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Vince questions
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Up until the age of skeletal maturity to three bones of the OS coax or in nominate Bone are the | Ischium ilium pubis |
| Means the angle is greater than normal | Valgus |
| What are the common settings on a hip abduction brace and what is the brace used for? | Used for someone that chronically dislocates their hip common settings is 80° reflection and 15° of abduction |
| A child presents postop super consular fracture in a long arm cast. What is your precaution? | Circulation, if there’s a lack of blood flow, they can get Volkmans ischemic contracture |
| What is the presentation of a suspected bicep tendon tear | Weakness and bending the elbow, bulge and severe pain in the upper arm, gap in front of the elbow |
| In a grade 3 acromioclavicular joint injury the most appropriate device for treatment is number #1ORIF & #2_____ | Varney brace |
| In the treatment of a patient with a mid shaft humoral fracture with a hanging arm cast what direction would you move the point of attachment on a hanging arm cast in order to reduce a varus deformity | Dorsal |
| Name the surgical procedure that consists of capsular repair in the glenoid for chronic anterior dislocation of the shoulder | Bankhart |
| The term for the operative procedure involving the resection of the distal clavicle for chronic AC separation | Mumford |
| The term for lesion following a shoulder dislocation on the anterior glenoid rim is a | Bankhart |
| In the treatment of humeral shaft fractures, which of the following is most appropriate? | Collar and cuff |
| The surgical procedure that consists of Screwface ation of the clavicle to the coracoid for AC separation is | Bosworth procedure |
| As described in “dandy” with regard to nerve injuries, a transient loss of function caused by external pressure with recovery in minutes is termed | Neurapraxia |
| The anatomical name for the joint in the body with the greatest range of motion is the | Glenohumeral joint |
| The two bones that comprise the glenohumeral joint are the | Proximal, humorous and scapula |
| The S shaved bone that provides the only bony connection with the thorax and the shoulder joint is referred to as the | Clavicle |
| The S shaped bone articulates with the chest to form this bony connection between the shoulder and body name this articulation | Sternoclavicular joint |
| The lateral aspects of the S shaped bone articulates with a flat bone that makes up the posterior structure of the shoulder name this flat bone | Scapula |
| The joint where the lateral aspect of the shaped bone and the flat bone form the “roof” of the shoulder is the | Acromioclavicular |
| The s artery becomes the a artery, which then becomes the______artery | Subclavian artery, axillary artery, brachial artery |
| The term for the primary neurological connection between the cervical spine C5 to T1 and the upper extremity is referred to as the | Brachial plexus |
| Prior to shoulder motion two things must take place first. the flat bone named above must be stabilized the two primary muscles that accomplish this task are the._and_. the second action is the “snubbing” of the shoulder joint. This action is accomplished | The two primary muscles are the crates anterior and the trapezius. The four muscle muscles is called the rotator cuff. |
| Name the four muscles that form the common tendon that acts to “snub“ the shoulder joint as described above | Subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor |
| The two muscles that primarily act to abduct the shoulder are the________ and __________. | Supraspinatus and middle portion of the deltoid |
| The term for the bony indentation on the flat bone of the shoulder, that forms the shoulder joints articular surface along with the proximal and of the long bone of the shoulder is the_____ | Glenoid fossa |
| The shoulder joint is made more stable by a round “washer“ of cartilage that surrounds the Glenoid fossa indentation and deepens it name the cartilage | Glenoid labrim |
| Name, one action carried out by the terres major muscle | Extension |
| The trapezius and levator scapula combined cause which action of the shoulder? | Shrug |
| The term for an action of turning about an axis is? | Axial rotation |
| The prefix artho means what? | Joint |
| The prefix a indicates what? | Without |
| On the flat bone of the shoulder is a process or outcropping that one of the biceps tendon attaches to name this process | Coracoid process |
| This bony outcropping also provides a point of attachment for the ligaments that provides stability to the joint between the S shaped bone and the flat bone name these two ligaments that stabilize the joint | Coracoacromial ligament Coracoclavicular ligament |
