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chapter 11
Chapter 11 Administration of Medication & IV therapy
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| An unintended and undesirable effect produced by a drug | Adverse reaction |
| A substance that is capable of causing an allergic reaction | Allergen |
| An abnormal hypersensitivity of the body to substances that are ordinarily harmless | Allergy |
| A small, sealed glass container that holds a single dose of medication | Ampule |
| A serious allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment | Anaphylactic reaction |
| The use of chemicals to treat disease. Is most often used to refer to the treatment of cancer using antineoplastic medications | Chemotherapy |
| Changing from one system of measurement to another | Conversion |
| The amount of space occupied by 1 milliliter (1 mL = 1 cc) | Cubic centimeter |
| A registration number assigned to providers by the Drug Enforcement Administration for prescribing or dispensing controlled drugs | DEA number |
| The quantity of a drug to be administered at one time | Dose |
| A chemical used for the treatment, prevention, or diagnosis of disease | Drug |
| The delivery of nutrients through a tube inserted in the gastrointestinal tract | Enteral nutrition |
| The diameter of the lumen of a needle used to administer medication | Gauge |
| An inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of a clotting factor needed for proper coagulation of the blood | Hemophilia |
| A blood product consisting of pooled human plasma containing antibodies | Immune globulin |
| An abnormally raised, hardened area of the skin with clearly defined margins | Induration |
| The administration of fluids, medications, or nutrients into the vein | Infusion |
| The administration of medication by way of air or other vapor being drawn into the lungs | Inhalation administration |
| The part of a prescription that indicates the name of the drug and the drug dosage | Inscription |
| Introduction of medication into the dermal layer of skin | Intradermal injection |
| Introduction of medication into the muscular layer of the body | Intramuscular injection |
| The administration of a liquid agent directly into a patient's vein, where it is distributed throughout the body by way of the circulatory system | Intravenous (IV) therapy |
| Administration of medication by mouth | Oral administration |
| Administration of medication by injection | Parenteral |
| The study of drugs | Pharmacology |
| An order from a licensed provider authorizing the dispensing of a drug by a pharmacist | Prescription |
| The part of a prescription that indicates the information to print on the medication label | Signatura |
| Introduction of medication beneath the skin into the subcutaneous or fatty layer of the body | Subcutaneous injection |
| Administration of medication by placing it under the tongue, where it dissolves and is absorbed through the mucous membrane | Sublingual administration |
| The part of the prescription that gives directions to the pharmacist and usually designates the number of doses to be dispensed | Subscription |
| The part of a prescription consisting of the abbreviation (from the Latin word recipe, meaning "take") | Superscription |
| Application of a drug to a particular spot, usually for a local action | Topical administration |
| The administration of whole blood or blood products by the intravenous route | Transfusion |
| A closed glass container with a rubber stopper that holds medication | Vial |
| A tense, pale, raised area of skin | Wheal |
| What is the administering medication at the medical office? | is actually given to a patient at the office |
| What is the prescribing medication at the medical office? | is when the provider authorizes the dispensing of a drug by a pharmacist |
| What is the dispensing medication at the medical office? | is given to a patient at the medical office to be taken at home. (Ex. samples) |
| What is the brand name of a drug? | Common or trade name under which a pharmaceutical manufacturer markets a drug |
| What is a liniment? | A drug combined with oil, soap, alcohol, or water. Applied externally using friction to produce a feeling of heat or warmth |
| What is a spray? | A fine stream of medicated Vapor usually used to treat nose and throat conditions (Ex. Dristan nasal spray) |
| What is a syrup? | A drug dissolved in a solution of sugar, water, and sometimes a flavoring to disguise an unpleasant taste. (Ex. Robitussin) |
| What is a tablet? | A powdered drug that has been pressed into a disc. Some are scored - that is, they are marked with an indentation so that they can be broken into halves or quarters for proper dosage |
