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Final Med 232

QuestionAnswer
The part of the optical microscope that concentrates the light being directed through the sample is the Condenser
Which laboratory test uses samples of whole blood to identify problems with the count, size, or shape of blood cells that could indicate disease? hematologic test
Which of the following is characteristic of an oil-immersion objective? It is used for specimens the need very high magnification.
Which of the following support and position the specimen and prevent contamination of the microscope by the specimen? Coverslip and slide
Which of the following measures light intensity and is a basic electronic component of many pieces of analytic laboratory equipment? Photometer
Which of the following types of tests may be performed in a physician’s office laboratory (POL) or as point-of-care tests (POCT) if a Certificate of Waiver has been granted? erythrocyte sedimentation rate and urinalysis
Laboratories that perform moderate-complexity tests Must be run by a pathologist
What is the name for the eyepiece of the optical microscope through which an image is viewed? ocular
The iris of the optical microscope is A diaphragm that open and closes to change the amount of light illuminating the specimen
When testing specimens that may be contaminated with blood-borne or other pathogens, which of the following would apply? Avoid working when you have cuts, lesions, or sore on your hands.
Which of the following is used to measure small amounts of liquids and can be either mechanical or manual? Pipette
Which part of an optical microscope is the platform on which the specimen slide rests? Stage
Sterilization, or eradication of all organisms on the surface of instruments and equipment before they can be used on patients or in a procedure, is performed by a(n) Autoclave
Certificate of Waiver tests are classified as such if they pose an insignificant risk to the patient if they are performed or interpreted incorrectly
As a medical assistant, you may be responsible for processing tests done in the physician’s office laboratory (POL), including Collecting the sample, preparing the patient for the test, reporting the results to the physician, and completing the rest.
The optical microscopes used in physicians' office laboratories usually have ________blank objectives. Three
Which of the following was created in response to public concern over the accuracy of laboratory testing? Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988
Number 10 on this microscope is the ________blank, which contains the condenser and iris. Substage
Which of the following is an advantage of a point-of-care test (POCT)? The POCT can help to monitor the patient's condition after a diagnosis is made.
Which of the following is included in the guidelines for Standard Precautions? Wear eye protection and face masks when there is a risk that droplets or spray may come in contact with your eyes, nose, or mouth.
Which of the following is designed to be lowered into a drop of immersion oil placed directly above the prepared specimen under examination? Oil-immersion objective
Which of the following is an advantage of completing laboratory tests in the physician’s office laboratory (POL)? Turnaround time is faster for finding out results.
A device for spinning a specimen at high speed until it separates into its component parts is a centrifuge
Mr. Pierce arrived for his scheduled blood test at 10:00 this morning. When you asked if he followed instructions and fasted since midnight, he proudly states that he hasn't had anything "except my morning coffee." What should you do? Inform the physician to determine whether the blood still can be collected.
A pap smear used to detect cervical cancer is sent to which department of a reference laboratory? Cytology
Which characteristic of control samples is similar to that of a standard? They are specimens like those taken from a patient and have known values.
Number 12 on this microscope is the Light source
Where are the focus controls on a microscope located? arm
A quality assurance program is designed to monitor the quality of patient care a medical laboratory provides.
