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RPA UPGRADE
SUMTOTAL DATA
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| A tailwind of ___knots increases stopping distance by ____ percent. | 10 knots ; 21 percent |
| The Jetstream forms at the ______. The ________ is the temperature inversion layer where radiation from the sun warms the air more than the long wave radiation from the surface | Tropopause ; Tropopause |
| When we operate around the Jetstream and the tropopause, what is a concern? | turbulance |
| What does TAPS stand for on WSI | Turbulence Auto Pirep System |
| Avoid thunderstorms by ____ miles | 25 miles |
| If we have to overfly a thunderstorm and we are IMC what altitude should we clear it by? | 20% of radar cell height |
| If we have to overfly a thunderstorm and we are VMC what altitude should we clear it by? | 1000 feet for every 10 knots of wind speed at the cloud top. |
| Where does the greatest possibility of lightning strikes exist? | Between 5000 and 10,000 feet when the OAT is between -10C and +10C |
| What are the four common sources of low-level windshear? | 1. frontal activity 2. thunderstorms 3. Temperature inversions 4. surface obstructions |
| Do not takeoff or land if these occur within 15NM of the airport: | 1. Microburst Alert Issued 2. Unable to maintain 3NM separation or more than 1000 feet vertically AGL from sever weather 3. In the pilots judgement it is not safe to continue |
| Critical surfaces must be free of ______ frost, ice, snow or slush | adhering (CFR 121.629) |
| How must the engine be deiced if there is ice on the fan blades? | Heated air, contact OPS |
| Where is a frost layer permited? | 1. Provided it does not exceed 1/8 inch it is permitted on the underwing surfaces 2. Light rime or thin hoarfrost is permitted on the upper surface of the fuselage provided all vents and ports are clear and unobstructed |
| TAF Abbreviations: KT | Knot |
| TAF Abbreviations: G | Gust |
| TAF Abbreviations: V | Variable |
| TAF Abbreviations: VRB | Variable |
| TAF Abbreviations: SM | Statute Miles |
| TAF Abbreviations: BR | Mist |
| TAF Abbreviations: DU | Widespread Dust |
| TAF Abbreviations: FG | Fog |
| TAF Abbreviations: FU | Smoke |
| TAF Abbreviations: PY | Spray |
| TAF Abbreviations: HZ | Haze |
| TAF Abbreviations: SA | Sand |
| TAF Abbreviations: VA | Volcanic Ash |
| TAF Abbreviations: FT | Feet |
| TAF Abbreviations: M | Less than |
| TAF Abbreviations: P | More than |
| TAF Abbreviations: DZ | Drizzle |
| TAF Abbreviations: GR | Hail |
| TAF Abbreviations: GS | Snow Pellets |
| TAF Abbreviations: IC | Ice Crystals |
| TAF Abbreviations: PL | Ice Pellets |
| TAF Abbreviations: RA | Rain |
| TAF Abbreviations: SG | Snow Grains |
| TAF Abbreviations: SN | Snow |
| TAF Abbreviations: UP | Unknown precipitation |
| TAF Abbreviations: DS | Dust Storm |
| TAF Abbreviations: FC | Funnel Cloud |
| TAF Abbreviations: +FC | Tornado / Waterspout |
| TAF Abbreviations: PO | Dust Swirls |
| TAF Abbreviations: SQ | Squall |
| TAF Abbreviations: SS | Sand Storm |
| TAF Abbreviations: NSW | No Significant Weather |
| TAF Abbreviations: BC | Patches |
| TAF Abbreviations: BL | Blowing |
| TAF Abbreviations: DR | Drifting |
| TAF Abbreviations: FZ | Freezing |
| TAF Abbreviations: MI | Shallow |
| TAF Abbreviations: PR | Partial |
| TAF Abbreviations: SH | Showers |
| TAF Abbreviations: TS | Thunderstorms |
| TAF Abbreviations: + | Heavy (intensifier) |
| TAF Abbreviations: - | Light |
| TAF Abbreviations: No Symbol | Moderate |
| When moderate or heavy freezing rain or heavy freezing drizzle is falling can we takeoff or land? | NO we cannot |
| If ice conditions are detected or suspected what should you do if the anti ice system does not turn on? | Turn on the anti ice system manually |
| If residual ice is suspected after landing what should we retract the flaps to? | Flap position 3 |
| Prior to the hydraulic warmup procedure what must be done? | the electric PBIT must be done first (3 Min) |
| How is a pre-takeoff contamination check accomplished? | the FO has to walk down the isle and look out the window and see the the de-ice fluid has failed |
| ATC must be notified on initial contact if temp comp will be accomplished (T/F) | True |
| What is the difference between ADS-B and ADS-C? | ADS-B: Aircraft broadcasts position continuously whereas ADS-C Reports only when requested or triggered. ADS-B (Broadcast) / ADS-C (Contract) |
| When you logon to CPDLC, what else happens? | ADS-C contracts are usually established |
| Do NAT radar controllers provide full radar separation services? | Nope |
| What communication methods are used in NAT region? | CPDLC, HF radio and SATCOM voice |
| RVSM Airspace decreases vertical separation from _____ to ______ | RVSM Airspace decreases vertical separation from 2000 feet to 1000 feet |
| RVSM altitudes are from FL290 to FL410 )True / False | True |
| What is QNH | Sea Level |
| What is QFE | Airport Elevation |
| What is the TCAS protective area surveillance boundaries? | 30NM around the aircraft and 9,900 feet above and below |