| What is the purpose of scoring a tablet? | So that they can be broken in halves or quarters for proper dosage |
| List drugs that come in the form of chewable tablets: | Pepto-Bismol chewable tablets, antacids, children's medication, antiflatulents |
| List two reasons for enterically coating a tablet | Protect the drug from being destroyed by gastric juices and prevents it from irritating the stomach lining. To prevent the active ingredients from being released prematurely in the stomach. |
| What is a capsule? | A drug contained in a gelatin capsule that is water soluble and functions to prevent the patient from tasting the drug. (Ex. Benadryl capsules) |
| Why must a suppository have a cylindrical or conical shape? | For easy insertion into a body cavity such as the rectum or vagina |
| What is a transdermal patch? | A patch with an adhesive backing which contains a drug that is applied to the skin. The drug enters the circulation after being absorbed through the skin. |
| Why is the metric system used most often to administer medication? | Because it provides a more exact measurement and is easier to use. |
| Define the term volume | The amount of space occupied by a substance |
| Describe the use of the household system of measurement for administrating medication | Is more complicated and less accurate for administering liquid medication than the metric system |
| When is conversion required? | When medication is ordered in a unit of measurement that differs from the medications label |
| What is a controlled drug? | Drugs that have a potential for abuse |
| In what forms can a prescription be authorized? | Handwritten and computer generated printed prescriptions, or they can be sent electronically, telephoned, or faxed to a pharmacy |
| What requirements must be followed when issuing a prescription for a schedule ll drug? | Prescription must be in writing or indelible ink or typed. Written prescription must be provided to pharmacist within 7 days. No refills allowed. Prescription expires 7 days from issue date. Manufacturers label marked C-II |
| List brand names of schedule II analgesics: | Duragesic, Vicodin, Lortab, Lorcet, Vicoprofen, Dilaudid, Demerol, Dolophine, Oxycontin, Percocet, Percodan |
| What requirements must be followed when issuing a prescription for a schedule III drug? | Telephone and fax orders permitted. If authorized by provider, prescription can be refilled five times within 6 months from issue date. Prescription expires 6 months from issue date. Manufacturer's label marked C-III |
| What is a schedule IV drug? | Lower potential for abuse then drugs in Schedule III. Abuse may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence. Telephone and fax orders permitted. |
| List brand names of Schedule IV antianxiety agents: | Xanax, Librium, Valium, Paxipam, Ativan, Equanil, Serax |
| List brand names of Schedule IV analgesics: | Stadol, Talwin, Darvon, Darvocet-N |
| What is included in the superscription part of a prescription? | Consist of the abbreviation Rx |
| What is included in the inscription part of a prescription? | Identifies the name of the drug and the dose |
| What is included in the subscription part of a prescription? | Designates the quantity of the drug to be dispensed. To prevent a prescription from being altered illegally, it is recommended that numbers and letters be used to indicate the quantity to be dispensed. (ex. #30 thirty) |
| What is included in the signatura part of a prescription? | Indicates the information to be included on the medication label. It consists of directions to the patient for taking the medication. The name of the medication also is included on the label so that the patient can identify the medication. |
| Why is it important for the patient's age to be indicated on a prescription? | So that the pharmacist can double-check the providers order to ensure that proper dose is being dispensed based on the patient's age, and to make sure that the drug is age appropriate for patient. |
| What functions can be performed by an EHR prescription program? | E-prescribing which greatly reduces the amount of time needed to prescribe and refill medication. Can transmit the prescription electronically to the patient's pharmacy. |
| What types of medication should be documented on a medication record form? | Prescription and over the counter medications |
| List factors that affect the action of drugs in the body: | Age Route of administration Size Time of administration Tolerance |
| Why is it so important to ask the patient what medication he or she is taking and document this information in the medical record? | Because when certain medications are used at the same time, drug interactions may produce undesirable effects |
