____ is the most common type of precocious puberty and is due to activation of GnRH in the hypothalamus

central precocious puberty (CPP)

___ are the antithyroid drugs used to treat hyperthyroidism

propylthiouracil (PTU) and methimazole (tapazole)

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Peds Final Exam

Question	Answer
the ____ system controls and regulates metabolic processess	endocrine
chemical substances (messengers) released by endocrine glands into the blood stream that exerts a physiologic controlling affect on other cells are known as ____	hormones
the ___ gland is responsible for regulating other glands and is controlled by hormones secreted by the hypothalamus	pituitary
the pituitary gland consists of two lobes, the ____ and ____	anterior and posterior
a rare condition that causes the loss of all anterior pituitary hormones is known as ____	panhypopituitarism
a condition that inhibits somatic growth in all cells of the body and is often caused by a tumor in the pituitary gland or hypothalamus is known as ____	growth hormone deficiency
patients performing a GH stimulation study may become ____ and therefore ____ should be kept on hand	hypoglycemic, glucagon
GH deficiency is treated with _____ or removal of the tumor	biosynthetic GH injections
biosynthetic GH injections should be given at _____ and are very ____	bedtime, expensive
biosynthetic GH injections must be kept in the ___	refrigerator
children with ____ attain their eventful adult height at a slower rate compared to their peers	growth hormone deficiency
sexual development before age 9 in boys and 6/7 in girls is known as ____	precocious puberty
____ is the most common type of precocious puberty and is due to activation of GnRH in the hypothalamus	central precocious puberty (CPP)
there are ___ types of precocious puberty	3
central precocious puberty (CPP) is treated with ____ which slows prepubertal growth to normal rates	lupron depot
____ treatment is discontinued at the age at which normal pubertal changes would resume	lupron depot
____ age should guide activities, dress, and responsibilities for children in precocious puberty	chronological
the ___ secrete thyroid hormones (T3 and T4)	thyroid
hormones __ and __ burn calories regulate how fast new cells replace old cells regulate how fast food is digested stimulate the sympathetic nervous system regulate body temp regulate HR and BP regulate TSH	T3 and T4
a ___ is hypertrophy of the thyroid gland causing the thyroid to produce too much or too little T3 and T4	goiter
a ___ goiter usually results from maternal ingestion of antithyroid drugs during pregnancy	congential
thyroid enlargement at birth can compromise the newborn's ___	airway
___ is one of the most common endocrine problems of childhood	juvenile hypothyroidism
___ is the most common cause of thyroid disease in children and causes chronic autoimmune thyroiditis	hashimoto's
decelerated growth myxedematous skin changes constipation sleepiness mental decline easy weight gain cold intolerance are all signs of ____	hypothyroidism
___ is a life threatening condition where the body starts to shut down	shock
hyperthyroid patients are very sensitive to ___	opioids
___ is the drug used to treat hypothyroidism	levothyroxine (synthroid)
___ should be taken in the morning before meals, without food and should NOT be stopped abruptly	levothyroxine (synthroid)
___ is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in chilodhood	grave's disease
exophthalmos is the telltale sign of ___	grave's disease
exophthalmos increased HR and BP weight loss heat intolerance irritability and emotional liability hyperactivity short attention span hyperactivity insomnia diarrhea are all signs of ____	hyperthyroidism
___ are the antithyroid drugs used to treat hyperthyroidism	propylthiouracil (PTU) and methimazole (tapazole)
take these meds at the same time each day, do not stop abruptly and avoid iodine-rich foods	hyperthyroidism drugs
activity should be limited with a quiet environment and rest periods for patient's with ___	hyperthyroidism
___ may occur from the sudden release of TH hormone resulting ins a thyroid crisis or "storm"	thyrotoxicosis
antithyroid drugs, propranolol, and cooling blankets are all used to treat ____	a thyroid storm
acute severe irritability restlessness vomiting diarrhea hyperthermia hypertension severe tachycardia seizures coma are all signs of ___	thyrotoxicosis
the ___ secretes 3 groups of steroids	adrenal cortex
