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PT Care Final

Final

QuestionAnswer
Criteria of a profession contain a unique body of knowledge, organized into associations that oversee & guide profession, has set performance standards
why do we prefer technologist rather than technician? represents higher education we have
qualities you must possess to be a professional standards of practice:
what we should/n't be doing in our profession scope of practice:
why is the radiography scope of practice extremely detailed? The work we do is very important & we use ionizing radiation
true or false: it is within our scope of practice to explain the procedure, what you may need from them (holding breath), what they may feel, how long it will take to complete the procedure, and the possible consequences/benefits if the exam is done true
true/false: we are allowed to interpret exams, describe possible adverse reactions to contrast, and try to convince a patient to do a certain procedure false, not allowed to do any of these
true/false: you are expected to conduct yourself in a professional manner at all times, be reliable, be a team player, treat patients with dignity and worth, avoid discrimination, and do justice for each patient true
Patient gives consent for a procedure to be performed in full knowledge of the procedure and the risk it entails informed consent
explanation of procedure, risks/adverse reactions of the procedure, benefits of the procedure, consequences of not having the procedure, alternative treatments written consent
pt walks in & stands in front of bucky, implies they are ready for the procedure implied consent
exceptions to informed consent emergency medical care, pt unable to give consent, ICU, surgery
Who is the institution of USI accredited by? The Higher Learning Commission of the NCACS (North Central Association of Colleges and Schools)
who is the review program on radiography? JRCERT (non-profit org)
who is the review program on sonography? JRCDMS (non-profit org)
Function/purpose of JRCERT/JRCDMS: assures program will provide knowledge & skills for quality patient care
True/false: the state of IN requires radiographers to hold a valid state license true
true/false: you can obtain a license without a certification in radiography false, must be certified first
true/false: in order to take the ARRT examination, you must graduate from an accredited program true
how many states require licensure for sonographers? only 4
when did continuing education become mandated for radiographers possessing an ARRT license? 1995
how many CEUs for radiographers and how often? 24, biennium
how many CEUs for sonographers and how often? 30, triennium
ASRT American Society of Radiologic Technologists
ISRT Indiana Society of Radiologic Technologists
SDMS Society of Diagnostic Medical Sonography
SVU Society of Vascular Ultrasound
AIUM American Institute of Ultrasound in Medicine
ACR The American College of Radiology
Who are the credentialing organizations for radiography? ARRT & R.R.A.
ARRT awards what credential? R.T. (ARRT)
true/false: ARRT certifies all of these categories: (R) - radiography (S) - sonography (CT) - computed tomography (MRI) - magnetic resonance imaging (M) - mammography (T) - radiation therapy true
what does the R.R.A. certify? registered radiologist assistant
what do credentialing organizations do? administer certification exam & keep record of everyone who has successfully passes
Credentialing organizations for sonography include ARDMS ARRT CCI
ARDMS credential is "RDMS" for what categories? abdomen/small parts, OB/Gyn, pediatric
ARDMS also provides RDCS which means? registered diagnostic cardiac sonographer
RVT falls under ARDMS and means? registered vascular technologist
RMSK falls under ARDMS and means? registered musculoskeletal technologist
ARRT provides what credentials for sonography? Sonography RT (S) Vascular Sonography RT (VS)
What sonography credentials does the CCI provide? RCS (Registered Cardiac Sonographer) RVS (Registered Vascular Sonographer) RPhS (Registered Phlebology Sonographer)
JCAHO Joint Commission on Allied Health Care Organizations
ICAVL Intersocietal Commission for the Accreditation of Vascular Laboratories
ICAELICAEL Intersocietal Commission for the Accreditation of Echocardiography Laboratories
certification is the? initial passing of examination
registration means that institutions keep a list of everyone who has? taken & passed the certification exam
true/false: credentialing is the process of verifying an individuals qualifications, skills, and performance levels true
Licensure is based on? your individual states rules
what does a hospitalist do? specialize in internal medicine in a hospital environment
what does an internist do? specializes in internal medicine, focusing on the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of health conditions in adults
what is the center of gravity? point where mass of any body is centered
where is the center of gravity in a standing person? center of pelvis
true/false: the center of gravity should be as close to the patient as possible, and equally balanced true
true/false: safe body mechanics require good posture true
true/false: you should hold your chest up/forward, head erect, feet parallel & at right angles to lower legs while keeping your feet apart for a wide base of support, equally distributing weight on both feet, knees slightly bent, neutral spine position true