Which of the following uses light, concentrated through a condenser and focused through the object being examined, to project an image? Optical microscope
An infection caused by a parasite is called a(n) Infestation
What is the shape of streptococci bacteria? chains
Which of the following is commonly found in renal disease, in pregnant patients, or after heavy exercise? proteinuria
Which of the following is a parasitic disease? Scabies
Which of the following is characteristic of resident normal flora? They are normally found on the skin and within the human body
Which of the following can weaken the body's ability to fight infection? Cancer treatment
Which of the following is characteristic of a subcellular microorganism? Noncellular structure in which the nucleic acid is surronded by a protein coat
Beneficial bacteria found in the body that perform functions such as producing vitamins are called normal flora
Which of the following are characteristics of viruses? They cannot be seen with a regular microscope
Increased specific gravity occurs in urinary tract infection (UTI)
Which of the following is an organism that lives on or in another organism and uses that other organism for its nourishment, or for some other advantage, to the detriment of the host organism? Parasite
On average a healthy adult’s daily urine output, with an adequate fluid intake, is ________blank mL per 24 hours. 1250
Which of the following statements is true about patient collection of a stool sample? The sample must not be contaminated with urine
What is the name of a solution of a dye or group of dyes that imparts a distinctive color to microorganisms? Statin
Facultative bacteria are bacteria that Grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
Which of the following is a measure of the degree of acidity or alkalinity of the urine? Urinary pH
Which of the following are frequently associated with vaginitis, urethritis, and prostatitis? yeast cells
Which of the following would you include when measuring specific gravity with a refractometer? Turn on the light and look into the eyepiece to measure refraction
If the practitioner suspects that a patient has a protozoal or parasitic infection, what type of specimen may be ordered? O&P specimen
Which of the following is the most common staining procedure, which differentiates bacteria according to the chemical composition of their cell walls? Gram statin
Normal urine color ranges from pale yellow to yellow
The bacteria pictured here are classified as (Long strands, yellow) bacilli
Which of the following are examples of diseases caused by viruses? Chickenpox, hepatitis, and influenza
Intermediary products of fat and protein metabolism in the body are Ketone bodies
Hematuria is blood in the urine
Chemical and microscopic changes that invalidate a urine specimen occur if the urine is kept at room temperature for more than 1 hour
Which of the following types of bacteria are responsible for gastroenteritis, tuberculosis, whooping cough, botulism, and tetanus? bacilli
Which of the following cause eye disease, venereal disease, and a form of pneumonia? chlamydiae
Which of the following reproduce by budding? yeasts
Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells? They are simply structured with a single chromosome and no organelles
Which of the following are bacteria that grow best in the presence of oxygen? aerobes
A sample of a specimen that is placed in or on a substance that allows microorganisms to grow is a culture
Diplococci bacteria are responsible for causing gonorrhea and some forms of meningitis
When the practitioner suspects that a patient has a protozoal or parasitic infection, what is the minimum number of stool specimens that need to be examined? 3
What disorder is a complication of a strep infection manifested by inflammation of the heart tissue? Rheumatic fever
Which of the following microorganisms cause infections such as strep throat, certain types of pneumonia, and rheumatic fever? Streptococci
The genus that causes tuberculosis and leprosy is Mycobacterium
The acid-fast staining procedure is a Procedure for identifying bacertia with a waxy cell wall
The spiral-shaped bacterium pictured here is classified as a Spirillum
Which of the following measures the concentration of substances dissolved in urine? Specific gravity
A microorganism capable of causing disease is a Pathogen
Bacteria are most commonly classified according to their shape
Which of the following is the most common urinary parasite? Trichomoniasis vaginalis
An example of a subcellular microorganism is a virus
The liquid portion from the tube of urine that is discarded down the drain after the centrifuge stops is called the Supernatant
Which of the following are present in large amounts in the urine if inflammation is present? White blood cells
After she returns to the exam room and you go into the restroom to collect the specimen, you notice the three towelette packages, unopened, in the trashcan. What should you do? Inform the physician or your supervisor and ask whether you should process the sample
Which of the following is important in processing a urine specimen for microscopic examination of sediment? After the cnetrifuge stops, discard most of the supernatant from the tube.
Renal or urethral obstruction and renal failure can cause anuria
Which of the following microorganisms cause diseases that are a leading cause of death in developing countries because of lack of proper sanitation? Protozoans
What is the arrhythmia pictured here? PVCs
Which of the following is the process by which a graphic pattern is created from the electrical impulses generated in the heart as it pumps? electrocardiography
If a patient is uncomfortable lying flat on the examining table for an ECG test, he can be placed in the Fowler's position
The time it takes for electrical impulses to travel from the SA node to the AV node is the P-R interval
How do you prepare patients for spirometry? Have them wear a nose clip
The ________blank send(s) out electrical impulses to initiate depolarization. SA node
Which communication would alleviate a patient’s anxiety about having an electrocardiography? Encourage the patient to ask questions and verbalize her concerns
The ECG equipment has been moved around the corner to the room next to the X-ray room. When you begin your first patient ECG of the day, the tracing looks as shown in the figure. What problem is present and how can you fix it? AC interference; move the ECG equipment to a room farther from other electric equipment.