___, also known as "stress hormone" helps the body deal with stress by increasing blood glucose	cortisol
__ regulates blood pressure, retains sodium and secretes potassium	aldosterone
___ is a characteristic group of manifestations caused by excessive circulating free cortisol	cushing's
___ is caused by an excessive or prolonged steroid therapy and is usually reversible once steroids are discontinued	cushing's syndrome
tumors on the adrenal gland or pituitary gland is known as ____	cushing's disease
steroids should be given in the ___ to mimic normal cortisol secretions	morning
excessive hair growth moon face, red cheeks weight gain central obesity pendulous abdomen with red striae poor wound heeling and easy bruising hypertension hyperglycemia are all signs of ____	cushing's syndrome
a principal disorder of the posterior pituitary gland that results from under secretion of ADH is known as ____	diabetes insipidus
ADH is also known as ___	vasopressin
uncontrolled diuresis is a sign of ___	diabetes insipidus
diabetes insipidus may be an early sign of ___	an evolving cerebral process
the cardinal signs of diabetes insipidus are ___	polyuria and polydipsia
dehydration decreased skin turgor hypotension hypernatremia weight loss tachycardia dry mucous membranes very dilute urine are all signs of ___	diabetes insipidus
diabetes insipidus is treated with the daily hormone replacement ___	DDAVP (desmopressin)
___ is produced by over secretion of the posterior pituitary causing diminished water elimination	SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone)
low sodium puts patient's at risk for ___	cerebral edema
fluid overload hypertension tachycardia confusion seizures anorexia low urine output hyponatremia are all signs of ___	SIADH
restrict fluids for patients with ____	SIADH
___ is the most common endocrine disorder of childhood	diabetes mellitus
blood glucose levels should be ___	< 120
hemoglobin A1C levels should be __	< 7.5
hyperventilation characteristic of metabolic acidosis, resulting from the respiratory systems attempt to eliminate CO2 by increasing depth and rate is known as ____	kussmaul respirations
in ___ glucose is unavailable for cellular metabolism so the body breaks down fats and releases ketones	DKA
decreased alertness deep rapid breathing dry skin and mouth flushed face frequent urination or thirst that lasts for days or more fruity-smelling breath headache muscle stiffness or aches nausea and vomiting stomach pain are all signs of ___	DKA
the most common cardiac anomaly is ___	ventral septal defect (VSD)
infants with fetal alcohol syndrome have a ____ chance of having a congenital heart disease	50%
infants of diabetic mothers have a ___ chance of having congenital heart disease	10%
poor feedings tachypnea tachycardia diaphoresis crackles hepatomegaly cyanosis murmur are all signs of ____	CHD
a hole in the atrial septum or failure of the foramen ovale to close is known as ___	atrial septal defect (ASD)
ASD increased the risk for ___	stroke
a hole in the ventral septum is known as ____	ventral septal defect (VSD)
the signs and symptoms of VSD show up at around ____ months of life	1-3
____ is when the ductus arteriosus doesn't close	patent ductus arteriosous (PDA)
patent ductus arteriosous (PDA) is treated with ____	indomethacin to close the hole
the 3 cardiac conditions that increase pulmonary blood flow are _____	ASD, VSD, and PDA
increased HR enlarged atrium / ventricles crackles increased RR and WOB poor feeding are signs of ____	ASD, VSD, PDA
the 2 cardiac conditions that cause obstructive defects are ___	coarctation of the aorta and aortic stenosis
a narrowing section of the aorta is known as ____	coarctation of the aorta
heart failure headaches nosebleeds stroke bounding upper extremities increased BP in UE with decreased BP in lower extremities are signs of ___	coarctation of the aorta BEFORE the narrowing
absent or decreased femoral pulses cool lower extremities decreased BP in lower extremities are signs of ___	coarctation of the aorta AFTER the narrowing
coarctation of the aorta is initially treated with ___ to keep the ___ open	prostaglandins, PDA

the "SAD" acronym stands for ___	syncope with exertion, angina with exertion, dyspnea with exertion
syncope with exertion angina with exertion dyspnea with exertion are signs of ____	aortic stenosis
a "tight" aortic valve is known as ____	aortic stenosis
aortic stenosis is treated with a ____	valve replacement
the 2 cardiac conditions that decrease pulmonary blood flow are ____	tetralogy of fallot (TOF) and transposition of the great arteries
right ventricular hypertrophy aorta displacement pulmonary stenosis septal defect (VSD) are all present in ____	tetralogy of fallot (TOF)
the acronym "RAPS" stands for ___	right ventricular hypertrophy aorta displacement pulmonary stenosis septal defect (VSD)
alprostadil (prostaglandin E) is used to treat ____	tetralogy of fallot (TOF)
