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Peds Exam 3
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| adevntitious sounds | wheezing, crackles, stridor |
| respiratory infections | account for the majority of acute illnesses in children |
| croup syndrome | an infection of the epiglottis or larynx |
| infants younger than ______ have maternal antibodies | 3 months |
| infants are obligatory nose breathers until ______ | 3-6 months |
| the oxygen consumption of children is ______ that of adults | 2x |
| _____ develops with age and repeated exposure to organisms | immunity |
| RSV season | winter to early spring |
| asthmatic bronchitis is more frequent in _____ weather | cold |
| signs of respiratory illness | - poor feeding - anorexia - vomiting - diarrhea - abdominal pain - cough - sore throat - nasal blockage / discharge - respiratory sounds |
| acute nasopharyngitis | the "common cold" caused by a virus and usually shows symptoms of - runny nose - fever - cough |
| care for acute nasopharyngitis | - elevate HOB - suction - saline nasal drops - cool mist vaporization - maintain fluid intake |
| the max amount of days to use nasal decongestant drops | 3 |
| acute infectious pharyngitis | "sore throat" caused by various bacteria and viruses that usually shows like - sore throat - strawberry tongue - rash (scarlett fever) - swollen lymph nodes - pain |
| group A beta hemolytic streptococcus | "strep throat", can increase the risk for rheumatic fever |
| diagnosis of acute infectious pharyngitis | throat swab |
| treatment for acute infectious pharyngitis | oral penicillin (10-day course) |
| provide comfort with a soft to liquid diet, warm saline gargle, warm fluids, lozenges, and medications to a patient with _____ | tonsilitis |
| tonsillectomy patients should be monitored postoperatively for signs of ____ | - hemorrhage - vomiting bright red blood - restlessness - frequent swallowing - tachycardia - pallor |
| influenza | the "flu" which is caused by a virus and shows with symptoms of - dry, sore throat - dry cough - lethargy - myalgia - sudden onset of fever and chills |
| patients with the flu should be monitored for secondary infections like _____ | otitis media |
| OME (otitis media with effusion) | presence of fluid in the middle ear without symptoms |
| AOM (acute otitis media) | presence of fluid in the middle with acute signs of illness |
| prevention of otitis media | - pneumonia vaccine - feed in the upright position (no bottle propping) - discontinue pacifier use after the first 6 months - avoid exposure to passive smoke |
| myringotomy | surgical incision into the eardrum to relieve pressure |
| tympanosomy | placement of tubes into the eardrum |
| croup | acute laryngotacheobronchitis (LBT), the most common croup syndrome usually caused by parainfluenza virus |
| croup symptoms | - inspiratory stridor - suprasternal retractions - barking seal-cough that gets worse at night - increasing respiratory distress |
| ____ and _____ are used to treat croup | epinephrine and steriods |
| epiglottitis is considered a _____ | a medical emergency |
| the 3 cardinal signs of epiglottis | - absence of cough - presence of drooling - agitation |
| examination with a tongue depressor is contraindicated for patients with _____ | epiglottis |
| bronchiolitis | an acute viral infection causing inflammation in the upper airway |
| ____ is the moat common cause of bronchiolitis | RSV |
| synagis | a monthly injection for preemies or at-risk infants that is sued to prevent bronchiolitis |
| the most important nursing intervention for patients with bronchiolitis is ______ | frequent suctioning |
| symptoms of foreign body aspiration | - sudden coughing or choking - dyspnea - stridor - wheezing |
| abdominal thrusts can be performed on children _____ | > 1 years old |
| _____ is the most common chronic respiratory in childhood | asthma |
| asthma | chronic inflammation of the lungs due to hyper-responsiveness |
| symptoms of asthma | - wheezing - breathlessness - retractions - chest tightness - cough - prolonged expiration |
| asthma is diagnosed using a _____ | pulmonary function test |
| albuterol | short acting that should be used to treat an asthma attack, and not to be used daily |
| salmeterol | long acting that should be used to prevent asthma and used daily |
| inhalers can cause _____ | thrush, rinse mouth after use |
| no air movement in asthma patients is called _____ | silent chest |
| status asthmaticus | respiratory distress that continues despite vigorous theraputic measures |
| emergency treatment for status asthmaticus | epinephrine 0.01ml/kg subQ (3 dose max) |
| cystic fibrosis (CF) | an exocrine gland dysfunction with multisystem involvement |
| CF is an ____ trait | autosomal recessive |
| a ______ test is used to diagnose CF | sweat chloride test |
| the first symptom of CF is usually _____ | meconium ileus |
| stagnant mucous provides a favorable environment for ______ growth | bacterial |
