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Stack #4675567
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which part of our body is the BEST example of a barrier organ? | Skin |
| What mechanism is NOT used by epithelial cells to prevent the invasion of barrier tissues? | Phagocytosis of microbes |
| Peyer's patches and isolated lymphoid follicles are components of | GALT |
| Which of the following is a tolerogenic cytokine? | Both TGF-$\beta$ and IL-10 |
| MOST immune cells in the gut can be found in the | lamina propria. |
| What is the meaning of the gut epithelial cells being "polarized"? | They have distinct apical and basolateral sides. |
| What would you expect to observe in a patient who was unable to make IgE antibodies? | Rampant helminthic infection |
| Which of the following is NOT an antimicrobial molecule secreted into the intestinal lumen? | Enterocyte |
| Retinoic acid is | both a metabolite of vitamin A and released to produce a tolerogenic response. |
| Both celiac disease and ulcerative colitis | are inflammatory diseases that occur in the gut. |
| Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for inflammatory bowel disease? | All of the answers are risk factors. |
| Which gut disease is MOST closely associated with antigen presentation? | Celiac disease |
| Which of the following is the name for specialized skin epithelial cells? | Keratinocyte |
| Which of the following is NOT important for controlling infections at either barrier or mucosal sites? | IgG |
| One mechanism that viruses use to avoid the immune response is to bind up immune effector molecules. All of the following methods are used by antibodies to block viral infection EXCEPT | antibodies stimulate activation of cytotoxic T cells. |
| Viruses such as Epstein-Barr virus, cytomegalovirus, and HIV are capable of suppressing the immune system by | both infecting lymphocytes or phagocytic cells and production of cytokine antagonists. |
| Each of the following is a step in bacterial infection EXCEPT | the host feels tired or uncomfortable. |
| Parasitic infections include | protozoans and helminthes |
| How do Plasmodium cells avoid immune clearance? | Plasmodium invades red blood cells so that immune-effector cells such as macrophages and dendritic cells cannot phagocytize Plasmodium cells. |
| Schistosomiasis is a debilitating and potentially fatal disease caused by the helminthic parasite Schistosoma. Which antibody is specific for helminth response? | IgE |
| Leishmaniosis is a disease that can either be fatal to its host or will be cleared by the immune response of the host. Which pathway is responsible for clearing leishmaniosis? | TH cells |
| Cryptococcus may spread throughout an infected host. By what mechanism is Cryptococcus controlled by the acquired immune system? | Activation of TH cells |
| People encounter fungi on a daily basis, yet few healthy individuals develop fungal infections. Each of the following are mechanisms of the innate immune system that help prevent or limit fungal infections in healthy individuals EXCEPT | several species of fungi are able to block PRR binding |
| Acquired fungal immunity is supported by | TH1 and IFN-$\gamma$ production. |
| Which type of pathogen mutates at the HIGHEST rate | HIV |
| Re-emerging infectious diseases present a major problem worldwide. What actions can be taken to prevent the spread of re-emerging infectious diseases such as whooping cough (Bordetella pertussis)? | All of the answers are good preventive actions. |
| Vaccines are MOST readily made against | bacteria, because their cell walls remain relatively unchanged from generation to generation. |
| Modern-day vaccines try to elicit an immune response from | naïve B cells and TH cells. |
| Which of the following is an example of a passive immunization? | Antibodies against rabies given to someone who was bitten by a potentially rabid dog. |
| Why does active immunity produce long-term immunity better than passive immunity? | During active immunity, antigens for the disease are presented to the immune system through classical antigen presentation mechanisms, so an active B-cell response and immunologic memory develop. |
| What would happen if a person who is undergoing chemotherapy were given a live virus vaccine against polio? | The cancer patient would likely develop polio because the immune system is compromised and would not be able to fight off the live virus. |
| What is herd immunity? | Vaccinating the majority of a population to protect immunocompromised individuals from a particular pathogen. |
| Which infectious disease is the BEST example of "original antigenic sin"? | Influenza |
| What type of vaccine would be MOST effective against tuberculosis, a disease that requires a strong CD4+ T-cell response? | Live attenuated |
| Primary immunodeficiencies | are inherited. |
| Primary immunodeficiencies affecting T cells tend to be MORE severe than those affecting B cells because | T cells regulate the adaptive immune response. |
| Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) can be caused by | All of the answers are correct. |
| Children born with SCID often first become infected with fungi or viruses because | maternal antibodies provide protection against bacteria for several months. |
| Hyper IgM syndrome | is a result of a helper T-cell defect. |
| Secondary immunodeficiencies | can be both brought on by multiple factors and contagious. |
| Hypogammaglobulinemia differs from common variable immunodeficiency in that it | is not heritable |
