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Vet 240

Midterm

QuestionAnswer
Which of the following drugs are NOT a-2 agonists Yohimbine, Atipmaezole
What is the name and function for cranial nerve VII None of these
Which of the following are NOT considerations when creating an anesthetic protocol for a patient The technician bears ultimate legal responsibility for prescribing anesthetic drugs to animals
What is the function of cranial nerve XII Motor
During periods of hypotension preload is decreased. The body maintains cardiac output (CO) by increasing heart rate (HR) True
An anticholinergic drug would cause a/an in "SLUDGE" Decrease
"Cardiac afterload" can also be thought of as a function of systemic vascular resistance True
A patient assessed an ASA Grade I may require or should receive which of the following Standard protocols and techniques
During this stage of anesthesia the patient may experience excitement prior to losing consciousness. Exaggerated reflexes are common. The patient will lose control of voluntary movement, and paddling, vocalizing and struggling can occur Stage II
A patient with 10% dehydration would exhibit which of the following clinical signs Loss of skin turgor with extremely dry MM. Weak, thready pulses; hypotension, severe enophthalmus
Which of the following endotracheal tubes can be heat-sterilized with steam from an autoclave Silicone tubes
For which of the following patients would it be advantageous to use a laryngeal mask airway All of the above
What can influence the anesthetic recovery period All of the above
In a pug, the endotracheal tube should be removed Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway
Which of the following patients would be of greatest concern regarding the patent airway when anesthesia is being considered Brachycephalic breeds
With sufficient stimulation, a patient be aroused from Sedation, Narcosis, Hypnosis
Is the blood pressure within the intrathoracic portion of the cranial or caudal Vena Cava Central Venus pressure
This is the force acting on a muscle just before contraction, and is dependent on ventricular filling Preload
This is the intrinsic ability of cardiac muscle to develop force for a given muscle length Contractility
This is the tension against which the ventricle must contract Afterload
This is the complete series of events that happen in the heart during one heart beat Cardiac cycle
Which of the following terms refers to a drug-induced central nervous system depression and drowsiness that varies in intensity from light to deep Sedation
What is the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status Classification system rating for a patient that is anemic or moderately dehydrated Class 3
What is the stage of anesthesia when you see breath holding, vocalization, and involuntary movement of the limbs Stage II
Recommended fasting times to withhold food prior to anesthesia in dogs and cats are 8 to 12 hours
Physical examinations are an important step when assessing the patient's risk factor. Which of the following statements is incorrect because it refers to PE findings A dog with a body condition score of 8/9 will require more anesthetic per unit body weight than a dog of the same breed with a body condition score of 5/9
An intravenous catheter should be Large enough to allow adequate fluid delivery in the event of an emergency
What can pale mucous membranes indicate in a veterinary patient Vasoconstriction because of drugs
Colloids are small molecules which readily leave the vascular space. They provide water, electrolytes and alkalinizing agents False
Which of the following does not pertain to circulatory shock Can be treated with colloid fluids administered as fast as possible
When performing intermittent positive pressure ventilation or a pressure check on your anesthesia machine, the manometer should never read higher than 20 cm H2O
Patients are fasted prior to anesthesia for which of the following reasons A and C
Obstructive shock is NOT caused by which of the following conditions About hemmorhage
Which of the following would NOT be a reason for fasting a patient prior to surgery To promote hypoglycemia in a neonatal or critical patient
A patient's previous medical history should include which of the following A and C
Always remember to completely close the pop-off valve AFTER performing a pressure check / leak test on your anesthetic machine False
A patient with 8% dehydration would exhibit which of the following clinical signs Moderate skin turgor with dry mucous membranes, a weak pulse accompanied by tachycardia; enophthalmus
Intravenous (IV) catheters are placed in anesthetic patients to safely and easily administer both induction agents and IV fluids True
Which of the following are requirements for informed consent All of these
Some anesthetic drugs may not be as safe or as effective in anxious or aggressive animals as they would be in a calm or docile animal True
Ruminant patients should never have water withheld prior to anesthesia, as it would increase their risk of developing bloat False
Obese animals may experience problems with which of the following both before and during anesthesia All of these
How is maintenance fluid rate calculated None of these
Anesthetic maintenance CANNOT be achieved using a drug administered via intramuscular (IM) route True
Premedications, or "pre-meds", can help decrease the total dose of other anesthetic drugs by All of these
Regarding balanced multimodal analgesia, which of the following are NOT true Requires larger doses of drugs
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID's) that select for cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) are preferred for managing pain and inflammation True
Regular use of acetylsalicylic acid has been shown to be as safe, if not safer, than veterinary-specific non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) False
Which of the following statements applies to neuropathic pain Described as a burning or tingling sensation
Which of the following non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) selective None of these
Liver failure has been associated with repeated oral dosing of diazepam in cats True
Neuropathic pain is described as a sharp, throbbing sensation False
Which of the following classes of drugs would NOT be considered a premedication Inhalant anesthetic agents
Which of the following statements regarding opioid drugs is true Opioids are very potent analgesics
Which of the following properties of meloxicam makes it an excellent choice for managing chronic pain and inflammation Meloxicam can be very easily titrated to the lowest effective oral dose
Which opioid receptor has the most clinically relevant analgesic effects None of these
In the United States deracoxib is labelled for use in which of the following species Canine
Which of the following statements regarding diazepam administration is true Can be painful when administered intramuscularly (IM)
Grapiprant or Galliprant, are newer COX-inhibiting drugs labelled for use in treating canine osteoarthritis False
Which of the following effects pertain to opioid drugs All of these
Lidocaine is a safe and effective antiarrhythmic agent when administered IV in dogs and cats False
Which of the following are NOT disadvantages of mask induction None of these
Which of the following statements regarding alfaxalone is NOT true Alfaxalone is contraindicated for use in sighthounds
Intramuscular (IM) induction agents are convenient, as they can be easily titrated to effect False
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of endotracheal intubation Increases anatomic dead space
The "Magill Eye" near the bevel of the ET tube allows for gas exchange if the end of the tube is occluded False
Which of the following aspects of patient care are NOT important concerns of the veterinary technician during the induction period Ensure that the endotracheal (ET) tube is in place and properly deflated
The standard "triple drip" protocol for equine patients contains which combination of drugs Xylazine, ketamine, guaifenesin
Which of the following statements regarding bolus induction is NOT true The total dose administered may be higher than that of a titration
Etomidate is typically reserved for use in critically ill patients True
The pharynx is the only portion of the airway(s) that is involved in gas exchange False
Cyclohexamine dissociative agents can cause seizures in cats when used as sole agents True
Propofol / Propofol 28 would be contraindicated in which of the following patients or conditions All of these
Malignant hyperthermia can be seen with administration of which class of drug Cyclohexamine dissociative agents
Supraglottic airway devices allow an anesthetist to secure a patient's airway more rapidly, but cause more tracheal damage and irritation than a traditional ET tube False
The pulmonary veins are the only blood vessels which carry deoxygenated blood away from the heart False
Which of the following statements regarding controlled substances is NOT true All of these
What is the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve Both
Which of the following pertains to cardiac preload All of these
Malignant hyperthermia can be seen with administration of which class of drug Cyclohexamine dissociative agents
Grapiprant or Galliprant, are newer COX-inhibiting drugs labelled for use in treating canine osteoarthritis False
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID's) that select for cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) are preferred for managing pain and inflammation True
Created by: Scoots223
 

 



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