| What are the symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction? | Sneezing, urticaria (hives), itching, erythema, angioedema and disorientation |
| What is the treatment of an anaphylactic reaction? | One or more injections of epinephrine, depending on the severity |
| Why is it important to administer the proper dose of a drug? | A dose too small would not produce a therapeutic effect and a dose too large could be harmful or even fatal to the patient |
| Where does the absorption of oral medication take place in the body? | Most occurs in the small intestine, although some may be absorbed in the mouth and stomach |
| What are the advantages of using the parenteral route of medication administration? | Absorbed more rapidly and completely than medication given orally. Maybe the only way a drug can be given. If a patient is unconscious or has a gastric disturbance such as nausea or vomiting. |
| What are the disadvantages of using the parenteral route of medication and administration | Pain and the possibility of infection as a result of breaking the skin. |
| How do safety-engineered syringes reduce the risk of a needlestick injury? | They incorporate a built-in safety feature to reduce the risk of a needlestick injury. The three types of safety engineered syringes most commonly used include: protective shield, sliding sleeve, and retractable needle syringes. |
| What is the purpose of using a filter needle when withdrawing medication from an ampule? | To filter glass particles that might be withdrawn |
| Why do some medications require reconstitution? | Because they are stable for only a short time, so they are stored in a powder form and mixed when ready to use |
| What sites are used most frequently to administer a subcutaneous injection? | Upper lateral part of the arms, anterior thigh, upper back, and the abdomen |
| What type of tissue should not be used as a site for a subcutaneous injection? | Tissue that is grossly adipose, hardened, inflamed, or edematous |
| What is the maximum amount of medication that can be administered through the subcutaneous route? | Should not exceed 1 mL |
| List three medications commonly administered through a subcutaneous injection | Epinephrine, insulin, and allergy injections |
| Why is medication absorbed faster through the intramuscular route than through the subcutaneous route? | Because there are more blood vessels in the muscle tissue |
| Why is irritating medication often administered through the intramuscular route? | Because there are fewer nerve endings in deep muscle tissue |
| What needle length is typically used to administer an intramuscular injection to an average-sized adult? | 1 1/2 inch needle, because the thickness is average |
| What needle length is typically used to administer an intramuscular injection to an thin adult or child? | 1 inch needle, because they have smaller body tissue |
| What needle length is typically used to administer an intramuscular injection to an obese adult? | 2 to 3 inches, because they have thicker body tissue to reach the muscle |
| List four intramuscular (IM) injection sites: | Deltoid, Vastus Lateralis, Ventrogluteal, Dorsogluteal |
| Why would the deltoid site be used for intramuscular injection? | Can be used to administer and injection to an adult and children that are 3 years of age and older. Is easily accessible and can be used when the patient is sitting or lying down. Can hold 1 mL |
| Why would the Vastus Lateralis site be used for intramuscular injection? | Is used because it is not near major nerves and blood vessels and is a relatively thick muscle. Can be used for both children and adults and is particularly desirable for infants and children younger than 3 years of age. |
| Why would the Ventrogluteal site be used for intramuscular injection? | Can be used to administer an injection to both children and adults. The muscle layer is thick allowing it to absorb a large amount of medication. Is also located away from major nerves and blood vessels. |
| Why would the Dorsogluteal site be used for intramuscular injection? | It is a large muscle that can absorb a large amount of medication. |
| What types of medications are given using the Z-track technique? | Medications that are irritating to subcutaneous and skin tissue or that discolor the skin. (Ex. Imferon) |
| What sites are used most frequently to administer an intradermal injection? | Anterior forearm, middle of the back, and upper arm |
| What is the most frequent use of an intradermal injection? | To administer skin test, such as an allergy test or a TST |