| _____ should be given before meals and at bedtime to remove mucous with vibration | CPT (chest physiotherapy) |
| steatorrhea | excretion of excess fat in the stool, characterized by pale, bulky, foul-smelling, and often floating, oily stools |
| ______ is a capsule that is sprinkled on flood before meals that helps absorb food | pancreatic enzymes |
| CF diet | high protein, high calorie, decreased salt intake |
| CF can lead to | DM |
| the main difference between respiratory distress compared to respiratory failure is _____ | altered LOC |
| water intoxication | ingestion of large amounts of electrolyte-free water |
| the electrolyte _____ affects the brain | sodium |
| improperly mixed infant formula is the largest cause of _____ | water intoxication |
| the electrolyte _____ affects the heart | potassium |
| isotonic | fluid and electrolyte deficit is balanced |
| hypotonic | electrolyte deficit is greater than water deficit |
| hypertonic | water deficit is greater than electrolyte deficit |
| ____ is the most important determinant of dehydration | weight |
| severe dehydration causes | - cardiovascular instability - decreased/sluggish cap refill - depressed CNS |
| oral rehydration therapy (ORT) | used for mild to moderate dehydration |
| IV fluids are used for _____ dehydration | severe |
| oral rehydration solutions (ORS) | - pedialyte - juice/gatorade mixed with salt |
| a newborn should pass meconium within the first ____ hours | 24-36 hours |
| a high fiber diet is indicated for patients with _____ | constipation |
| hirschsprung disease | a congenital anomaly of absence of ganglion cells in the colon that leads to decreased intestinal motility and mechanical obstruction |
| hirschsprung disease is fixed with _____ | surgery |
| hirschsprung disease symptoms | - ribbon like stools - foul smelling stools |
| nursing interventions for patient's with hirschsprung disease | -colorectal irrigation with water -bowel irritation with GoLYTELY via NG -low residual diet (low fiber) -high-calorie, high-protein diet -stool softeners -antibiotics |
| patients who are vomitting should be fed _____ | small, frequent meals |
| gastroesophageal reflux (GER) | the transfer of gastric contents into the esophagus |
| therapeutic management of gastroesophageal reflux (GER) | -avoidance of certain foods -small, more frequent feedings -thickened feedings -positioning - meds |
| appendicitis | obstruction of the lumen of the appendix |
| symptoms of appendicitis | - generalized pain in the RLQ at mcburney's point - fever - decreased bowel sounds - nausea and vomiting - abdominal distension -increased WBC |
| sudden relief of pain for a patient with appendicitis indicates ____ | perforation |
| ulcerative colitis | inflammation of the colon/rectum |
| crohn's | inflammation in any part of he GI tract |
| bloody diarrhea could indicate ____ | inflammatory bowel disease |
| mouth ulcers could indicate ____ | crohn's |
| diet for inflammatory bowel disease | high protein, high calorie |
| patients with inflammatory bowel disease should be fed via ____ | enteral formulas to promote bowel rest |
| biliary atresia | progressive inflammatory process that results in complete bile duct obstruction |
| symptoms of biliary atresia | - jaundice - dark urine - gray stools |
| kasai portoenterostomy | shunts the obstructed bile out of the liver and into the intestines with the help of a surgically placed stent |
| surgical intervention for biliary atresia should be done before ____ | 2 months |
| cleft lip and cleft palate | facial malformations that occur during embryonic development due to a defect in cell migration |
| surgical repair of cleft lip is done at ____ | 2-3 months of age (before palate) |
| surgical repair of cleft palate is done at ____ | 6-12 months |
| the #1 priority after cleft lip and cleft palate repair is to_____ | protect the suture site |
| esophageal atresia | failure of the esophagus to develop as a continuous passage separate from the trachea (not connected) |
| tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) | failure of the esophagus to develop as a continuous passage separate from the trachea (incorrectly connected) |
| 3 C symptoms for EA/TEF | -coughing - choking - cynosis |
| frequent suctioning and NPO status are indicated for patient's with ____ | EA/TEF |
| hypertrophic pyloric stenosis | constriction of the pyloric sphincter due to muscle hypertrophy, nothing can exit the stomach |
| pyloric stenosis can be fixed with a _____ | pyloromyotomy |
| symptoms of pyloric stenosis | -pain - projectile vomiting -palpable olive shaped mass -visible gastric peristalsis waves |
| intussusception | telescoping of one portion of the intestine into another |
| symptoms of intussusception | - current jelly stools - sudden abdominal pain / inconsolable crying -vomiting -sausage shaped mass in the URQ |
| treatment for intussusception | air enema |
