| The main function of bile is to: | emulsify fats |
| Where is bile produced? | Liver |
| Which of the following functions is performed by the gallbladder? | Storage of bile Concentration of bile Contraction and release of bile when stimulated |
| “Chole-” is a prefix for terms pertaining to the: | bile |
| Saliva contains certain enzymes to begin the digestion of: | starches |
| The act of swallowing is termed: | Deglutition |
| Which of the following structures is one of the salivary glands? | Parotid Sublingual Submandibular |
| The esophagus is located ____ to the trachea. | Posterior |
| Which two forces or processes propel food down the esophagus? | Peristalsis and gravity |
| Which of the following is a main subdivision of the stomach? | Fundus Body Pylorus |
| What is the term for the longitudinal mucosal folds found within the stomach? | Rugae |
| Once food enters the stomach and is mixed with gastric secretions, it is termed: | chyme |
| Which of the following substances is not digested chemically? | Minerals |
| A high and transverse stomach would be found in a(n) ____ patient. | Hypersthenic |
| What is the classification of barium sulfate as a contrast media? | Radiopaque |
| Which one of the cardinal principles of radiation protection is most effective in reducing the dose to the technologist during fluoroscopy? | Distance |
| Protective aprons worn during fluoroscopy must possess at least ____ mm lead equivalency (Pb/Eq.). | 0.5 |
| A large outpouching of the proximal esophagus above the upper esophageal sphincter is termed: | Zenker diverticulum |
| Achalasia is generally defined as: | motor disorder of the esophagus |
| What is a potential risk associated with the use of water-soluble contrast agents, such as barium sulfate? | Dehydration |
| Patient preparation for an esophagogram includes NPO _____ before the procedure. | None of the options; patient preparation is not needed as long as an upper GI series is not scheduled to follow |
| Most esophagograms begin with the patient: | Upright |
| Why would a patient undergo Valsalva maneuver during an esophagogram? | To demonstrate possible esophageal reflux |
| Patient preparation for an adult upper GI series includes: | NPO 8 hours before the procedure. |
| How much obliquity is required for the RAO position for the esophagus? | 35 to 40 degrees |
| The liver performs more than 100 different physiologic functions. (T/F) | True |
| Swallowed air can be used as a negative-contrast medium during an upper GI series. (T/F) | True |
| In a patient with esophageal varices, the veins in the wall of the proximal esophagus are dilated. | False |
| Which part of the small intestine has a feathery appearance when filled with barium? | Jejunum |
| Which part of the small intestine is the shortest? | Duodenum |
| Which part of the large intestine is located between the rectum and the descending colon? | Sigmoid colon |
| What is the term for the bands of muscle that pull the large intestine into pouches? | Taenia coli |
| Which of the following conditions may produce the “cobblestone” or “string” sign? | Crohn’s disease |
| When are small bowel series deemed to be complete? | Once the contrast media passes the ileocecal valve |
| The patient must be NPO a minimum of ____ hours before the small bowel series. | 8 |
| A twisting of the intestine or colon is termed: | Volvulus |
| A telescoping, or invagination, of one part of the intestine into another is termed: | Intussusception |
| At what stage of respiration should the enema tip be inserted into the rectum? | During expiration |
| During the initial enema tip insertion, the tip is aimed: | toward the umbilicus |
| Why is the posteroanterior (PA) rather than the AP projection recommended for a small bowel series? | Better separation of loops of small intestine |
| The height of the enema bag must be set at 40 inches (100 cm) above the radiographic table at the onset of the study. (T/F) | False |
| Which of the following is caused by a parasite within the small intestine? | Giardiasis |
| Celiac disease is the malabsorption of what insoluble substance? | Gluten |
| What will you utilize FIRST when draining barium sulfate from a patient's large bowel during a BE exam? | Gravity |
| What position is the patient in during a BE tip insertion? | Sims |
| Barium sulfate is a negative-contrast agent. (T/F) | False |
| When performing a small bowel series, the following are required: | 1. Noting the Times 2. Using radiopaque markers on images |
| Which exam allows us to see the functionality of intestines? | Small bowel series |
| What are the involuntary wavelike contractions of the intestines? | Peristalsis |
| Which of the following are the fingerlike projections that are found within the jejunum? | Villi |
| Ascending colon - ___________ - Transverse colon - __________ Descending colon | Hepatic flexure / Splenic flexure |
| An abnormal opening in the stomach or intestines that allows the contents to leak out into another part of the body are called: | fistulas |
| The average adult kidney measures ____ in length. | 4-5 inches |
| Some of the functions of the urinary system: | Regulating the acid-base and electrolyte balance Regulating water levels in tissues Removing nitrogenous wastes |
| What is the total capacity of the average adult bladder? | 350 to 500 mL |
| What occurs in many patients and is defined as an expected outcome to the introduction of iodinated contrast media? | Metallic taste in mouth and a temporary hot flash |
| What symptom is classified as “mild” during a systematic contrast media reaction? | Itching |
| What is the correct course of action for the technologist when, during an injection of contrast media, a patient experiences a side effect of mild hot flashes and some metallic taste in his mouth? | Reassure the patient and continue the injection and imaging sequence while observing the patient for a possible more severe reaction to follow. |
| The rapid introduction of contrast agents into the vascular system is termed: | bolus injection |
| In preparation for a venipuncture, a tourniquet should be applied ____ above or proximal to the site of injection. | 3 to 4 inches |
| Extravasation is classified as a local reaction. (T/F) | True |
| The bevel of the needle must be facing downward during the actual puncture into a vein. (T/F) | False |
| Inflammation of the bladder is termed | Cystitis |
| An obstructive disorder of the urinary system that causes distention of the renal pelvis and calyces with urine is: | Hydronephrosis |
| Kidney function is generally unimpaired with a horseshoe kidney. (T/F) | True |
| This pathology appears as a "bundle of grapes." | Polycystic Kidney Disease |
| Cystitis occurs more often in men than women (T/F) | False |
| The kidneys lie halfway between the __________ and __________. | xiphoid process / iliac crest |
| The bladder consists of what type of tissue? | Transitional epithelium |
| Venipuncture is not within our scope of practice and an additional degree is required to perform. (T/F) | False |
| An 18 gauge needle is bigger than a butterfly needle. (T/F) | True |
| Proper handwashing technique goes in which order? | Wet hands, apply plain soap and rub hands together |
| Which of the following is the opacifying agent used for urinary studies? | Iodine |
| What type of reaction affects the entire body? | Systemic |
| The inability to void is also known as: | Retention |
| An agent that increases the excretion of urine is: | Diuretic |
| An Intravenous Urogram study is a true functional study of the urinary system (T/F) | True |
| Patient prep for an IVU study | Light evening meal before procedure Bowel-cleansing laxative Enema the morning of the procedure |
| All reasons why a patient should void before an IVU exam EXCEPT: | 2. Prevent retroflow of urine back into ureters 4. Allows better filtration of the kidneys |
| A radiograph taken within the first minute after contrast injection is known as a: | Nephrogram |
| How much obliquity should the LPO and RPO be done at? | 30 degrees |
| Which disorder is caused by pus-forming bacteria? | Pyelonephritis |
Created by:
jetsetjes