| What are the symptoms of active pulmonary tuberculosis? | Chronic cough lasting 3 weeks or longer that produces a mucopurulent sputum, occasional hemoptysis (coughing up blood) & chest pain. Systemic symptoms include fatigue, loss of appetite, weakness, weight loss, chills, low grade fever & sweating at night. |
| What is latent tuberculosis infection? | The TB bacteria are engulfed by white blood cells known as macrophages. The body builds a fibrous wall around it. Some bacteria can still be alive and the individual may go on to develop TB later on. |
| What are examples of categories of individuals who should have a tuberculin test? | Individuals who have close day to day contact with someone with active TB. Individuals who have immigrated from a country with a high incidence of TB and individuals who work or reside in facilities or institutions with people who are at high risk for TB |
| Why might a person who was recently infected with tuberculosis have a negative tuberculin skin test result? | Because a positive reaction to the test takes 2 to 10 weeks after an individual is infected with tuberculosis |
| What is induration and what causes it? | Is an abnormally raised hardened area with clearly defined margins caused by an accumulation of small sensitized lymphocytes that occurs in the area in which it was injected. Indicates a positive reaction to a TB test. |
| What procedures are performed if a patient has a positive reaction to a tuberculin skin test? | A chest x-ray and microbiologic examination and culture of the patient's sputum for TB bacteria |
| Who should have a two-step tuberculin skin test? | Is recommended for adults who are required to undergo periodic tuberculin skin testing. For example most healthcare workers are required to have an initial TST when hired and then a yearly TST thereafter. |
| What does it mean if the first test of a two-step tuberculin skin test is negative and the second test is positive? What does it mean if both tests are negative? | It means that the patient's immune system was "jogged" and reacted to the second test. The first test just woke up the immune system. If it is negative both times then the patient is classified as non-infected. |
| What are the advantages of the IGRA test for tuberculosis? | Patient needs to visit office only one time to have their blood drawn. Results are available within 24 hours. Provide an objective evaluation. Are not affected by the booster effect. Test provide a positive or negative result. |
| How can allergens enter the body? | Being inhaled, being swallowed, being injected, or by coming in contact with the skin |
| What are examples of common allergens? | Plant pollens, mold, house dust, animal dander, latex, dyes, soaps, detergent, cosmetics, certain foods and medications, and venom from insect stings |
| What are the different forms in which allergies appear in individuals? | Hay fever, allergic rhinitis, asthma, urticaria, contact dermatitis, eczema, and food allergies |
| What is the general treatment for allergies? | Avoiding the allergen (s), drug therapy such as antihistamines, decongestant, bronchodilators, and inhaled steroids |
| Why must a patient discontinue the use of an antihistamine for 3 days before skin testing? | They block the response of histamine, which may suppress the skin testing reactions and lead to false-negative test results |
| What is the purpose of patch testing? | Used to identify allergens that cause contact dermatitis |
| What is the purpose of skin-prick testing? | To diagnose allergies to common allergens particularly those that are inhaled such as house dust, pollens, and molds. It is also used to test for food allergies. |
| How long does it take for a reaction to occur with a skin-prick test? | 15 to 20 minutes |
| What is meant by +1 following intradermal skin testing reaction? | Induration greater than 1 mm and up to 5 mm in diameter |
| What is meant by +2 following intradermal skin testing reaction? | Induration greater than 5 mm and up to 10 mm in diameter |
| What is meant by +3 following intradermal skin testing reaction? | Induration greater than 10 mm and up to 15 mm in diameter |
| What is meant by +4 following intradermal skin testing reaction? | Induration greater than 15 mm in diameter |
| How does intradermal skin testing compare to skin-prick testing? | Intradermal skin testing is more sensitive than skin-prick testing |
| What are the advantages of in vitro blood testing over direct skin testing? | The results are not affected by medication. There is no danger of adverse allergic reactions. Can be performed on patients who have skin eruptions and are unable to undergo direct skin testing because of lack of an intact skin surface area. |