How is the heart rate from a regular ECG tracing determined? Multiply the number of QRS complexes in a 6-second strip by 10.
The electrical impulses responsible for the cardiac cycle that appear on an electrocardiogram as peaks and valleys are called Deflections
Mr. Potter, a 72-year-old patient who has Parkinson's disease. Knowing this, you automatically place the limb electrodes close to the trunk. However, the tracing looks as shown in the picture. What artifact is present and what can you do to fix it? Somatic intefernce; wait until Mr. Potter's tremors subside
Possible causes for a wandering baseline are Poor skin preparation, dangling wire, or improper application of electrodes.
Which of the following refers to the contraction of the ventricles following depolarization? QRS complex
Which of the following can prevent a wandering baseline? Be sure the skin is prepared adequately
When a PVC appears on the ECG, which wave is missing? P
Which of the following is used to assess the electrical activity of a patient's heart over a 24-hour period of normal activity? Ambulatory monitoring
Which of the following is an erroneous mark or defect that may appear on an ECG strip? Artifact
Which of the following measures the patient's response to a constant or increasing workload? Exercise ECG
The different views recorded on an electrocardiogram that are produced by the electrical activity of the heart are Leads
Where does the transmission of electrical impulses in the heart begin? SA node
Which of the following dysrhythmias is due to a heartbeat originating in the ventricles that occurs early in the cycle and is followed by a pause before the next cycle? PVCs
The dysrhythmia in which P waves cannot be identified because of rapid multiple electrical signals that fire from areas of the atria other than the SA node is known as Atrial fibrillation
Pulmonary function tests are useful in monitoring which condition? Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Electrodes for limb leads should be attached to fleshy portions of the limbs
Which of the following is a measurement taken to determine the amount of air that can be quickly forced from the lungs? peak expiratory flow rate
Which of the following represents the time it takes for the ventricles to contract and recover, or repolarize? Q-T interval
Which of the following is the electrical impulse that initiates a chain reaction resulting in contraction? depolarization
How is somatic interference on an ECG tracing prevented? Remind the patient to lie still and to refrain for talking
Electrical impulse sensors used to obtain an electrocardiogram are called Electrodes
Which precordial electrode is placed in the fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum? V2
The arrhythmia pictured here is Has QRS complex but no other ones Atrial fibrillation
Which precordial electrode is located by counting to the fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum? V1
None of the wires are loose. However, you notice that Mrs. Thomas's skin smells fragrant, as though she has used a body lotion recently. Which of the following describes the problem, its possible cause, and the correct solution? Wandering baseline caused by lotion on the skin; re-prep the skin with isopropyl alcohol
Which of the following represents the time between contraction of the ventricles and recovery? S-T segment
Which of the following is a small upward curve that represents the sinoatrial node impulse, wave of depolarization through the atria, and resultant contraction? P wave
Which of these is a component of an acceptable maneuver for spirometry? Minimum of 6 seconds
You begin the tracing, as shown in the picture. Although Gillian remains still, when she sees the look on your face, she asks, "What's wrong?" What abnormality is visible in lead V6, and what is your best choice of action? Flat line; look for loose or disconnected wires
Which test is utilized to measure the heart’s conduction system during exercise, when the demand for oxygen is increased? Stress testing
An instrument used to measure the air taken in by and expelled from the lungs is the spirometer
AC interference can be prevented by Making sure lead wires are not corssed and following the contour of the body
Which of the following would be included in the patient’s instructions regarding ambulatory monitoring? Instrucut the pt. to record all activites, emotions, symptoms, and medications taken.