when moving a patient, we want to reduce? Why? friction, facilitate movement
true/false: you can reduce friction by having the pt assist in the transfer, crossing their arms over their chest, and supporting their head, spine, and extremities true
true/false: it is better to push rather than pull a pt false, pull not push
when using a sliding board, it should always be covered with a? sheet
the heaviest part of an object should be kept where? closest to body
instead of bending at the waist, you should? bend knees & lower body (leg muscles stronger than back muscles)
How do you protect your spine? avoid twisting - move foot position instead, spread feet for wide base of support, balance weight over both feet, stand close to pt, always get help if needed
transfers occur when: a pt is going from one surface to another
true/false: during a patient transfer you should educate the patient and let them know what is going on and how they can help true
ambulate means? to walk
ancillary equipment refers to? IVs, oxygen, chest tube, catheter bad, NG tube, etc
true/false: during a transfer, you should transfer the patient across the longest distance possible false, shortest distance
true/false: you should ALWAYS lock the wheels on equipment during a transfer true
up with the good, down with the bad means? pt steps up with good part, down with bad part
what 3 components are needed for a fire? flammable substance (fuel), oxygen, heat
common causes of hospital fires: spontaneous combustion, open flames, cigarette smokers, electricity (most common)
true/false: you should always block fire doors and store equipment in halls, hindering evacuation false, never do these things
true/false: you should avoid improper storage of flammable items and using extension cords not approved for hospital use true
steps to take if a fire occurs: evacuate report close doors shut off oxygen valves shut off electrical equipment wait for further instructions
fire safety acronym RACE means? rescue alarm contain extinguish
fire safety acronym PASS means? pull the pin aim nozzle at base squeeze handle sweep
zone I in MR: accessible to general public
zone II in MR: reception area/dressing rooms
zone III in MR: control room
zone IV in MR: magnet room
true/false: if a chemical spill occurs, you should limit access to the area, evaluate risks involved, determine whether you can handle the situation alone or need help, proceed safely, and call a supervisor if needed true
do latex gloves alone provide adequate protection from chemical spills? NO
if something gets in your eyes, find an eyewash station and rinse for how long? 15 minutes
ergonomics is the study of the human body in relation to? the working environment
workplace injury rates in healthcare are similar to those of? industrial worker
true/false: most injuries are musculoskeletal disorders, especially back injuries true
true/false: when moving a patient, you should have a broad base of support, work at a comfortable height, bend your knees instead of back, and pull rather than push true
true/false: sonographers want to keep the patient as close as possible, keep their scanning arm close to the body, keep feet supported when sitting, avoid reaching, bending or twisting, keep hips/knees and elbow/wrist line parallel to the floor true
sonographers arms should not be abducted more than _____ degrees 30
decubitus ulcers, aka pressure ulcers, aka pressure sores, aka bed sores: skin breakdown caused by a patient sitting a certain way for too long due to immobility and high friction or pressure
decubitus ulcers can be found where? bony prominences most commonly
true/false: pressure ulcers have a long healing time and can cause necrosis true
something that causes birth defects teratogen
inward curve of spine lordotic
outward curve of spine kyphotic
light-headedness when changing from supine to sitting/standing positions orthostatic hypotension
lack of blood flow to tissue ischemia
sudden rush of blood flow to extremity reactive hyperemia
reactive hyperemia seen in? elderly & diabetic
reactive hyperemia occurs when? going from supine to sitting/standing
true/false: you should ALWAYS recap a needle before throwing it away FALSE, NEVER DO THIS
true/false: you should remove the needle from a syringe or break it off False
true/false: throw syringes with needles attached into approved sharps containers, not the trash, and always wear gloves when handling sharps true
true/false: you should just leave the sharps container overflowing false, empty it properly
sterilization is the _____ removal of microorganisms and their _____ from the surface of an object complete, spores
sterilization should be used for any procedure that involves what? penetration of body tissues
disinfection is to remove _____ _____ microorganisms as possible from a surface by ______ or _____ means as many, physical, chemical
disinfection is used on items or surfaces that cannot be sterilized including? mayo tables, medical tables, bigger objects
true/false: everything in the OR or interventional radiography room must be disinfected true
what is the most common method of sterilization that acts as a "pressure cooker" for objects by using steam under pressure? autoclaving
