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micro exam 3

QuestionAnswer
What best describes a blister? Separation of epidermis from dermis due to damage
Which characteristic of the skin contributes MOST to preventing microbial growth? Dry, salty surface
Keratin protects the skin primarily because it: Is water-repellent and damage-resistant
Which organism is commonly part of the normal skin microbiota? Staphylococcus epidermidis
Why are Staphylococcus species well adapted to the skin? They are highly salt tolerant
Which organism causes MRSA infections? Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
Impetigo is commonly caused by: Staphylococcus aureus and/or Streptococcus pyogenes
Gas gangrene is most often caused by: Clostridium perfringens
Which disease is caused by varicella-zoster virus? Chickenpox
Which condition is associated with Human papillomavirus (HPV)? Wartlike eruptions
Which organism causes cutaneous anthrax? Bacillus anthracis
Ringworm (tinea) infections remain superficial because they feed on: Keratin
Which type of pathogen most commonly spreads through droplet transmission in skin-related diseases? Viruses
Which of the following diseases is included in the MMRV vaccine? Measles
HPV contributes to cancer by: Encoding oncogenes that disrupt cell regulation
Leishmaniasis is caused by: Protozoa transmitted by sand flies
Cutaneous anthrax is characterized by: Black eschar
MRSA infections are most common in: Children and young to middle-aged adults in communities
Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) is useful because it: Selects for salt-tolerant bacteria
The coagulase test identifies Staphylococcus aureus because it: Clots plasma
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is caused by: Exfoliative toxins A and B
The conjunctiva is best described as: A membrane covering the eye and lining eyelids
Tears protect the eye because they contain: Lysozyme and Lactoferrin
The cornea is important because it: Has regenerating epithelial layers
Bacterial conjunctivitis typically produces: Milky exudate
Viral conjunctivitis typically produces: Clear watery discharge
River blindness involves: Bacteria carried by a worm
Neonatal conjunctivitis differs because it is often caused by: Birth canal infections (STIs)
Why is rubella dangerous during pregnancy? It crosses the placenta
What is Staphylococcus epidermidis classified as? bacteria
What is Malassezia classified as? yeast
What is Corynebacterium classified as? bacteria
What is Candida classified as? yeast
What is MRSA's causative agent? Staphylococcus aureus (resistant strain)
What is Gas gangrene's causative agent? Clostridium perfringens
What is Impetigo's causative agent? Staphylococcus aureus / Streptococcus pyogenes
What is Cutaneous anthrax's causative agent? Bacillus anthracis
What is chickenpox's causative agent? Varicella-zoster virus
MSA identifies: High salt, mannitol fermentation
Blood agar identifies: Shows hemolysis
Coagulase test identifies: Detects plasma clotting
What is function of the conjunctiva? Lubricates and protects eye surface
What is function of the cornea? Transparent dome over iris
What is function of the tears? Contains lysozyme
1. Which structure provides physical protection to the brain and spinal cord? Bony casing (skull and vertebrae)
2. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) primarily functions to: Cushion the brain against impact
3. The blood-brain barrier is best described as: A selective barrier limiting passage into the CNS
4. Which cells act as immune defenders within the CNS? Microglia
5. Why is treatment of CNS infections difficult? Drugs cannot easily cross the blood-brain barrier
6. What is the normal biota of the nervous system? None present
7. Which organism is a common cause of bacterial meningitis? Neisseria meningitidis
8. Which organism can cross the placenta and cause meningitis? Listeria monocytogenes
9. Which fungus commonly causes meningitis in AIDS patients? Cryptococcus neoformans
10. Which viral group causes about 90% of viral meningitis cases? Enteroviruses
11. Which organism is the leading cause of neonatal meningitis? Streptococcus agalactiae
12. How is neonatal meningitis most commonly transmitted? Birth canal transmission
13. Which of the following is a common symptom of meningitis? Stiff neck
14. Increased white blood cells in CSF indicate: CNS infection
15. Neisseria meningitidis avoids phagocytosis using: Capsule
16. Which virulence factor allows Neisseria meningitidis to destroy mucosal antibodies? IgA protease
17. Streptococcus pneumoniae is classified as: Gram-positive cocci in chains
18. Which virulence factor helps Streptococcus pneumoniae avoid phagocytosis? Capsule
19. The term “fastidious” means: Requires specific nutrients
20. Listeria monocytogenes is described as: Non-fastidious
21. The most common cause of meningitis is: Viral
22. The most deadly form of meningitis is: Bacterial
23. Naegleria fowleri infection is associated with: Warm freshwater
24. Naegleria fowleri enters the body through the: Nasal passages
25. Acanthamoeba can enter through: Broken skin or mucous membranes