The deflections that occur on an ECG are labeled with the letters P, Q, R, S, T, and U
Which of the following delays the electrical impulse for muscle contraction, giving the atria time to contract completely and fill the ventricles with blood? AV node
Which of the following is appropriate when preparing the room and equipment for an electrocardiogram? Select a room away from all other electrical equipment
The instrument that measures and displays the electrical impulses responsible for the cardiac cycle is a(n) Electrocardiograph
What score on a DXA scan measures the amount of bone the person has compared to that of young adults? T score
The diagnostic procedure that directs high-frequency sound waves through the skin over the area of the body being examined and produces an image based on the echoes is called Ultrasound
Which diagnostic procedure requires the patient to avoid eating fish before the procedure? Thyroid uptake and scan
Which of the following should be included in the instructions given to a patient who is going to have a closed machine MRI? Explain that the tbale will be place inside a long, narrow tube about 22 inches in diameter and that he will hear a loud knocking noise as the machine scans.
Which of the following evaluates the condition of the myocardium through the use of a gamma camera that allows the physician to measure ventricular contractions? MUGA scan
Which of the following foods are included in a clear liquid diet? Black coffee, tea, and bouillon
Which nuclear medicine scan requires the patient to take a capsule of contrast medium on the first day of the scan and then return 24 hours later for a second scan? Thyroid uptake and scan
Which of these is not a benefit of digital radiology? Increased exposure to radiation
Which of the following is used to treat cancer by preventing cellular reproduction? Radiation therapy
Teresa, a 24-year-old gynecologic patient, is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound at 10:00 AM on Thursday.Which of the following instructions should Teresa be given? Drink three or four glasses of water, without voiding, within 1 hour of the test.
The supervisor at your radiology clinic has asked you to conduct a session for new employees on the topic "Reducing Exposure to Radiation." Which of the following ideas would you include in your teaching? Use appropriate lead shielding when taking X-rays.
Which diagnostic procedure uses a gamma camera to detect signals induced by gamma radiation to locate and determine the extent of brain damage from a stroke? SPECT
When teaching the patient about X-ray safety, you should Ask the patient about prior exposure and encourgae him to keep a record of past exams
Which of the following is important in the proper handling and storage of X-rays? Keep all X-ray films at a temperature between 50-70 F
The entire body may be scanned for "hot spots" or places where the radioisotope is concentrated, in which procedure? Nuclear medicine scan
Prior to a CT scan with contrast, you should Ask the patient if he has allergies to the contrast media, iodine, or shellfish
For which diagnostic procedure would it be important for you to ask if the patient is a metalworker? MRI
Which of the following procedures is safe to use in obstetrics to evaluate the developing fetus or to detect multiple fetuses, because it does not expose the patient or the fetus to radiation? Ultrasound
Which of the following is a communications protocol or standard for handling, storing, printing, and transmitting information in medical imaging? DICOM
Which procedure performed by a radiologist evaluates the function of the bile ducts? Cholangiography
Which of the following is characteristic of nuclear medicine? The technician uses a scanner to detect radiation from the radioisotope and converts it into an image
In which diagnostic procedure does the practitioner perform a lumbar puncture, remove some cerebrospinal fluid, and instill a contrast medium to evaluate spinal abnormalities? Myelography
A dosimeter is a radiation exposure badge that registers the levels of radiation to which a medical staff member is exposed.