Chemical sterilization and ethylene oxide are used on what kind of instruments? those that cannot withstand extreme heat, they are immersed in chemicals instead
true/false: if the sterility of an item is questionable, it is not to be considered sterile (aka sterile conscious) true
true/false: surgical aseptic technique is to be used for any medical procedure that involves the penetration of body tissues or invasive procedures true
true/false: the administration of parenteral medications requires the use of surgical aseptic technique true
what are parenteral medications? medications that penetrate the skin (vaccinations and shots)
true/false: all major and minor surgeries, tracheostomy care for an endotracheal tube, dressing changes, and catheterization of the urinary bladder require the use of surgical aseptic technique true
what are the 3 zones of an OR suite? zone 1, zone 2, zone 3
describe the first zone of an OR suite: unrestricted, people may enter in street clothes, right outside doors to surgery department
describe the second zone of an OR suite: semi-restricted, people dressed in scrub clothing, mask, and shoe covers with hair pulled up in a cap, inside the surgery department
describe the third zone of an OR suite: restricted, people wearing scrub suits, mask, cap, shoe covers, and sterile applications, inside the OR itself or hallways right outside OR
true/false: those directly involved in the operation are dressed in sterile gowns and sterile gloves and are often referred to as "being scrubbed" true
true/false: the surgical team is typically made up of a surgeon, surgical assistant(s), surgical tech(s), nurse(s), an anesthesiologist, nurse anesthetist, radiologic technologist, and maybe other occupations depending on the nature of the surgery true
what do surgical techs do? help move equipment & fetch items that may be needed
what do nurses do in the OR? typically not scrubbed in, help monitor the patient and chart
true/false: OR ventilation ducts must have special filters to filter out small particles true
ariflow in the OR should be what? unidirectional
are surgery suites positive or negative pressure rooms? positive
what does it mean to have a positive pressure room? the pressure inside the room is higher than in the hallway so when we open the door the air moves out to the hallway
why is it a good thing that surgical suites are positive pressure? most things have been disinfected so positive pressure keeps microorganisms in the hallway from getting in the surgery suite when the doors open
why must humidity be controlled? prevent static electricity
true/false: OR doors should remain closed as much as possible true
true/false: equipment should be disinfected before and after procedures true
surgical scrubbing requires a hand scrub of how long? 3 minutes
true/false: you must remove all jewelry before performing a surgical scrub true
when performing a surgical scrub, where do you scrub? hands & forearms to 2 inches above the elbow
what do we use to clean between our fingers & fingernails scrub brush
true/false: when performing a surgical scrub you should scrub all four sides of the fingers, arms, and hands true
true/false: after performing a surgical scrub you should keep your fingers higher than your palms, hold your hands above the waist, and dry your hands with a sterile towel true
where are you considered sterile to, even with a sterile gown? only your waist
when putting on a gown what is the first step? grasp the inside of the gown and remove it from the table (they are folded so that the inside of the gown is facing you
after grabbing the gown, what should you do? step away from the table and hold it away from your body to unfold it
once the gown is unfolded you should do what? open it by the shoulder seams and place your arms in the armholes while keeping your hands covered by the cuffs
should you tie the back of your own gown? no, always have someone else do it
how do you put gloves on properly? open and expose the gloves, glove your dominant hand first, glove other hand, then adjust
true/false: before skin prep occurs, the skin must be free of hair, rashes, breaks in skin, or any irritation true
the skin must be prepped with what kind of solution to disinfect it? antiseptic
how do you perform a skin prep? start in center & go out making circles, usually done 3 times with 3 different sponges
after the skin is prepped you should allow it to dry and then place what? a sterile drape
what does an eye drape look like? little bitty hole in center
what does a spinal drape look like? large opening in center
what do femoral/brachial drapes look like? have slits down the middle
if no drapes are available, what can we use? sterile towels
how do we use sterile towels when drapes are unavailable? fold them in half and place the folded part inwards towards the surgical part
how do you open a sterile pack? remove the wrapper, place the pack on the table, first fold should be on top and opened away from you, then open the sides, then pull the last fold towards you
what should you always check on sterile packs? expiration date, toss it if is expired
why do we cover patients with drapes? to protect the site of interest once it has been disinfected
true/false: when placing a sterile drape on a patient, you should lean over them and drape the farther side first false, drape side closest to you first
