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Registry Review PC

QuestionAnswer
what are the six rights of drug administration right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation
HIPAA stands for health insurance portability and accountability act
when would you use written consent high risk procedures (IV, contrast, possible allergic reactions)
when would you use oral consent low risk procedures (chest xray)
when is implied consent used permission based on circumstance such as trauma / emergency
someone the patient trusts that can make medical decisions fro the patient if they are unable to healthcare proxy/ durable power of attorney
what outlines a pts wishes for medical treatment living will
what is an advanced directive written outline of a pts wishes for medical care should they become unable to make decisions for themselves due to illness or injury
threatening the patient assault
unlawful touching of a patient battery
when restraints are used without a physician order false imprisonment
when a patient is exposed it can be invasion of privacy
ignoring or neglecting the patient/needs negligence
defamation by written or printed words libel
defamation by spoken words slander
intentional or unintentional act resulting in injury tort
who is responsible for respondeat superior employer is liable
what does respondeat superior mean let the master answer
what does res ipsa loquitur mean the thing speaks for itself
who is liable for res ipsa loquitur individual is liable
exposure indicator has a _ relationship with expsoure direct
S-number has a _ relationship with exposure indirect
who can make changes to an order the physician
designed to "serve as a guide by which registered technologists may evaluate their professional conduct as it relates to patients, health care consumers, employers, colleagues and other members of the healthcare team." ARRT standards of ethics
written is a form of _ communication verbal
verbal communication includes presentation of material, attitudes, voice of tone, volume of voice, effective listening, written
non verbal communication includes eye contact, touching, facial expression, physical appearance, gestures
what are the stages of grief denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
study of the human body in relation to the working environment ergonomics
_ object and _ patients roll/push, pull
amount of people required to log roll a patient 3-5 people
when transferring a pt in a wheelchair what should you do lock the wheelchair at a 45 degree angle, with the pts strongest side closest to the table
CVC should end at the superior vena cava
ET tube is primarily used to assist pt through respiratory problems
where does the ET tube terminate 1 inch above the carina
what is the function of the urinary catheter and what is the bag placement allow to drain if you have an obstruction in the tube that carries urine out of the bladder - keep bag below the urethra
which O2 delivery system is used for 1-6 L/min nasal canula
L/min for face mask O2 5-10 L/min
what is the temp for an adult 97.8-99
what is the most accurate means for checking temperature rectal
what is the child temperature 97.8-98.6
infant temperature is 99-99.7
adult pulse should be 60-100 bpm
adult breaths per minute (respiration) should be 15-20
if the bpm is greater than 100 the pt is tachycardic
if the bpm is less than 60 the pt is bradycardic
normal pulse oximetry is 95-100%
infant breaths per minute (respiration) is 30-60
if the patient has a fall risk bracelet on should we stand them NO
what is the compression ratio to breaths 30:2
if there are no child AED pads available what should you do use adult pads
too high blood sugar hyperglycemia
too low of blood sugar hypoglycemia
damage to the nervous system after spinal cord injury - type of shock neruogenic
type of shock: heart cannot pump enough blood and oxygen to brain/vital organs cardiogenic
type of shock: severe blood or fluid loss hypovolemic
type of shock: blood pressure drops suddenly / airways narrow anaphylactic
type of shock: blood presure drops to dangerously low level after infection septic
RACE stands for rescue, alalrm, contain, extinguish
PASS stands for pull aim squeeze sweep
what is a fomite door handle, utensils, clothes - object
what is a vector living carrier; bat, mosquito
what are vermin pests (rats)
hep A and E spread through fecal
hep b is spread through blood/bodily fluids
hep c is spread through blood-borne
what is the most common hepatitis c
which hepatitis have vaccines A and B
the partial removal of pathogens medical asepsis
handwashing should last a minimum of 20 seconds
complete removal of microorganisms and spores from surface of objects surgical
dry heat for surgical asepsis should be at what temp 350-450 degrees
MRSA and C-diff are examples of _ precautions contact
Flu and pneumonia would be an example of _ precaution droplet
airborne precautions are used for TB, measles
_ pressure provide patient protection against contaminants positive
_ pressure provide personnel and or environmental protection negative
number one nosocomial infection MRSA
normal systolic blood pressure 90-120
contraction of the heart is _ and relaxation is _ systolic, diastolic
normal diastolic blood pressure is 50-70
blood pressure normal range is 120/80 mmHg