TET spells are shown in patients with ___	tetralogy of fallot (TOF)
treat TET spells by ____	placing the infant in the knee-to-chest position
TET spells cause ____	cyanosis and SOB
____ is when the aorta and pulmonary artery are switched, causing oxygen-poor blood to circulate to the body	transposition of the great arteries
___ helps the heart contract more strongly and slows the heart rate	digoxin
digoxin should be held if a patient's HR is ___	< 70 in children
___ should be monitored for patient's on digoxin	potassium levels
___ help by pulling fluid, therefore decreasing the workload of the heart	diuretics (Lasix)
___ should be monitored for patients on diuretics	potassium levels
___ lowers blood pressure, which decreases left ventricular pressure	ACE inhibitors (captopril)
___ prevent blood clots and are primarily used in ASD	anticoagulants (warfarin, coumadin)
check pulses distal to the site keep leg straight monitor temp and color of extremities monitor BP monitor bleeding never remove the dressing monitor intake and output monitor blood glucose levels for patients after a ____	cardiac catheterization
vitals should be checked every ___ after a cardiac catheterization	15 minutes
___ is an inflammatory disease occurring after group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis (GABHS)	rheumatic fever
carditis polyarthritis erythema marginatum subcutaneous nodules chorea are all signs of ___	rheumatic fever
___ can be prevented by treating/preventing strep	rheumatic heart disease
if left untreated rheumatic fever can turn into ___	rheumatic heart disease
damage to the mitral valve as a result of rheumatic fever is known as ____	rheumatic heart disease
a complex syndrome characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion to meet metabolic demands, resulting in cellular dysfunction and eventual organ failure is known as ___	shock
vital organ function is maintained, and blood flow is normal or increased, but uneven or maldistributed is known as ___ shock	compensated
cardiac output diminished, tissue hypoxia, metabolic acidosis and eventual organ dysfunction is known as ___ shock	decompensated
damage to vital organs, even with interventions death is imminent is known as ___ shock	irreversible
___ is the most common type of shock to occur in children	hypovolemic
a falling BP, poor cap refill, low CVP are signs of ___ shock	hypovolemic
a decrease in cardiac output where the heart suddenly cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's needs is known as ____ shock	cardiogenic
___ is the most common type of shock to occur in adults	cardiogenic
a reduction in peripheral vascular resistance, inadequate tissue perfusion, and diminished cardiac output is known as ____ shock	distributive
____ shock is commonly due to anaphylaxis, sepsis or ingestion	distributive
provide ventilation administer fluids administer epi provide a calm environment lay flat with legs above heart to treat ____	shock
anaphylactic shock is treated with ___	epi
___ is the most common hematologic disorder of childhood	anemia
___ is a decrease in the number of red blood cells and/or hemoglobin concentration that is below normal	anemia
a decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood leads to a decreased amount of oxygen available to the ____	tissues
___ can cause hemodilution decreased peripheral resistance increased cardiac circulation and turbulence cyanosis growth retardation	anemia
a ___ is used to diagnose anemia	CBC
anemic patient's have a hemoglobin of ___	10 or 11
___ is caused by an inadequate supply of dietary iron	iron deficiency anemia
___ is the most prevalent nutritional disorder in the US	iron deficiency anemia
iron deficiency anemia typically peaks at ___ months and during ___	12-36 months, adolescence
infants with anemia can be treated with ___	iron fortified formula and cereals
iron supplements are absorbed better on an ___	empty stomach when the stomach acid is higher
iron supplements should be given __ times a day and in between meals	2
iron supplements should be given with ___ and NOT ___	citrus foods, milk/dairy products
patient's taking iron supplements should have ___ colored stools``	tarry green / black
if both parents have the sickle cell trait, each of their children have a ___% chance of inheriting the disease	25
sickle cell anemia is an autosomal ___ disorder	recessive
____ is the partial or complete replacement of normal hemoglobin with abnormal hemoglobin	sickle cell anemia
___ cells are rigid and obstruct capillary blood flow	sickle
___ infections are the leading cause of death in young children with sickle cell disease	bacterial
a ___ is anything that increases the body's need for oxygen or alters the transport of oxygen causing the cells to sickle	sickle cell crisis