26. The main host for Toxoplasma gondii is: Cats
27. Which virus is important in your geographic area (U.S.)? West Nile virus
28. Best prevention for arbovirus infections includes: Avoiding mosquitoes
29. Tetanus is caused by: Clostridium tetani
30. Botulism is caused by: Clostridium botulinum
31. The toxin used in Botox is: Botulinum exotoxin
Tetanus results in: Spastic paralysis
33. Botulism results in: Flaccid paralysis
34. Death from tetanus or botulism is often due to: Respiratory failure
35. Which disease is prevented by a toxoid vaccine? Tetanus
36. The DTaP vaccine protects against: Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis
37. Rabies post-exposure vaccination is given because: Infection progresses slowly
______ Physical protection Skull
______ Immune defense cells Microglia
______ Cushioning fluid CSF
______ Selective permeability barrier Blood-brain barrier
______ Most viral meningitis Enteroviruses
______ Neonatal meningitis Streptococcus agalactiae
______ AIDS-related fungal meningitis Cryptococcus neoformans
______ Bacterial meningitis (droplet transmission) Neisseria meningitidis
______ Destroys RBCs Alpha-hemolysin
______ Avoids phagocytosis Capsule
______ Causes inflammation (Gram-negative) Endotoxin
______ Breaks down antibodies IgA protease
______ Trypanosoma brucei African sleeping sickness
______ Rabies virus Rabies
______ Clostridium botulinum Botulism
______ Clostridium tetani Tetanus
______ Mosquito transmission West Nile virus
______ Warm freshwater, nasal entry Naegleria fowleri
______ Cats as host Toxoplasma gondii
______ Enters via skin or mucosa Acanthamoeba
1. Which sequence correctly orders the layers of the heart from outermost to innermost? Epicardium → Myocardium → Endocardium
2. Which layer of the heart is associated with endocarditis? Endocardium
3. A key natural defense of the cardiovascular system is: High number of white blood cells in circulation
4. Which statement best describes the normal microbiota of the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems? They are sterile with only transient microbes present
5. Why might Staphylococcus epidermidis appear in a blood culture without causing infection? It is normal skin flora introduced during sample collection
6. Which organism is the most common cause of acute endocarditis? Staphylococcus aureus
7. Damage to heart valves increases risk for subacute endocarditis because: It creates rough surfaces and turbulent flow that allow microbes to attach
8. Which disease is caused by a protozoan? Malaria
9. Which form of plague is transmitted by inhalation? Pneumonic
10. Why is pneumonic plague highly contagious? It spreads via respiratory droplets
11. Which region of the United States is endemic for plague? Four Corners region
12. Tularemia is most commonly associated with: Rabbits and tick bites
13. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by: Epstein-Barr virus
14. Why is infectious mononucleosis called the “kissing disease”? Spread through saliva
15. Why are many people infected with EBV without symptoms? It has a long incubation and is often asymptomatic
16. Sepsis most commonly begins with: An untreated localized infection spreading to the bloodstream
17. The most common cause of sepsis is: Gram-negative bacteria releasing endotoxin
18. What component of Gram-negative bacteria contributes to septic shock? Lipid A (endotoxin)
19. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by: Epstein-Barr virus
20. Why is it called the “kissing disease”? Spread through saliva
21. What is observed in mononucleosis that explains its name? Increase in mononuclear cells
22.. Which disease can be identified using a stained blood smear? Malaria
23. Why is COVID-19 included in the cardiovascular chapter? It spreads through the bloodstream and affects the cardiovascular system
24. Sepsis typically begins when: A localized infection enters the bloodstream
25. The MOST common cause of sepsis is: Gram-negative bacteria
26. Which component of Gram-negative bacteria causes septic shock? Lipid A endotoxin
27. What is a major effect of endotoxin release in sepsis? Drop in blood pressure leading to shock
28. Hemorrhagic fevers are characterized by: Internal bleeding and vascular damage
___ Yersinia pestis Plague
___ Francisella tularensis Tularemia
___ Borrelia burgdorferi Lyme disease
___ Bacillus anthracis Anthrax
___ Trypanosoma cruzi Chagas disease
___ Plasmodium Malaria
___ Infection of lymph nodes (buboes), transmitted by flea bite Bubonic plague
___ Infection of lungs, spread by respiratory droplets Pneumonic plague
___ Infection in bloodstream with high mortality Septicemic plague
___ Tick vector Lyme disease
___ Saliva transmission Infectious mononucleosis
___ Mosquito vector Malaria
___ Rabbit reservoir Tularemia
___ Drop in blood pressure and organ perfusion Shock
___ Lipid A from Gram-negative bacteria Endotoxin
___ Proper wound care and early treatment Prevention
___ Initial infection site (skin, urinary, etc.) Source infection
Created by: michelle57
 

 



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