The medical assistant should instruct women not to wear eye makeup when having which diagnostic procedure because eye makeup often contains metallic ingredients. MRI
In which procedure does the X-ray camera rotate completely around the patient on a special table while the computer compiles one cross-sectional view from each rotation of the camera? CT scan
Which screening test, often called bone densitometry, uses small doses of X-rays to determine the mineral density of a patient’s bones? dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry
Nuclear medicine also is known as radionuclide imaging
The diagnostic procedure performed by a radiologist, who injects the contrast medium through a urethral catheter and then takes a series of X-rays to evaluate the function of the ureters, bladder, and urethra, is a(n) retrograde pyelography
When assisting with an IVP, the medical assistant should Instruct the pt. to tell the physician if she becomes short of breath or experiences itching
Which diagnostic procedure is an X-ray examination of the internal breast tissues? mammography
Which part of a prescription includes the name of the drug and the amount? Inscription
Examples of analgesics are Tylenol, aspirin, MS Contin, and Oxycontin
Which of the following drugs are examples of anticoagulants? Lovenox, heparin sodium, and Coumadin
The trade name of a drug also is known as the brand or proprietary name
As of June 2015, medications for drug use in pregnancy are typically in which of the following categories? Females and Males of Reproductive Potential
Which of the following is the study of how drugs are used to treat disease? pharmacotherapeutics
Which of the following is the action of an antiemetic? prevents or relieves nausea and vomiting
The action of an analgesic is to relieve mild to severe pain
Which of the following is the purpose or reason for using a drug? indication
Which drug is derived from a mineral source? potassium chloride
Which part of the prescription contains patient instructions? Transcription
Which of the following refers to the study of characteristics of natural drugs and their sources? pharmacognosy
Johnny is a 9-year-old patient who has an upper respiratory infection. He is coughing, sneezing, and has a temperature of 102.4°F.To what category does Benadryl belong, and which symptoms will it ease? antihistamine; relieves sneezing
The category of pharmacologic activity for furosemide is Diuretic
Tums and Prevacid are examples of antacids
Which drug category normalizes the heartbeat in certain cases of cardiac arrhythmias? antiarrhythmic
When a manufacturer produces a new drug, no other manufacturer can make or sell the drug for ________blank years. 17
The study of poisons or the poisonous effects of drugs is which of the following? toxicology
The action of antihypertensive drugs is to reduce blood pressure
Her sister once had a bad reaction to an anesthetic, and Arlene thinks the same thing could happen to her. Which of the following nonpharmacologic methods of pain management might be used for her surgery? acupuncture
Antitussives and antidiarrheals that contain small amounts of opioids, such as codeine, belong to which schedule of controlled substances? Schedule V
The action of an antacid is to neutralize the stomach acid
Which of the following is the action of an anesthetic? It prevents the sensation of pain.
Which of the following is the proper way to dispose of outdated, noncontrolled drugs? use a disposal company that destroys biohazardous waste
Which of the following approves and regulates the manufacture and distribution of drugs? FDA
In which method of parenteral medication administration is the medication injected within the upper layers of the skin? intradermal
Medications administered via the intravenous route are absorbed within 15 to 30 seconds
Which of the following is included when administering a liquid medication? Hold the medicine at eye level, with the palm over the label, and pour the correct amount of the medication.
Which of the following patients would require special consideration related to medication administration? a 75-year-old gentleman with early Alzheimer's
Which of the following is included when reconstituting and drawing a medication for injection? Puncture the diaphragm of the vial of diluent with the needle and inject the air into the vial.
Which method of medication administration requires passing a urinary catheter into the bladder to instill a drug? Urethral
In which of the following methods of medication administration are medications placed in the mouth but do not continue along the GI tract? buccal
What should the medical assistant tell the patient about interactions? Drug-drug interactions can lead to adverse reactions.
Which of the following actions can help reduce a child's anxiety when you give the child an injection? Distract the child by talking to her while you give the injection.
If you administer an incorrect medication, what should you do FIRST? If you administer an incorrect medication, what should you do FIRST? If you administer an incorrect medication, what should you do FIRST? Report it to the licensed practitioner
Which of the following instructions is correct when teaching the patient how to take a medication sublingually? Do not eat until after the medication has dissolved.
Which of these needles has the smallest diameter? 25-gauge
Which of the following is a small glass or plastic container that is sealed to keep its contents sterile? ampule
Intradermal injections are used to administer which of the following? allergy or TB test
You are providing patient education on a medication for an 11-year-old boy. You should direct your teaching to the boy and his parents
Which of the following is a small bottle with a rubber diaphragm that can be punctured by a needle? vial
A medication that is given intravenously is injected or infused into a vein
Which medication is used to treat an anaphylactic reaction to a medication? epinephrine
The licensed practitioner has determined that Juanita has bacterial pneumonia and has asked you to administer Bicillin C-R intramuscularly. Juanita is 34 years old and weighs 145 pounds. What is the appropriate needle length for this injection? 1 to 1 1/2 inches
Which of the following is correct about medication documentation? document immediately after administering the medication to the patient
Created by: Kimberly-dm05
 

 



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