| the passage of normal stool indicates that _____ has been fixed, the HCP should be notified | intussusception |
| pH of urine | 5-9 |
| specific gravity of urine | 1.001 to 1.035 |
| hypospadias | congenital anomaly of the penis in which the urethra meatus open on the ventral surface (underside) |
| a patient with hypospadias should avoid _____ | circumcision |
| cryptorchidism | "undescended testes" |
| the ____ arise from the same tissue as the testes | kidneys |
| maintain the thigh suture after orichpexy surgery to prevent ____ | re-ascending |
| all febrile children 2 months to 24 months of age with no obvious cause of infection should be evaluated for a ______ | UTI |
| patients who are diagnosed with UTIs often should wear ____ | cotton underwear |
| urinary statis is the single most important factor influencing _____ occurrence | UTI |
| cystitis | inflammation of the bladder |
| urethritis | inflammation of the urethra |
| symptoms of an upper urinary tract infeciton | -fever - flank pain - chills |
| urosepsis | febrile UTI coexisting with systemic signs of bacterial illness, urinary pathogens in blood |
| diagnosis of UTI | dipstick |
| med used to treat UTI pain, burning, urgency, and frequency and turns the urine bright orange | pyridium |
| Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) | abnormal retrograde flow of the bladder urine into the ureters, where it becomes a reservoir for bacterial growth |
| ____ is the most common cause of recurring kidney infections | VUR |
| pylonephritis | inflammation and swelling of the kidney |
| symptoms of pylonephritis | - n/v - suprapubic or low back pain - costovertebral tenderness |
| minimal-change nephrotic syndrome (MSCN) | an autoimmune process that occurs 1 week after an immune assault and causes protein in the urine |
| symptoms of MSCN | -generalized edema and weight gain - proteinuria +2 - hyperalbuminuria -hypoalbuminemia -dark foamy frothy urine |
| diet for patient with MSCN | high calorie low protein and sodium restriction |
| treatment for MSCN | diet and steroids (prednisone) |
| acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) | an immune complex disease occurring after an infection that causes blood in the urine |
| APSGN symptoms | - generalized edema - HTN - oliguria - hematuria (tea/cola colored) - anemia |
| the first sign of improvement for APSGN is ____ | increased urine output |
| hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) | an acute renal disease that damages blood vessels, leading to red blood cell destruction (anemia) and low platelets |
| triad of symptoms for HUS | - hemolytic anemia - thrombocytopenia -renal injury |
| HUS is usually contracted from ____ | E. coli from undercooked meat or unpasteurized milk, or fruit juice, contaminated lettuce, or swimming in a contaminated pool |
| symptoms of HUS | -abdominal pain -vomiting -bloody diarrhea -HTN |
| AKI/ARF | kidneys are suddenly unable to regulate the volume and composition of urine (usually reversible) |
| symptoms of AKI/ARF | oliguria edema HTN |
| the most immediate threat of AKI/AKF is _____ | hyperkalemia and should be treated with kayexalate or dialysis |
| CKD/CRF | diseased kidneys cannot maintain the normal chemical structure of body fluids (irriversible) |
| symptoms of CKD/CRF | retention of waste products edema anemia weight loss poor appetite itchy skin |
| paritoneal dialysis | the preferred metho of dialysis for children, a warmed solution enters the peritoneal cavity by gravity and remains for a time before removal |
| hemodialysis | requires the creation of vascular access and special dialysis equipment (monitor for clots or infection) and achieved rapid correction of fluid |
| consciousness | the ability to respond to sensory stimuli and have subjective experiences |
| alertness | arousal-waking state with the ability to respond to stimuli |
| cognitive power | the ability to process stimuli and produce verbal and motor responses |
| unconsciousness | depressed cerebral function, inability to respond to stimuli, and subjective experiences |
| coma | a state of unconsciousness from which the person cannot be aroused with powerful stimuli |
| ____ is the earliest indicator of improvement or deterioration in neurological states | LOC |
| the GCS consists of these 3 assessments | eye verbal response motor response |
| GCS score range | 3-15 |
| doll's eyes | moving the patient's head side to side should cause the eyes to go in opposite directions |
| corneal reflex | touching the cornea with a cotton applicator should cause blinking |
| tonic neck | when the head is turned to the side, the same side arms and legs extend, opposite contract |
| babinski | toes flare when the sole is touched |
| a lack of response to painful stimuli must be ____ | reported immediately |
| ___ increases ICP | pain |
| significant alterations in LOC should be ____ | reported immediately |
| cerebral hypoxia lasting longer than ____ can cause irreversible brain damage | 4 minutes |