true/false: when placing sterile towels as draping, place towels so the fold is near the site true
true/false: when using sterile towels instead of drapes, you should place them on all four sides of the site of interest true
why is it important to check the date on sterile equipment/supplies? to make sure it isn't expired
what does it mean to check the integrity of a sterile pack? make sure there are no breaks or any moisture
true/false: the tops of tables are sterile, but anything below is not true
true/false: the edges of anything that encloses a sterile field are not sterile true
true/false: unsterile people should touch sterile items false, must be sterile to touch sterile items
should you reach across a sterile field if you are not sterile? no, never
how do sterile persons pass each other? Why? back-to-back, backs are not sterile, so keeps front of both people sterile
true/false: unsterile persons should always face the sterile field when passing within 6 feet of it true
What are the 4 classifications of pediatric patients? neonates, infants, toddlers, preschooler and older
neonates range from what age? birth to up to 1 month
infants range from what age? birth to 12 months
true/false: you should always explain the procedure to pediatric patients' parents and never leave them unattended true
toddlers range from what age? 1-3 years
true/false: when imaging toddlers, you should also explain the procedure to them true
preschooler and older patients range from what age? 3-6 years
true/false: when dealing with preschool and older pediatric patients, you should let them do things by themselves as much as possible and respect their privacy true
what should you do when talking to pediatric patients? squat down or bend down to their eye level, makes you less intimidating to them
a NICU trip includes scrubbing which typically consists of? washing hands, gloving, gowning
why do NICU visits require scrubbing? these babies have very weak immune systems
true/false: when it comes to NICU visits, you should wipe down or cover the equipment before and after each patient and wash your hands between patients true
true/false: you should handle NICU babies gently and watch out for lines and tubes true
what kind of NICU babies are minimal stimulation precautions (min stim) used for? those who get irritated easily
is shielding important for NICU babies? yes
NICU stands for? neonatal intensive care unit
true/false: a NICU usually provides 1-1 care for the babies true
who does the NICU typically contain? premature babies who need a little more intensive care
true/false: babies have stronger immune systems compared to adults false, very weak & immature immune systems
can you do multiple babies in the NICU in one trip? yes, follow proper sanitation procedures
true/false: NICU babies can have a lot of different things hooked into them, so it is important to be cautious of those things true
what kind of mobilization devices can we use for pediatric patients? Pigg-o-stat, sandbags, Velcro board, sheet wrap, lead aprons, sponges, tape, can be held by an assistant
when using a pigg-o-stat what should you do with the parent? clearly communicate why you are using it and that it will not harm their child but they will likely cry
what is a velcro board? papoose board with straps to immobilize the child
why can lead aprons immobilize pediatric patients? heavy for children to move
when using an assistant to hold a pediatric patient for a procedure, who should we use? parent/guardian or another radiographer if unavailable
should you as a student ever hold a patient down for a procedure? no, never, USI policy
when was image gently founded? 2007
what is the goal of image gently? raise awareness of radiation safety in pediatric imaging
true/false: image gently reminds us to select appropriate exposure factors for peds patients true
true/false: image gently reminds us to record CT doses & fluoroscopy times true
true/false: image gently reminds us to lower our technique because we don't need as much to get informative images on pediatric patients true
what is child abuse? acts that endanger or impair a child's physical or emotional health
true/false: child abuse is a repeated pattern of behavior true
what is physical abuse? physical injury
what is neglect? failure to provide care
what is emotional abuse? isolation, ignoring, rejecting, belittling
what is sexual abuse? any sexual act without consent
what is medical abuse? giving false information
true/false: it is our obligation to report signs of abuse, even if we are wrong true
what kinds of things should we assess and report in terms of child abuse? bruising, burns, fxs, out of proportion body parts
true/false: geriatric patients typically have more chronic diseases than acute illnesses true
what kind of chronic diseased could we see in geriatric patients? heart disease, cancer, hypertension, arthritis, diabetes, pulmonary disease, visual impairments, hearing impairments. depression, dementia
true/false: geriatric patients typically take several medications true
why do we need to be careful with geriatric patients when it comes to their skin? it is thin and loose
true/false: geriatric patients skin is more susceptible to breakdown (tears/abrasions) from friction true
true/false: geriatric patients may have decreased vascularity which can cause decreased blood flow true