| What is the term for the fluid filled Sac that function as a shock absorber for joint motion? | Bursa |
| What branch of neurologic supply to the arm provides motor nerve to the deltoid muscle? | Axillary nerve |
| The elbow is comprised of three articulations name them? | Humeroradial, humeroulnar and radioulnar joints |
| The anterior cubital faucet contains several important structures name the long taught tendon palpable in the center of this area | Biceps tendon |
| Directly medial to the biceps tendon what artery can be felt? | Brachial artery |
| Name the nerve that lays medial to the brachial artery? | Median nerve |
| What nerve is the nerve of flexion for the hand and wrist? | Median nerve |
| The nerve that lies on the lateral side of the median nerve and provides sensation to the radial aspect of the forearm | Musculocutaneous nerve |
| Name the ligament that cups, the Radialhead and neck holding them in place relative to the ulna | Annular ligament |
| Name the four motions of the elbow | Flexion extension, supination, and pronation |
| Name the nerve palpable in the sulcus groove between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon | Ulnar nerve |
| The number of degrees at the elbow in full extension____ degrees | 0 |
| What nerve innervates the elbow flexors | Musculocutaneous nerve |
| What nerve innervates the extensor of the elbow | Radial nerve |
| If you have a patient places hand in a supinated position under a counter and push against the palm of his hand, what muscle group would be prominent | Biceps |
| The biceps muscle causes two primary actions of the elbow joint. What are they? And what is the nerve that innervates these two actions? | Flexion and supination and the musculocutaneous nerve innervates these actions |
| Which of the following is the preferred positioning for a long arm cast applied to an acute collies fracture status post reduction | Palmer Flex, ulnar deviation, supination |
| Which is the preferred position in a Smith’s fracture status post closed reduction. LAC in: | Neutral wrist, supinate |
| Which of the following is not a complication commonly seen in pedes supercondular fractures 1) median nerve palsy 2) non-union 3) Malunion 4) vascular compromise 5) myosis ossificans | Non-union |
| When treating unreduced, acute super consular fractures, which of the following is not recommended? 1: traction 2: direct pressure 3: Flexion 4: pronation | Flexion |
| You are instructed to remove a long arm cast from a child who is two weeks postop from a super consular fracture. What normal condition exists under the cast that you need to be aware of? | Percutaneous pins |
| In general, it is necessary only to mobilize the elbow in_________ (position) in order to maintain closed reduction of a super consular fracture | Flexed |
| A longitude, no fracture that is either dorsal or molar, and is through the joint of the distal radius is termed a | Barton’s fracture |
| A lateral consular fracture may if not properly treated result in growth, arrest, or male union or deformity of the lower end of the humorous best described as cubitus | Valgus |
| When treating both bone forearm fractures in a cast orif, a good inner osseus mold for a strong plate is needed to prevent | Cross union |
| Medial condular fractures will most likely cause? | Ulnar nerve palsy |
| If one sustained a fracture to the electron, the surgeon may opt to surgically repair it most probably using? | Cerclage wire and pins |
| The most common method of treatment for tennis elbow is | Velcro armband |
| What is a moore fracture? | A fracture of the proximal tibia with a dislocation |
| Grossly displaced or commuted fractures of the Radiohead are often best treated by | Radial head excision/prosthetic implant |
| The end result of muscle necrosis caused by occlusion of the microcirculation, following an upper extremity injury and aggravated by compartment syndrome results in a contractor referred to as | Volkman’s ischemia |
| One difficulty that is seen treating distal radius fractures is impaction or shortening which of the following is most effective, encountering this problem | External fixator |
| Which of the following is most effective method of treating a galleazi fx | Orif |
| Which of the following is another term for?”sudecks atrophy“ | Reflex symptomatic dystrophy, causalgia, post traumatic syndrome |
| What is the conservative length of time in the cast for a scaphoid fracture? | 12 weeks |
| What is the term for a fracture of the neck of the little finger MCP? | Boxers |
| A “hairpin“ splint is best used to treat a | Distal phalanx fracture |
| What is the term for a fracture of the base of the little finger metacarpal? | Busby fracture |
