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micro exam 3
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What best describes a blister? | Separation of epidermis from dermis due to damage |
| Which characteristic of the skin contributes MOST to preventing microbial growth? | Dry, salty surface |
| Keratin protects the skin primarily because it: | Is water-repellent and damage-resistant |
| Which organism is commonly part of the normal skin microbiota? | Staphylococcus epidermidis |
| Why are Staphylococcus species well adapted to the skin? | They are highly salt tolerant |
| Which organism causes MRSA infections? | Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus |
| Impetigo is commonly caused by: | Staphylococcus aureus and/or Streptococcus pyogenes |
| Gas gangrene is most often caused by: | Clostridium perfringens |
| Which disease is caused by varicella-zoster virus? | Chickenpox |
| Which condition is associated with Human papillomavirus (HPV)? | Wartlike eruptions |
| Which organism causes cutaneous anthrax? | Bacillus anthracis |
| Ringworm (tinea) infections remain superficial because they feed on: | Keratin |
| Which type of pathogen most commonly spreads through droplet transmission in skin-related diseases? | Viruses |
| Which of the following diseases is included in the MMRV vaccine? | Measles |
| HPV contributes to cancer by: | Encoding oncogenes that disrupt cell regulation |
| Leishmaniasis is caused by: | Protozoa transmitted by sand flies |
| Cutaneous anthrax is characterized by: | Black eschar |
| MRSA infections are most common in: | Children and young to middle-aged adults in communities |
| Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) is useful because it: | Selects for salt-tolerant bacteria |
| The coagulase test identifies Staphylococcus aureus because it: | Clots plasma |
| Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is caused by: | Exfoliative toxins A and B |
| The conjunctiva is best described as: | A membrane covering the eye and lining eyelids |
| Tears protect the eye because they contain: | Lysozyme and Lactoferrin |
| The cornea is important because it: | Has regenerating epithelial layers |
| Bacterial conjunctivitis typically produces: | Milky exudate |
| Viral conjunctivitis typically produces: | Clear watery discharge |
| River blindness involves: | Bacteria carried by a worm |
| Neonatal conjunctivitis differs because it is often caused by: | Birth canal infections (STIs) |
| Why is rubella dangerous during pregnancy? | It crosses the placenta |
| What is Staphylococcus epidermidis classified as? | bacteria |
| What is Malassezia classified as? | yeast |
| What is Corynebacterium classified as? | bacteria |
| What is Candida classified as? | yeast |
| What is MRSA's causative agent? | Staphylococcus aureus (resistant strain) |
| What is Gas gangrene's causative agent? | Clostridium perfringens |
| What is Impetigo's causative agent? | Staphylococcus aureus / Streptococcus pyogenes |
| What is Cutaneous anthrax's causative agent? | Bacillus anthracis |
| What is chickenpox's causative agent? | Varicella-zoster virus |
| MSA identifies: | High salt, mannitol fermentation |
| Blood agar identifies: | Shows hemolysis |
| Coagulase test identifies: | Detects plasma clotting |
| What is function of the conjunctiva? | Lubricates and protects eye surface |
| What is function of the cornea? | Transparent dome over iris |
| What is function of the tears? | Contains lysozyme |
| 1. Which structure provides physical protection to the brain and spinal cord? | Bony casing (skull and vertebrae) |
| 2. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) primarily functions to: | Cushion the brain against impact |
| 3. The blood-brain barrier is best described as: | A selective barrier limiting passage into the CNS |
| 4. Which cells act as immune defenders within the CNS? | Microglia |
| 5. Why is treatment of CNS infections difficult? | Drugs cannot easily cross the blood-brain barrier |
| 6. What is the normal biota of the nervous system? | None present |
| 7. Which organism is a common cause of bacterial meningitis? | Neisseria meningitidis |
| 8. Which organism can cross the placenta and cause meningitis? | Listeria monocytogenes |
| 9. Which fungus commonly causes meningitis in AIDS patients? | Cryptococcus neoformans |
| 10. Which viral group causes about 90% of viral meningitis cases? | Enteroviruses |
| 11. Which organism is the leading cause of neonatal meningitis? | Streptococcus agalactiae |
| 12. How is neonatal meningitis most commonly transmitted? | Birth canal transmission |
| 13. Which of the following is a common symptom of meningitis? | Stiff neck |
| 14. Increased white blood cells in CSF indicate: | CNS infection |
| 15. Neisseria meningitidis avoids phagocytosis using: | Capsule |
| 16. Which virulence factor allows Neisseria meningitidis to destroy mucosal antibodies? | IgA protease |
| 17. Streptococcus pneumoniae is classified as: | Gram-positive cocci in chains |
| 18. Which virulence factor helps Streptococcus pneumoniae avoid phagocytosis? | Capsule |
| 19. The term “fastidious” means: | Requires specific nutrients |
| 20. Listeria monocytogenes is described as: | Non-fastidious |
| 21. The most common cause of meningitis is: | Viral |
| 22. The most deadly form of meningitis is: | Bacterial |
| 23. Naegleria fowleri infection is associated with: | Warm freshwater |
| 24. Naegleria fowleri enters the body through the: | Nasal passages |