true/false: geriatric patients have longer wound healing times true
what can we do to maximize comfort for geriatric patients? place a radiolucent table pad
what are some other things we may see with geriatric patients? dizziness, coldness, dentures, incontinence (typically urinary), frequent urination, kyphosis, dementia, osteoporosis, increased fall risk
true/false: some exams require the removal of dentures, and it is important that we do not lose or damage them true
what is kyphosis? Humpback in the thoracic area
true/false: as we age, kyphosis can become more pronounced and appears as a hunchback true
what is osteoporosis? loss of bone density
joint replacement surgery is used to replace a? degenerative hip joint
what are the 2 most common joint replacement surgeries? hip & knee
when are joint replacement surgery radiographs taken? post-operatively
what is the most common complication of joint replacement surgery? dislocation
true/false: after knee replacement surgeries, the patient will be non weight-bearing for a little bit true
what type of device is used during the healing process from a knee replacement surgery? continuous passive motion device, exercises extremity without putting weight on it to keep the joint moving
why can you not adduct a hip after a hip replacement surgery? it can become dislocated
true/false: the hip should be kept in extension after a hip replacement true
what kind of special pillow is used after hip replacement to prevent adduction? abduction sponge (keeps legs separated)
true/false: with intoxicated or confused patients you should keep communication simple and direct, don't argue, don't leave them alone, avoid being alone with them if possible, and get help when needed true
what cultural considerations are healthcare workers faced with? ethnicity, culture
what is ethnicity? shared backgrounds such as religion, culture, tribal, social factors
what is culture? beliefs, values, & behavioral expectations
true/false: culture affects how pts understand health and illness true
true/false: patient reactions to treatments offered and pain may be different to what we are accustomed to true
what is cultural competence? ability to care for patients with diverse values, beliefs, and behaviors
true/false: you should stereotype your patients false, never ever ever do this
Outpatient identifiers name & DOB
inpatient identifier wristband
2 types of data collected when assessing a patient: subjective & objective
anything patient or caretaker says subjective data
CC abbreviated for? chief complaint
anything that is observed (blood pressure, respiratory rate, heart rate, etc) Objective data:
format of patient history SOAP notes:
SOAP stands for? subjective, objective, assessment, plan
PRN means? as needed
Advanced health care directives: documents that outline specific wishes about medical care
what do patients expect from us? professional appearance & attitude, and concerned about them
Verbal communication is anything we say, but also includes? paralanguage (rate, volume, and sound in which we speak)
Nonverbal communication includes things like? appearance & posture
true/false: you should never assume a patient understands everything true
how to make communication more clear? use an interpreter or teach back methods
true/false: we should rush older patients FALSE
should we always refer to our patient by name and assess them with conversation? yes
true/false: talk to children on their own level (eye level) true
true/false: speak quickly, harsh, and unclear false, opposite
should you handle a combative patient alone? NO
true/false: when dealing with combative patients, be pleasant but firm and do not let them get between you and the door true
true/false: it is okay to have an inappropriate reaction after a patient has one false, never okay
true/false: if a patient exhibits inappropriate behavior, get help true
For hearing impaired patients, you should: get their attention before speaking, face them with light on your face, speak in a lower tone and louder, rephrase things if not understood
For vision impaired patients, you should: use more verbal explanation, give detailed instructions, let the patient hold on to you
Nosocomial infections are infections acquired when? DURING course of treatment (UTI, surgical wound infection)
Iatrogenic infection means? "originating from the physician"
Iatrogenic infections are nosocomial infections resulting from? certain treatment or therapeutic procedure
disease passed from direct or indirect contact with an infected person Communicable disease:
microorganisms that cause infections and diseases pathogens:
factors that increase the patient's potential for nosocomial infection: age heredity nutritional status stress inadequate rest & exercise personal habits health history inadequate defenses
What is the most common site of nosocomial infections? Urinary tract from indwelling catheters
Cauti infections mean? catheter acquired UTI
other common sites of nosocomial infections include? bloodstream post surgical wounds respiratory tract
The cycle of infection: infectious agent, environment in which microbes can live & multiply, portal of exit from reservoir, means of transmission, portal of entry into a new host
body fluids touched directly from person to person direct contact:
touching things infected patient has touched indirect contact:
fomites are? syringes/dressings
vehicles are? food, water, drugs, blood
vectors are? infected animals/insects
droplets come from? nose/mouth of infected host
airborne comes from? evaporated residue from the droplet
natural active acquired immunity: resistant because already had disease
artificial active acquired immunity: occurs following a vaccination
epidemic means? widespread
CDC (Center for disease control and prevention) does what? monitor & study disease
how many people in the U.S. have HIV/AIDS approximately 1.2 million
how quickly can HIV infected people spread it? within a few days after infection
how long does it take to detect HIV/AIDS in a blood test? 18-45 days
true/false: there is a cure for HIV/AIDS false
how can HIV/AIDS be spread? sexual contact, contaminated blood/needles, fluids containing blood, mother to fetus, and breast milk
true/false: occupational risk of AIDS/HIV is not great true
what is the most common occupational exposure to HIV/AIDS? needle stick injury
if you are stuck by an HIV contaminated needle, what are your chances of becoming infected? less than 1%
viral hepatitis is an inflammation of? liver cells
true/false: viral hepatitis is initially acute, but can cause chronic issues true
Types of hepatitis: HVA (Oral/Fecal route) HVB (Blood & body fluids) HVC (Blood & body fluids) HVD (Blood & body fluids) HVE (Oral/Fecal route)
health care workers typically contract HVB from? needle stick injury
HBV can survive in dried blood for how long? at least a week
What type of hepatitis has become more prevalent in recent years and has become the most common blood-borne infection in the U.S.? HVC
HVC is curable in what percent of cases? 95%
Tuberculosis is a lung disease spread via? airborne route
true/false: tuberculosis is a communicable disease true
TB skin test aka? PPD
methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is transmitted by? contact
contact Vancomycin-resistant staphylococcus aureus
VRE means? Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
VRE is part of the? normal GI tract flora
true/false: VRE is resistant to normal hand-washing procedures true
Clostridium difficile releases what in the bowel? Can be spread on? Found in? toxins, hands of healthcare workers, GI tract
true/false: it is the duty of all healthcare workers to break the cycle of the spread of infection by the use of strict medical asepsis true
true/false: practicing & applying the use of standard precautions (OSHA term) must be routine and a priority for the imaging professional true
eliminate as best as possible using soap, water, chemical disinfectants Medical asepsis:
completely destroyed organisms via heat or chemical processes surgical asepsis:
true/false: you should never assume that each patient has the potential for having an infectious disease false, always assume this
true/false: treat all blood & body substances as if they contain disease-producing microorganisms true
true/false: you should wash your hands before & after each patient contact, even if you wore gloves true
true/false: microbes are most commonly spread by hands true
hand hygiene refers to what 2 methods? hand washing or using antiseptic hand rubs
if something gets in your eye, how long should you spend at the eyewash station? 15 minutes
tier 1 standard precautions are things we should be doing all the time such as: hand hygiene, PPE, respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette
tier 2 standard precautions are transmission-based and are done some of the time including: airborne, droplet, and contact precautions
true/false: you should not enter an airborne precaution room if you have not been fit tested for an N-95 Respirator true
airborne diseases can be inhaled and common examples include: TB, chicken pox, measles
patients under airborne precautions are placed in what kind of room? private negative air pressure & doors remain locked
when transferring a potential airborne infected patient in a hospital, what should they have on? surgical mask
true/false: airborne precautions may require a special, custom fit respirator for healthcare workers true
droplet precautions come from? sneezing, coughing, talking
you should stand how far from a droplet infected patient? 3 feet & wear mask if within 3 feet
some common droplet infections include: pneumonia, flu, some forms of meningitis
standard precautions for contact: private room, gloves worn before entering , gown if touch pt, or if they are vomiting, have diarrhea, a draining wound, equipment in room must stay there, follow standard precautions, portable x-ray machines just have to be wiped down and disinfected
separating pt from others & put in negative pressure rooms Isolation
pt is susceptible to infection, protects pt, placed in positive pressure room reverse/protective isolation:
what is the most common and fastest method of surgical asepsis? autoclaving
autoclaving includes? autoclaving includes?
chemical sterilization involves? immersion & soaking
dry heat surgical asepsis involves an? oven
what type of surgical asepsis is used for items that can't withstand moisture/heat ethylene oxide gas
what form of radiation can be used for surgical asepsis? gamma radiation
Created by: 06chloevetter
 

 



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