| What is intravenous therapy? | Administration of a liquid agent directly into a patient's vein |
| Which veins are most often used for IV therapy? | Peripheral veins of the arms and hands |
| What types of liquid agents are administered through IV therapy? | Fluids, medication, nutrients, and blood products |
| What is the difference between an infusion and a transfusion? | Infusion is when fluids, medication, and nutrients are administered by the IV. Transfusion is when whole blood or blood products are administered by IV. |
| List examples of outpatient ambulatory sites in which IV therapy may be administered | Medical offices and clinics, urgent care centers, ambulatory infusion clinics, and the patient's home |
| List five reasons for administering IV Therapy in an outpatient setting: | Administration of IV medication. Replacement of fluids and electrolytes. Administration of nutritional supplements. Administration of blood products. Emergency administration of IV medication and fluids. |
| What are the advantages of outpatient IV therapy? | Is more convenient for the patient and reduces medical costs through earlier discharge from the hospital or avoidance of hospitalization altogether |
| What requirements must be met before an entry-level medical assistant can perform IV therapy at a medical office? | Check the laws in state to determine if it is legally permissible. Must acquire the proper training (theory and skills) by completing a recognized IV therapy training program; Including supervised clinical practice |
| What must be determined by the provider before prescribing outpatient IV therapy? | The patient's condition warrants the use of IV therapy. No alternative routes are feasible or appropriate to deliver the therapy, and the patient does not need to be hospitalized to receive the IV therapy. |
| What instructions should a MA relay to a patient scheduled for outpatient IV therapy? | The length of time required for the therapy, any dietary restrictions, whether to wear loose-fitting clothes, and whether someone needs to transport the patient to and from the appointment. |
| Is responsible for determining whether new food products, drugs, vaccines, medical devices, cosmetics, and other products are safe before they are released for human use | Food and Drug Administration (FDA) |
| Provides a precise description of the drugs chemical composition | Chemical name |
| After the a drug has received official approval from the FDA the name is assigned to it by the US adopted name (USAN) Council. USAN select a simple short informative and unique name for each new drug developed by a pharmaceutical manufacturer | Generic name |
| Is the name under which the drug is listed in official publication such as the United States Pharmacopeia (USP) and the National Formulary (NF). | Official name |
| Is a common or trade name under which a pharmaceutical manufacturer markets a drug | Brand name |
| A drug that is dissolved in a solution of alcohol and water. Is sweetened and flavored and is taken orally | Elixir |
| A mixture of fats or oils in water | Emulsion |
| An aqueous preparation that contains suspended ingredients. Are used to treat external skin conditions. They work to soothe, protect, and moisten the skin and to destroy harmful bacteria | Lotion |
| A liquid preparation that contains one or more completely dissolved substances. The dissolved substance is known as the solute and the liquid in which they dissolved is known as the solvent. | Solution |
| A drug combined with an alcoholic solution that is volatile (a substance that is volatile evaporates rapidly) | Spirit |
| A drug that contains solid insoluble drug particles in a liquid; the preparation must be shaken before administration | Suspension |
| A pressurized form in which solid aerosol or liquid drug particles are suspended in a gas to be dispensed in a cloud or mist | Suspension aerosol |
| A drug dissolved in a solution of alcohol or alcohol and water | Tincture |
| A powdered drug that has been flavored and pressed into a disc. Are often used for antacids, antiflatulents, and children's medications | Chewable tablet |
| A powered drug that has been pressed into a disc and is designed to dissolve under the tongue, which permits its rapid absorption into the bloodstream | Sublingual tablet |
| A tablet coated with a substance that prevents it from dissolving until it reaches the intestines. | Enteric-coated tablet |
| A capsule that contains granules that dissolve at different rates to provide a gradual and continuous release of medication. This reduces the number of doses that must be administered. | Sustained-release capsule |