the five types of sickle cell crisis are ___	vasocclusive (VOC) CVA acute chest syndrome (ACS) splenic sequestration aplastic
___ is the most common type of sickle cell crisis and is very painful	vasoocclusive (VOC)
fever pain tissue engorgement are signs of a ____ sickle cell crisis	vassocclusive
sudden and severe repeat CVA's (stroke) common can cause cognitive delays over time are signs of a ___ sickle cell crisis	CVA (stroke)
chest pain fever tachypnea cough wheezing are signs of a ___ sickle cell crisis	acute chest syndrome (ACS)
___ is a life-threatening type of sickle cell crisis where blood pools in the spleen and can cause within hours	splenic sequestration
profound anemia hypovolemia shock are signs of a ____ sickle cell crisis	splenic sequestration
a ___ sickle cell crisis is caused by diminished production and increased destruction of RBC, usually caused by a viral infection or depletion of folic acid	aplastic
anemic patient's should consumes food high in ___	folic acid
____ is a common medication used for sickle cell patients and reduces the number of pain crisises	hydroxyurea (Endaril)
the acronym "HOP" is used for sickle cell patients and stands for ___	hydrate oxygenate pain control
if a sickle cell patient exhibits any sign of infection ___	start antibiotics ASAP
___ is an X-linked recessive trait causing a group of hereditary bleeding disorders that result from deficiencies in specific clotting factors	hemophilia
____ accounts for 80% of cases where there is a deficiency in clotting factor VIII	hemophilia A
___ affects both males and females causing a deficiency, abnormality, or absence of vWF and factor VIII	von willebrand disease (VWD)
a laboratory test for hemophilia will show low levels of clotting factors ___ or ___ and a prolonged ___	VIII, XI, PT
___ is the most common sign of hemophilia and is bleeding into the joint spaces of the knee, ankle, elbow leading to impaired mobility and eventually bony changes and disability	hemarthosis
___ is an acquired hemorrhagic disorder characterized by thrombocytopenia and purpura	idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
a platelet count less than 20,000 could indicate ____	idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
damage to soft tissue, subcutaneous tissue, and muscle causing ecchymosis, swelling, pain and disability is known as a ___	contustion
___ injuries lead to compartment syndrome	crush
___ injuries occurs when the force of stress on a ligament is sufficient enough to displace the normal position of opposing bone ends, or bone ends to the socket	dislocation
the most common dislocation is ____	nursemaid's elbow
subluxation or partial dislocation of the radial head (elbow), commonly due to swinging or grabbing, but is easily fixed by popping back into place is known as ____	nursemaid's elbow
a ___ injury is trauma to a joint from a ligament partially or completely torn or stretched by force	sprain
a ___ is a microscopic tear to a musculotendinous unit	strain
treatment for sprains and trains ___	rest, ice, compression, elevation
the acronym RICE stands for____	rest ice compress elevate
the ___ is the most frequently broken bone in childhood, especially in those younger than 10 years old	clavicle
slanting or circular breaks around the shaft of the bone is known as a ___ fracture	spiral
a ____ fracture is when the fractured bone protrudes through the skin	compound / open
a ___ fracture is when bone fragments damage other organs or tissues	complicated
a ___ fracture occurs when the compressed side of the bone bends, but the tension side of the bone breaks, causing an incomplete fracture	greenstick
the cartilage growth plate (epiphyseal plate) is the ___ point of a long bone	weakest
generalized swelling pain or tenderness deformity diminished functional use maybe bruising, severe muscular rigidity, and crepitus are signs of a ___	fracture
the 6 P's to assess for are ___	pain pulse pallor paresthesia paralysis pressure
forward force produced by attaching a weight to a distal bone fragment is known as ___	traction
backward force provided by body weight is known as ___	countertraction
____ traction is applied to a body part by the hand placed distally to the fracture site	manual
___ traction involves pulling mechanisms that are attached to the skin with adhesive material or an elastic bandage	skin
___ traction is applied directly to the skeletal structures by a pin, wire, or tongs inserted into or through the diameter of the bone distal to the fracture	skeletal
___ traction is inserted through burr holes in the skull with weights attached to the hyperextended head	cervical
during traction, always make sure that the weight are hung ____	freely