| 25. Acanthamoeba can enter through: | Broken skin or mucous membranes |
| 26. The main host for Toxoplasma gondii is: | Cats |
| 27. Which virus is important in your geographic area (U.S.)? | West Nile virus |
| 28. Best prevention for arbovirus infections includes: | Avoiding mosquitoes |
| 29. Tetanus is caused by: | Clostridium tetani |
| 30. Botulism is caused by: | Clostridium botulinum |
| 31. The toxin used in Botox is: | Botulinum exotoxin |
| Tetanus results in: | Spastic paralysis |
| 33. Botulism results in: | Flaccid paralysis |
| 34. Death from tetanus or botulism is often due to: | Respiratory failure |
| 35. Which disease is prevented by a toxoid vaccine? | Tetanus |
| 36. The DTaP vaccine protects against: | Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis |
| 37. Rabies post-exposure vaccination is given because: | Infection progresses slowly |
| ______ Physical protection | Skull |
| ______ Immune defense cells | Microglia |
| ______ Cushioning fluid | CSF |
| ______ Selective permeability barrier | Blood-brain barrier |
| ______ Most viral meningitis | Enteroviruses |
| ______ Neonatal meningitis | Streptococcus agalactiae |
| ______ AIDS-related fungal meningitis | Cryptococcus neoformans |
| ______ Bacterial meningitis (droplet transmission) | Neisseria meningitidis |
| ______ Destroys RBCs | Alpha-hemolysin |
| ______ Avoids phagocytosis | Capsule |
| ______ Causes inflammation (Gram-negative) | Endotoxin |
| ______ Breaks down antibodies | IgA protease |
| ______ Trypanosoma brucei | African sleeping sickness |
| ______ Rabies virus | Rabies |
| ______ Clostridium botulinum | Botulism |
| ______ Clostridium tetani | Tetanus |
| ______ Mosquito transmission | West Nile virus |
| ______ Warm freshwater, nasal entry | Naegleria fowleri |
| ______ Cats as host | Toxoplasma gondii |
| ______ Enters via skin or mucosa | Acanthamoeba |
| 1. Which sequence correctly orders the layers of the heart from outermost to innermost? | Epicardium → Myocardium → Endocardium |
| 2. Which layer of the heart is associated with endocarditis? | Endocardium |
| 3. A key natural defense of the cardiovascular system is: | High number of white blood cells in circulation |
| 4. Which statement best describes the normal microbiota of the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems? | They are sterile with only transient microbes present |
| 5. Why might Staphylococcus epidermidis appear in a blood culture without causing infection? | It is normal skin flora introduced during sample collection |
| 6. Which organism is the most common cause of acute endocarditis? | Staphylococcus aureus |
| 7. Damage to heart valves increases risk for subacute endocarditis because: | It creates rough surfaces and turbulent flow that allow microbes to attach |
| 8. Which disease is caused by a protozoan? | Malaria |
| 9. Which form of plague is transmitted by inhalation? | Pneumonic |
| 10. Why is pneumonic plague highly contagious? | It spreads via respiratory droplets |
| 11. Which region of the United States is endemic for plague? | Four Corners region |
| 12. Tularemia is most commonly associated with: | Rabbits and tick bites |
| 13. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by: | Epstein-Barr virus |
| 14. Why is infectious mononucleosis called the “kissing disease”? | Spread through saliva |
| 15. Why are many people infected with EBV without symptoms? | It has a long incubation and is often asymptomatic |
| 16. Sepsis most commonly begins with: | An untreated localized infection spreading to the bloodstream |
| 17. The most common cause of sepsis is: | Gram-negative bacteria releasing endotoxin |
| 18. What component of Gram-negative bacteria contributes to septic shock? | Lipid A (endotoxin) |
| 19. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by: | Epstein-Barr virus |
| 20. Why is it called the “kissing disease”? | Spread through saliva |
| 21. What is observed in mononucleosis that explains its name? | Increase in mononuclear cells |
| 22.. Which disease can be identified using a stained blood smear? | Malaria |
| 23. Why is COVID-19 included in the cardiovascular chapter? | It spreads through the bloodstream and affects the cardiovascular system |
| 24. Sepsis typically begins when: | A localized infection enters the bloodstream |
| 25. The MOST common cause of sepsis is: | Gram-negative bacteria |
| 26. Which component of Gram-negative bacteria causes septic shock? | Lipid A endotoxin |
| 27. What is a major effect of endotoxin release in sepsis? | Drop in blood pressure leading to shock |
| 28. Hemorrhagic fevers are characterized by: | Internal bleeding and vascular damage |
| ___ Yersinia pestis | Plague |
| ___ Francisella tularensis | Tularemia |
| ___ Borrelia burgdorferi | Lyme disease |
| ___ Bacillus anthracis | Anthrax |
| ___ Trypanosoma cruzi | Chagas disease |
| ___ Plasmodium | Malaria |
| ___ Infection of lymph nodes (buboes), transmitted by flea bite | Bubonic plague |
| ___ Infection of lungs, spread by respiratory droplets | Pneumonic plague |
| ___ Infection in bloodstream with high mortality | Septicemic plague |
| ___ Tick vector | Lyme disease |
| ___ Saliva transmission | Infectious mononucleosis |
| ___ Mosquito vector | Malaria |
| ___ Rabbit reservoir | Tularemia |
| ___ Drop in blood pressure and organ perfusion | Shock |
| ___ Lipid A from Gram-negative bacteria | Endotoxin |
| ___ Proper wound care and early treatment | Prevention |
| ___ Initial infection site (skin, urinary, etc.) | Source infection |