| A drug contained in an oblong tablet with a smooth coating to make swallowing easier | Caplet |
| A drug contained in a candy-like base. Are circular and are designed to dissolve on the tongue. | Lozenge |
| A drug combined in a base that is usually non-greasy resulting in a semisolid preparation. Are applied externally to the skin. | Cream |
| A drug with an oil base, resulting in a semi-solid preparation. Are applied externally to the skin and are usually greasy. | Ointment |
| A drug mixed with a firm base, such as cocoa butter that is designed to melt at body temperature. Is shaped into a cylinder or a cone for easy insertion into a body cavity, such as the rectum or vagina. | Suppository |
| A patch with an adhesive backing, which contains a drug that is applied to the skin. The drug enters the circulation after being absorbed through the skin. | Transdermal patch |
| Refers to the heaviness of an item | Weight |
| Refers to the amount of space occupied by a substance | Volume |
| Is a unit of linear measurement of the distance from one point to another | Length |
| The basic metric units of measurement are the | Gram, liter, and meter |
| Is a unit of weight used to measure solids | Gram |
| Is a unit of volume used to measure liquids | Liter |
| Is a linear unit used to measure length or distance | Meter |
| The metric units used most often in the administration of medication in the medical office are the | Milligram, gram, milliliter, and cubic centimeter |
| 1000 micrograms= | 1 milligram |
| 1000 milligrams= | 1 gram |
| 1000 grams= | 1 kilogram |
| 1000 milliliters= | 1 liter |
| 1000 liters= | 1 kiloliter |
| 1 milliliter= | 1 cubic centimeter |
| Abbreviation for drop | gtt |
| 60 gtt= | 1 tsp |
| 3 tsp= | 1 T |
| 6 tsp= | 1 oz |
| 2 T= | 1 oz |
| 6 oz= | 1 teacup |
| 8 oz= | 1 glass |
| 1 gtt= | 0.06 mL |
| 15 gtts= | 1 mL (1cc) |
| 1 tsp= | 5 (4) mL |
| 1 T= | 15 mL |
| 2 T= | 30 mL |
| 1 oz= | 30 mL |
| 1 teacup= | 180 mL |
| 1 glass= | 240 mL |
| Analgesics that are schedule II drugs: | Duragesic, Vicodin, Lortab, Dilaudid, Demerol, Dolophine, Oxycontin, Percocet, Percodan |
| Central nervous system stimulates that are schedule II drugs: | Adderall, Vyvanse, Ritalin, Concerta, Desoxyn |
| Sedatives/hypnotics that are schedule II drugs: | Amytal, Doriden, Nembutal, Seconal |
| Schedule I drugs: | GHB, heroin, LSD, MDMA (ecstasy), mescaline, methaqualone (Quaalude), psilocybin |
| Schedule III analgesic drugs: | Suboxone, Buprenex, Fioricet, Tylenol w/ codeine, Empirin w/ codeine |
| Antianxiety agents that are schedule IV: | Xanax, Librium, Valium, Paxipam, Ativan, Equanil, Serax |
| Schedule V drugs: | Robitussin A-C, Cheracol syrup, Parepectolin, Kapectolin PG, Lomotil |
| To administer, prescribe, or dispense controlled drugs a provider must register every 3 years with the | Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) |
| Every time a prescription for a controlled drug is authorized the provider must include his or her | DEA number on the prescription |
| ac | Before meals |
| ad lib | as desired |
| aq | water |
| APAP | acetaminophen |
| ASA | aspirin |
| bid | twice a day |
| DAW | dispense as written |
| dil | dilute |
| liq | liquid |
| NPO | nothing by mouth |
| pc | after meals |
| per | by |
| PO | by mouth |
| prn | as needed |
| qAM | every morning |
| qh | every hour |
| qid | four times a day |
| qs | of sufficient quantity |
| SL | sublingual |
| tid | three times a day |
| Is an abnormal or peculiar response to a drug that is unexplained and unpredictable | idiosyncratic reaction |
| Is a localized urticaria of the deeper tissues of the body | angioedema |
| Is reddening of the skin caused by dilation of superficial blood vessels in the skin | erythema |
| Is considered the safest and most desirable route for administering medication | oral route |
| The process of adding a liquid to a powdered drug is known as | reconstitution |
| The liquid used to reconstitute a powdered drug is known as the | Diluent, usually consists of sterile water or normal saline |
| An example of a parenteral medication that requires reconstitution is the | measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization |
| Absorption of medication from a subcutaneous injection occurs mainly through | Capillaries resulting in a slower absorption rate |
| Subcutaneous injection sites include: | Upper lateral part of the arms, the anterior thigh, the upper back, and the abdomen |
| The length of needle ranges between | 3/8 and 3 inches |
| Needle gauges for administering medication range between | 18 gauge and 27 gauge |
| The opening in the shaft of the needle is known as the | Lumen |