a detailed informational document prepared by the manufacturer or importer of a hazardous chemical and describes the physical and chemical properties of the product safety data sheet
how long should you hold metformin 48 hrs
besides metformin what other medication may be asked to hold prior to procedure blood thinners
safest route of medication administration oral
what are the three enteral route oral, sublingual, rectal
applied to skin and absorbed into the bloodstream topical route
rectal route is used when drug has foul taste/oder, pt is vomitting, stomach traumatized, drug can be changed by digestive enzymes
subcutaneous is used for small amounts such as _ and usually with a _ gauge 2cc, 25 gauge
injection used for deeper injection intramuscular
type of adminstration that allows for immediate effects IV
most widely used method of catheterization performed under sterile conditions seldinger technique
below 18.5 BMI would be termed underweight
18.5-24.9 BMI normal
25-29.9 BMI would be overweight
30+ BMI would be obese
iodine Z# 53
kvp that should be used for iodinated contrast below 80
barium Z# 56
what kvp should be used for barium single study? Double study ? above 90 for single 100-125 for double
ionic contrast agents have _ osmolality and _ risk of complications high, higher
conray, hypaque, renografin are examples of ionic contrast agents
omnipaque, isovue, optiray are examples of nonionic contrast
the presence or absence of _ determines ionic vs nonionic salt
_ contrast agents will have a lower risk of complication nonionic
when should we for sure use water soluble contrast aspiration, perforation
BUN 8-25
creatinine .5-1.4 or .7-1.3
normal range of GFR 90-120
inflammation of a vein phlebitis
leaks into soft tissue extravasation / infiltration
mild effects include nausea, vomitting, flushing, itching, mild hives, headache
moderate effects severe vomitting, extensive urticaria, dyspnea, laryngeal edema, vasovagal attacks
severe effects include respiratory arrest, cardiac arrest, pulmonary edema, convulsions, cardiogrenic shock
if there is an open fx there is risk of contamination/infection
type of fx where the skin is not broken closed
type of fx where the broken bones break through the skin open
type of fx where bones are not anatomically aligned displaced
type of fx where the bone is fractured but there is still normal alignment non displaced
pos used for BE sims
face down prone
face up supine
head above feet 45-60 degrees fowler
head above feet 30-45 degrees semi fowler
trendelenburg is _-_ degrees head _ feet 15-30, below
right to make informed decisions about care is termed autonomy
protected health information would include name, ID, diagnosis
acting in the patients best interest is termed beneficence
what information is required on the requisition patient ID, exam type, clinical indication, date, ordering provider
results from cervical trauma and affects the body from the neck down quadraplegia
results from trauma to a lower portion of the spinal column and affects the lower half of the body paraplegia
usually results from a stroke and its effects are limited to one side of the body hemiplegia
when movement is required for a long bone fracture provide support.. for the proximal and distal joints and move the extremity as a complete unit
in this type of fx the skin is not broken closed
"if i do this, maybe.." would be an example of bargaining
"i give up" would be an example of depression
tube in trachea for breathing tracheostomy
what is the purpose of a balloon pump intra-aortic, assists heart
type of catheter that monitors pressure swan ganz
what is the purpose of orthopedic traction aligns fractures
pulse locations include radial, carotid, brachial, femoral
height for contrast from vein 18-24 inches (25cm - 60 cm)
type of solution that breaks apart when placed in fluid ionic
refers to the concentration of particles in a solution osmolarity
we want the osmolarity of contrast to be the most similar to blood
what is the osmolarity of blood 300 Osm/L
allergy premedications would include corticosteroids (prednisone_) antihistamine (benedryl)
insert the IV at a _ angle for venipuncture 15 degree
what is the chain of infection pathogen - reservoir - exit - transmission - entry - host
what must you wear for airborne precautions N95
movement of water across a semipermable membrane osmosis
high osmotic agents attract water
type of contrast agent: crystals
isotonic is osmolality equal to blood
when do we use isotonic agents heart caths
venous and artery distribution immediate
urinary system distribution 15-30 min with IV administration
enhancement of brain may take 40 minutes
excretion is done primarily through kidneys
with normal kidney function 100% of contrast is excreted within 24 hours
reactions with contrast most often occur immediately or within 20 minutes
viscous means very thick, hard to inject
universal precautions should be practiced on all patients
what is the term used to describe an intravenous infection of a concentrated volume of contrast bolus
list the sequencing order for diagnostic studies 1. all studies that don't require contrast media 2. lab studies for iodine uptake (thyroid uptake) 3. radiographic examinations of the urinary tract 4. radiographic examination of the biliary tract 5. lower GI (BE) 6. upper GI studies
what are the 7 c's of malpractice prevention competence, compliance, charting, communication, confidentiality, coutresy, carefulness