| suctioning can increase ____ | ICP |
| an _____ is used to measure ICP | intraventricular catheter |
| carefully monitor the level of the intraventricular catheter drainage bag, it should be kept at ____ level | ear |
| normal ICP | 5-15 |
| normal cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) | 60-100 |
| signs of increased ICP in infants | high pitch cry irritability, poor feeding scalp veins distended |
| macewen's sign | "crackpot sign", crackles heard on head palpation |
| signs of increased ICP in children | headache discoordination seizures blurred vision, diplopia personality changes |
| mannitol is an osmotic diuretic and used to treat ____ | cerebral edema |
| concussion | transient and reversible head injury |
| hallmark signs of a concussion | amnesia and confusion |
| contusion and lacerations | visible bruising and tearing of cerebral tissue |
| many skull fractures are the result of falls less than ____ feet | 3 |
| battle's sign | bruising over the mastoid bone several days following the incident |
| racoon eyes | bleeding around the orbit |
| hemotympanum | bleeding behind the tympanic membrane |
| patients who state they have a "runny nose" after a head injury actually have a ____ | CSF leakage |
| epidural hematoma (EDH) | bleeding into the space between the dura mater and skill (arterial bleed) |
| subdural hematoma (SDH) | bleeding between the dura mater and arachnoid space (venous bleed) |
| if a subdural hematoma (SDH) is found with retinal hemorrhage, the nurse should suspect _____ | shaken baby syndrome |
| parents should wake their child ever _____ hours after a head injury | 2 |
| drowning is the #1 cause of death for children ages _____ | 1 and older |
| drownings can occur in ____ quantities | small (pails, toilets, baths) |
| aspiration pneumonia occurs _____ hours after a submerging injury | 48-72 |
| bacterial meningitis | acute inflammation and exudation of the meninges due to infection |
| meningitis incidence has decreased due to _____ | hib, pneumococcal, and meningococcal vaccines |
| the most common sign of bacterial meningitis is _____ | nuchal rigidity (neck stiffness) |
| the definitive diagnostic test for bacterial meningitis is ____ | lumbar puncture |
| _____ is the #1 priority for a patient suspected of bacterial meningitis | isolation and antibiotic therapy |
| aseptic (viral) meningitis is frequently associated with ____ | other diseases like measles, mumps, herpesvirus, infection, leukemia |
| encephalitis | an inflammatory process of the CNS, with altered function of the brain and spinal cord that can cause devastating neurological damage |
| encephalitis is commonly caused by _____ | HSV or west nile |
| symptoms of encephalitis | headaches dizziness disorientation, stupor, coma seizures and spasticity |
| acyclovir is used to treat | encephalitis |
| the most common neurological dysfunction in children is febrile ____ | seizures |
| device used to monitor seizures | EEG |
| partial seziure | localized, small area of the brain |
| simple partial seizure | lasts less than 30 seconds and can occur at any age |
| complex partial seizure | lasts more than 30 seconds and occurs in children ages 3 years or older |
| generalized seizure | affects both brain hemispheres and shows symptoms like eye rolling LOC jerking motions foaming at the mouth incontinence |
| absence seizure | usually go unnoticed and causes temporary loss of awareness, symptoms like blank stares eye fluttering |
| epilepsy | two or more unprovoked seizures |
| drug therapy that is preferred for children with epilepsy | monotherapy |
| side effects of epilepsy meds | sleepiness change in mood change in vision ataxia |
| vagus nerve stimulation for patients with epilepsy uses ____ | magnet placement |
| children can be taken off of seizure meds once they are ____ | 2 years seizure free |
| avoid discontinuing seizure meds during ____ | puberty |
| rectal diazepam or intranasal midazolam available for _____ | intractable seizures |
| status epilepticus | seizure(s) lasting more than 5 minutes or a series of seizures in which the patient does not regain a premorbid level of consciousness |
| a _____ seizure occurs when the temperature rapidly increases, not after | febrile |
| call 911 if a seizure lasts longer than ____ minutes | 5 |
| hydrocephalus | imbalance in the production and absorption of CSF in the ventricular system |
| symptoms of hydrocephalus | Head enlargement Bulging fontanelles Dilated scalp veins Macewen sign: cracked pot sound Frontal protrusion Setting sun sign Signs of ICP |
| ______ should be monitored for patients with hydrocephalus | head circumference |
| treat hydrocephalus with a ______ placement | shunt |
| signs of a shunt infection | Fever Vomiting Decreased responsiveness Seizure activity |
| if a patient with a shunt experiences a head injury or shut infection signs appear _____ | notify the HCP |