| What part of the needle is inserted into the body tissue? | The shaft |
| The top of the needle is slanted and is called the | Bevel |
| Is the end of the syringe to which the needle hub attaches | Tip |
| Holds the medication and contains calibrated markings to measure the proper amount of medication | Barrel |
| What is the needle length for subcutaneous injections? | 1/2 to 5/8 in |
| What is the needle gauge ranges for subcutaneous injections? | 23 gauge to 25 gauge |
| Subcutaneous tissue is sensitive to irritating Solutions and large volumes of medications; therefore drugs given subcutaneously must be | Isotonic, nonirritating, nonviscous, and water soluble |
| The amount of medication injected through the subcutaneous layer should not exceed | 1 mL |
| Medications commonly administered through the subcutaneous route include: | Epinephrine, insulin, and allergy injections |
| What amount can be injected into the ventrogluteal and vastus lateralis muscles of an adult? | Up to 3 mL |
| What is the needle length for intramuscular injections? | 1 to 3 inches |
| What is the needle gauge ranges used for intramuscular injection? | 18 gauge to 23 gauge |
| Medications commonly administered through the intramuscular route include: | Antibiotics, injectable contraceptives, vitamin B12, corticosteroids, and many immunizations |
| How much medication can the deltoid site hold? | 1 mL |
| How much medication can be administered through intradermal injection? | 0.01 to 0.2 mL |
| What is the needle length ranges for intradermal injections? | 3/8 to 5/8 inches |
| What is the needle gauge ranges for intradermal injections? | 25 gauge to 27 gauge |
| The substance used for the Mantoux test is tuberculin, which consist of | Purified protein derivative (PPD) extracted from a culture of M. tuberculosis |
| The vial of PPD solution must be stored in the | Refrigerator at a temperature between 35° F to 46° F |
| What is the vaccine given for tuberculosis? | bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) |
| A condition characterized by coughing, chest tightness, shortness of breath, and wheezing | Allergic asthma |
| Caused by allergy to mold or the pollen of trees, grasses, or weeds | Hay fever |
| Inflammation of mucous membranes of the nose caused by allergies. Symptoms include nasal congestion, sneezing, and runny nose. | Perennial allergic rhinitis |
| Is an outbreak on the skin of welts of varying sizes that are redder or paler than surrounding skin and are accompanied by intense itching | Urticaria |
| Rash caused by direct contact of the skin with an allergen such as cosmetics, perfumes, deodorant, latex, plastic, certain plants, and clothing treated with certain preservatives or dyes | Contact dermatitis |
| Noncontagious rash accompanied by redness, itching, vesicles, oozing, crusting, and scaling. Foods may be important factors particularly milk, fish, or eggs. | Eczema |
| An immune system reaction that occurs soon after eating a food to which an individual is allergic. Most common foods that cause allergies are milk, soy, eggs, peanuts, tree nuts, fish, shellfish, and wheat. | Food allergy |
| Certain medications decrease the immune response of the body to skin testing, which could cause a false negative test result. These medications include: | Tricyclic antidepressants, corticosteroids, theophylline, beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, and nifedipine |
| Some patients have a reaction just from the irritating effect of a needle pricking their skin, this condition is known as | Dermographism |
| To perform a negative skin test control, a substance that should not cause a reaction in a normal person is inserted into the patient's superficial skin layers. The negative control usually consist of | Normal saline |
| For a positive control, a substance that should cause a reaction in a nonallergenic person is inserted into the patient's superficial skin layers. The substance used for a positive control is | Histamine |
| Almost all insects whose venom can cause allergic reactions belong to the order Hymenoptera, which includes | Honeybees, bumblebees, wasps, yellow jackets, and hornets |
| A normal reaction to an insect sting includes: | Localized pain, redness, swelling, and itching lasting 1 to 2 days |
| An in vitro allergy blood test measures the amount of | IgE antibodies in the blood that respond to common allergens |
| Examples of in vitro blood test include: | Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), the radioallergosorbent test (RAST), and ImmunoCAP |
| aa | of each |
| Rx | Prescription |
| sol | Solution |
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Diamond87