what are some dietary restrictions for upper and lower GI studies increasing fluid intake for 2-3 days clear liquid diet 24 hours prior to exam npo 8 hours laxative the afternoon prior to the exam and a cleansing enema the night beofre and the morning of
surgical opening cut in the trachea to create an artificial airway tracheotomy
when the tube is left in the tracheotomy opening tracheostomy
used for feeing or gastric suction : type of tube NG
what is the purpose of a nasoenteric tube goes into the intestine for the purpose of aspirating gas and fluid in the intestinal tract following surgery
the tip of the swan ganz catheter is placed in the pulmonary artery
used to measure a patients blood pressure sphygomanometer
used for auscultation or listening to the ♥, lung, or abdominal sounds stethoscope
normal pulse values for children 90-100
normal pulse values for infants 80-120
pulse palpation site for the skull temporal artery
pulse palpation site for the neck carotid
pulse palpation site for the upper extremity radial artery
pulse palpation site for the groin femoral artery
pulse palpation site for the lower extremity dorsal pedis artery
when should we not do rectal temperature pt has cardiac issues
systolic represents the pressure created during the contraction of the _ left ventricle
normal respiratory rate for children is 30-60 per minute
cessation of breathing apnea
slow breathing bradypnea
rapid breathing tachypnea
tpa should be given within the first 3 hours
when checking pulse you should check the _ artery for _ seconds carotid for 10 seconds
you should dispose of soiled dressing in what container contaminated
fainting is termed syncope
nose bleed is termed epistaxis
sensation of a loss of balance vertigo
faint or lightheaded feeling from being recumbent for an extended period of time and then suddenly moved into an upright position orthostatic hypotension / postural
major motor siezure grand mal
breathing disorder characterized by wheezing and difficulty breathing asthma
infection of unknown cause idiopathic
physician caused infection iatrogenic
hospital acquired infection nosocomial
microorganisms capable of producing disease pathogen
and environment where pathogenic organism can live and multiply reservoir
destruction of pathogens through the use of chemical materials disinfection
when should hand hygiene be performed before and after each patient
sterile scrub washing requirement is 5 minutes
medical disinfectant ratio of bleach to water is 1:10
boiling for sterilization should be _ minutes 12
steam sterilization is termed autoclaving
what is required to be worn by personnel for individuals on contact precautions mask, gown, glove
if a patient is on droplet precautions what must the technologist wear N95
when are neutropenic precautions used when we are protecting the patient- this is reverse isolation
if contact to the eyes is made with a chemical agent you should wash them out for _ minutes 15
when placing the needle in the sharps container _ first needle
we should exchange the sharps container when it is 2/3-3/4 full
procedures involving iodinated contrast should be performed _ barium contrast procedures before
the _ vein is the msot common site for injection antecubital
positive contrast agents _ attenuation increase
introduction of air into a vein air embolism
what two things when together prove that it is a true contrast reaction hypotension and increase in pulse rate
if hyperglycemia is the indication what medications can be used insulin/metforminglucophage
what medications are anticoagulants heparin/warfarin/coumadin
if the pt has a spasmatic colon what medication should be used glucagon
nitroglycerin is used for angina
cathartics are used as laxatives
if metabolic acidosis is indicated use what medication sodium bicarbonate
epinephrine is used for cardiac arrest or anaphylaxis
a pt with edema may be given lasix
what medications are used for shock levophed intropin dobutrex
what med is administered for hypotension dobutrex
what is the medication used for siezures dilantin
if a pt presents with bradycardia they should recieve what medication atropine
the medications given for allergic reactions are benadryl or decadron
what are the 5 medicines used for arrythmias **all crazy irregular pules eXit" adenoard cordarone isoptin pronestyl xylocaine
IP joints are classified as hinge (ginglymus)
the knee and TMJ joints are classified as bicondylar
the hip and shoulder joints are classified as ball and socket
the first CMC is a _ joint saddle (sellar)
the wrists and metacarpophalangeal joints are ellipsoid (condylar)
atalantoaxial joint is pivot - trochoid
plane that divides the body into left and right sagittal
plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior coronal
plane that divides the body into superior and inferior portions horizontal or axial
the sole or posterior surface of the foot plantar
the top or anterior surface of the foot dodrsal
_ refers to the palm of the hand palmar
ventral recumbent the pt is lying face down
dorsal recumbent the pt is lying face up
for the AP thoracic spine the head should be placed toward the anode end
for the ap and lateral femur the head should be toward the cathode end
the different in density between adjacent areas of a radiographic image is termed contrast
the trachea is anterior to the esophagus
Created by: macummins1
 

 



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