a clicking sound heard when changing the baby's diaper or when pushing their knees to their chest would indicate ____	developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)
the ___ test is used to diagnose developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)	ortolani
developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is treated with a ___ then ____	brace, cast
the brace used to treat developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is called the ___ harness	pavlik
children with developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) wearing a pavlik harness should have appointments every ____ weeks	1-2
clothing and diapers go ___ the pavlik harness	under
the HOB should be ____ for kids wearing a pavlik harness	elevated
deformity of the ankle and foot is known as ___	clubfoot
clubfoot is treated with a ___ then ___	cast, brace
self-limiting avascular necrosis of the femoral head is known as ____	legg clave perthes
insidious onset limp, more pronounced with increased activity pain in the hip, thigh, or knee are signs of ____	legg calve perthes
spontaneous displacement of the proximal femoral epiphysis in the posterior and inferior direction is known as ____	slipped capital femoral epiphysis
slipped capital femoral epiphysis develops shortly before or during ____	growth spurt/puberty
surgery is usually performed within 24 hours to prevent further slipping and complications of avascular necrosis for patients with ___	slipped capital femoral epiphysis
___ is spinal deformity of varying degrees	scoliosis
scoliosis is treated with a ___	brace
scoliosis braces are worn for ____ hours a day	16-23
surgery is performed on scoliosis if the curvature of the spine is greater than ____ degrees	45
a major risk factor for cerebral palsy is ___	preterm birth
___ is a group of permanent disorders of movement and posture	cerebral palsy (CP)
___ is the most common permanent physical disability in childhood	CP
80% of patients with ___ develop epilepsy	CP
___ is the most common type of CP causing poor control of posture, balance and corrdination	spastic (pyramidal)
persistent primitive reflexes poor head control after 3 months of age floppy tone unable to sit without support by 8 months clenched fists after 3 months no smiling by 3 months feeding difficulties are signs of ___	CP
in 70% of CP patients, their IQ is ___	normal
failure of the neural tube to close is known as ___	neural tube defect (NTD)
___ is one of the most common birth defects in the US	NTD
___ is commonly due to maternal malnutrition and low folate levels	NTD
NTD can be prevented by taking ___mg of folic acid daily	0.4
elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in amniotic fluid could indicate ___	NTD
testing for elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in amniotic fluid is done at ____ weeks of gestation	16-18
the absence of cerebral hemispheres with brainstem function in tact but incompatibility of life is known as ____	anencephaly NTD
failure of the osseous spines to close is known as ____	spina bifida
___ is not visible externally but usually shows signs of sacral dimple sacral angioma or port wine nevus sacral tufts of dark hair sacral lipoma bowel and bladder problems foot deformities	spina bifida occulta
a visible defect with a saclike protrusion is known as ___	spina bifida cystica
a meningocele sac contains ____	meninges and spinal fluid
a myelomeningocele sac contains ____ and is he most common type	meninges, spinal fluid, and nerves
an infant with a spina bifida sac should be kept ___ to prevent the sac from ___	prone, rupture
early closure of a spina bifida sac is done within ____ after birth	12-72 hours
a spina bifida sac should be covered with a ___ to prevent ____	moist sterile dressing, infection
___ is an external opening to the bladder commonly made for patients with spina bifida	mitrofanoff
___ is an external opening through the belly button into the bowel that is commonly made for patients with spina bifida	malone
patients with spina bifida have a high risk for having a ___ allergy	latex
cross reactions with bananas avocados kiwi chestnuts could indicate a ___ allergy	latex
the most severe and common types of muscular dystrophies in childhood is known as ____	duchennes
gradual degeneration of the muscle fibers, progressive weakness, and wasting of skeletal muscles is known as ___	duchennes muscular dystrophy
calf muscle hypertrophy is a common characteristic of ___	duchennes muscular dystrophy
waddling gait frequent falls gower sign enlarged muscles common mental deficiency are signs of ___	duchennes muscular dystrophy

Created by: gnitti

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