| Agent-induced immunodeficiency does NOT | get passed on in gametes. |
| Which of the following is NOT an acquired immunodeficiency? | SCID |
| HIV-1 | All of the answers are correct. |
| Because reverse transcriptase is an error-prone enzyme, it follows that | All of the answers are correct. |
| Multidrug treatment of HIV-1 is preferred over single-drug treatment because | multidrug treatment places a more challenging selective pressure on the virus; to survive requires multiple mutations. |
| The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that: | malignant tumors are capable of uncontrolled growth and invading distant tissues. |
| The MOST common kind of cancers are carcinomas, which: | All of the answers are correct. |
| Metastasis is NOT which of the following? | A property of benign tumors |
| Hematopoietic tumors include all but which of the following? | Lung cancer |
| Leukemias can be defined as: | both acute/chronic and lymphocytic/myelogenous. |
| Malignant transformation of cells usually means that they | All of the answers are correct. |
| Carcinogens are NOT: | viruses such as Epstein-Barr virus. |
| Oncogenes | All of the answers are correct. |
| Hallmarks of tumor transformation include all of the following EXCEPT: | dependence of tumor suppressors. |
| T cells can recognize tumor antigens from each of the following classes, EXCEPT: | antigens that are expressed at lower than normal levels. |
| Tumor-specific antigens: | All of the answers are correct. |
| Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is: | All of the answers are correct. |
| What is the definition of an oncofetal tumor antigen? | An antigen derived from a reactivated fetal gene. |
| The immune system does NOT control cancer with which of the following mechanisms? | Induction of anergy in cancer cells. |
| Immunoediting does NOT: | All of the answers describe immunoediting |
| Responses of the immune system that can promote cancer include all of the following EXCEPT: | CTL activation. |
| Immunotherapy designed to target B-cell lymphoma with a monoclonal antibody is easier to administer than other immunotherapies because: | an anti-idiotypic monoclonal antibody won't target bystander cells. |
| Immunotoxins work by: | delivering chemicals specifically to the target cells. |
| Cytokine treatment of cancer has proven problematic because: | All of the answers are correct. |
| The use of tumor-specific T cells reintroduced to patients requires all of the following EXCEPT: | tumor-specific cells being depleted of autoreactive clones. |
| Manipulation of costimulatory signals has potential to treat tumors because: | All of the answers are correct. |
| Which of the following is NOT a cancer immunotherapy? | Radiation therapy |
| Hypersensitivity reactions to cell surface antigens via IgG or IgM are classified as which type? | Type II hypersensitivity |
| Which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions is associated with IgE? | Type I hypersensitivity |
| Which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions includes the transfusion reaction? | Type II hypersensitivity |
| Which of the following reactions features mast cell degranulation as one of its key features? | Type I hypersensitivity |
| The Arthus reaction is considered to be which of the following hypersensitivity types? | Type III hypersensitivity |
| Formation of immune complexes between antibodies and soluble antigens is considered to be which type of hypersensitivity reaction? | Type III hypersensitivity |
| A normal individual should only produce IgE in response to which of the following types of antigens? | Parasite antigens |
| Which of the following cell types are implicated in type I hypersensitivity reactions? | Mast cells and basophils |
| Which of the following is NOT packaged within basophil and mast cell granules? | Prostaglandins |
| Which of the following cell types are targets of the products of mast-cell degranulation, as well as the mediators produced by mast cells following degranulation? | All of the answers are correct. |
| The effects of histamine in allergic reactions are primarily attributable to its binding which of the following histamine receptors? | H1 |
| Which of the following cytokines is NOT generally associated with allergic reactions? | TGF-β |
| What cell type would be MOST instructive in classifying the type of reaction responsible for a skin rash? | CD4+ T cells |
| The immune response to a peanut allergy is MOST similar to a | bee sting |
| Desensitization therapy works by | All of the answers are correct. |
| Allergic responses may have evolved to | break down venom from reptiles. |
| Which of the following is NOT an explanation for inefficient clearing of antibody-antigen complexes that could lead to type III hypersensitivity reactions? | All of the answers could explain inefficient clearing of antibody-antigen complexes. |
| The tuberculin reaction is an example of which type of hypersensitivity? | Type IV |
| Which of the following cell types is NOT typically associated with type IV hypersensitivity reactions? | B cells |
| Which of the following is a potential cause of chronic inflammation? | All of the answers are correct. |
| Which of the following cytokines is NOT generally found in increased concentrations in individuals with chronic inflammation? | IL-10 |
| Which of the following is NOT involved in the development of Type II diabetes? | Antibodies against pancreatic islet cells. |