| When an RA occurs the pilot flying has how long to achieve the green vertical speed zone? | 2.5 seconds |
| What report has to be completed if we receive and RA? | We have to complete an Incident report |
| How much time do we have to complete an Incident Report associated with an RA? | 48 hours |
| Do we have to notify ATC if we receive and RA? | Yes |
| What should you do with your speed, course and altitude after responding to an RA/ | Return to previously assign speed, course and altitude |
| What conditions have priority over TCAS? | GND PROX and PULL UP |
| Resolution Advisories are inhibited and converted to TAs below what altitude? | Below 900 Feet during a decent or 1,100 feet during a climb |
| All TA alerts are inhibited below what altitude? | 400 AGL during decent and 600' feet during a climb |
| What does Vmd stand for? | Speeds below Minimum Drag Speed. (This is referred to as being on the back side of the drag curve and is considered unstable) |
| If the temperature at cruise is 10 degrees or more above what is shown in the weather data, consideration of a lower altitude may be necessary. (True / False) | True |
| What does C.P.R. stand for in the context of stall recovery? | Click (A/P Disconnect)). Push (Push Yoke Forward) (Reduce the Angle of Attack, Apply thrust(as needed), Accelerate to a safe airspeed, Return to desired flight path, do not alter landing gear/flap configuration) Recover |
| What is Mach Tuck? | As you go faster airflow over the wing starts forming shockwaves. The center of lift moves backwards and the shift creates a nose-down pitching moment |
| What is static stability? | The ability of an aircraft to return to a pre-disturbed state on its own |
| What is positive static stability? | The initial tendency of an aircraft to return to its original state of of equilibrium after being disturbed |
| What is neutral static stability? | The initial tendency of an aircraft to remain in the new condition after its equilibrium has been disturbed. |
| What is negative static stability? | The initial tendency of an aircraft to continue away from the original state of equilibrium after being disturbed |
| What is dynamic stability? | Is it how an aircraft responds to a disturbance over time and whether it does or does not return to equilibrium |
| What are the three types or energy conversions in flight? | 1)Kinetic Energy (Airspeed) 2)Potential Energy (Altitude) 3) Chemical Energy (Fuel) |
| What is net energy / how is excess power calculated? | Thrust-DRAG=Excess Power |
| How many minutes of separation prior to takeoff should be requested when following a heavy aircraft? | 2 Minutes |
| How many minutes of separation prior to takeoff should be requested when following a super heavy aircraft? | 3 Minutes |
| How do you program an off set into the FMS? | Progress page three. R1 enter "L" or "R" for left or right and a numerical value for the number of miles to offset left or right of course. So in space R1 you could enter L2 in order to offset two miles to the left of course. |
| What report do we have to file if we encounter wake turbulance? | An incident report in the Pro Safe T app |
| What does CPDLC stand for? | Controller Pilot Data Link |
| Enter Regions Logon ID KUSA for USA. What is the LOGON for Canada? | Edmonton Domestic is CZEG Gander Oceanic is CZQX |
| Where would you find the CPDLC logon? | the high IFR chart |
| The Air Management controller provides primary control for what various airplane subsystems? | 1) Engine Bleed Control 2) APU Bleed Control 3) Air Conditioning Control 4) Hot Air Leak Detection 5)Crew Oxygen Monitoring 6) Wing Ice Protection 7) Engine Anti - Ice Protection |
| Can the APU Provide Bleed Air in Flight? | Yes |
| What EICAS Message displays when one of the AMS controller channels has failed and the AMS is still in control? | AMS CTRL FAULT |
| Pack 1 provides air to where? | the cockpit and the mixing chamber |
| Pack2 provides air where? | Only to the mixing chamber |
| Pack 1 and Pack 2 when pushed in on the overhead panel provides ________ operation of the PACK and the FCV will ________ (Flow Control Valve) | Automatic / open according to system logic |
| If the Pack 1 or Pack 2 button is pushed out, what happens | the FCV (Flow Control Valve) will manually close |
| What controls the FCVs? | the Air Management System (AMS) |
| When will the FCV close? | 1) the respective pack button is OFF (Pushed out) 2) Bleed air source is not available 3)Associated bleed system duct leak 4) If a pack BIT shutdown failure is present for the respective pack, in when case a "PACK 1(2) FAIL EICAS message will be displayed 5) Ram air valve BIT is running (PACK 1 OFF) |
| When the FCV has Failed, the icon displayed is as what? | Amber cross over the icon |
| What color is the icon of the packs when they are off? | White |
| What E-Bay is not cooled by fans? | The Aft Ebay |
| What indications are there for the Emergency Ram Air Check Valve? | There are none |
| How hot does it have to be for the gasper shutoff valve to open? | 35 degrees Celcius |
| When the engine is running, the engine bleed valve is normally Open. True / False | True |
Created by:
lglippig