| If you were to treat carpal tunnel, what type of splint would you apply and what position? | Volar splint with 5° of Dorsey flexion |
| The term for tenosynovitis of the abductor pollicis and extensor tendon sheath of the wrist | De quervains syndrome |
| The most appropriate splint used to treat de quervains syndrome is | Thumb spica in abduction |
| The term for spontaneous, avascular necrosis of the lunate usually seen in young adults | Kienbocks disease |
| What is the Alan test used for? | Occlusion arterial supply |
| What is the phalen test used for? | Carpal tunnel |
| What is tinel sine used for? | Carpal tunnel |
| What is the finklestien test used for? | De quervains |
| What is the Watson test used for? | Scapholunate instability |
| When treating a bowler plate injury described display, and the position of the digit in the splint | Dorsal splint with 30° of flexion at the pip, DIP, MCP joints |
| The term for a fracture of the base of the thumb metacarpal with a “Y” shaped in articular pattern would be a | Rolando fracture |
| The most appropriate cast for a closed, minimally, displaced Bennett’s fracture to be treated closed would be | Thumb Spica in abduction |
| What is the term for a fluid filled sack around the joints or fingers arising from the joint capsule? | Ganglion |
| This procedure is the surgical freeing of a tendon from adhesions | Tendolysis |
| This procedure is basically the surgical repair of a ruptured tendon | Tenoplasty |
| Name the term to describe an injury to the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb | Gamekeepers |
| Describe the type of cast used to treat gamekeepers’s thumb and the position of the extremity | Thumb Spica in adduction |
| The term for bacterial infection of the pulp of a digit is | Felon |
| The flexor carpi radialis, the flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor pollicis are contained in the _______ or ______ compartment of the forearm these muscles are innervated by the___ nerve, while the flexor carpi ulnaris is innervated by the ___nerve | Flexor or anterior Median nerve Ulnar nerve |
| The opponens digit Quinti or minimi, flexor digit Quinti and the abductor | Hypothenar muscle group |
| What specific action does the hypothenar muscle group have on the hand? | Opposition |
| Is the hypothenar muscle group and intrinsic or extrinsic muscle group? | Intrinsic |
| What motor nerve innervates the hypothenar muscle group? | Ulnar |
| Name the primary anatomic structures contained in the carpal tunnel | Median nerve and nine flexor tendons |
| The main blood supply to the hand and wrist are the terminal branches of the brachial artery name them | Radial artery & ulnar artery |
| What functionally, unique action can the human thumb perform that permits, pinch and grasp? | Opposition |
| Name the muscle group that includes the oppenens pollicis abd pollicis brevis, adductor pollicis and the flexor pollicis brevis | Thenar muscle group |
| What nerve innervates The thenar muscle group | Median |
| Name the two intrinsic muscle groups responsible for MCPJ flexion, DIP and PIP extension and abduction and abduction of the digits | Lumbicals and interossie |
| Most of the extensor of the wrist and hand are innervated by the______ nerve | Radial |
| Intrinsic plus means that the MCP joint is at____ degrees Pip joint is at ______ Dip joint is at _____ Wrist is in ______degrees of _______ | Mcp-90 Pip-0 Dip-0 Wrist-15 degrees of Dorsi flexion |
| Flexion at the distal, interphalangeal joint is carried out by what muscle? | Flexor digitorum profundus |
| What word identifies a muscle that acts on the thumb? | Pollicis |
| The bony origin of most of the extrinsic extensor muscles | Lateral epicondyle of the distal humerus |
| The dorsal or posterior compartment contains what primary muscle group? | Extensors |
| The hook of the handmaid is of clinical importance because it forms the lateral “radial“ border of the tunnel of__________ which transports the_____ nerve and artery to the hand | Guyon Ulnar |
| The term for the horney cutaneous plate on the dorsal surface of the distal end of the finger | Ungus |
| What is a chauffeurs fracture? | |
| Distal radius fracture, including the styloid process | |
| What is a moore fracture? | Distal radius “colles“ fx of the ulnar, styloid and dorsal sublux of the distal ulna |
| What is a night stick fracture? | Isolated fracture of the middle third of the ulna |
| What is a Piedmont fracture? | A Piedmont fracture is a break of the radius bone in the forearm, typically occurring in the middle to lower portion, without involvement of the ulna. It’s also called an isolated radial shaft fracture. |
| What is preiser's disease? | A vascular necrosis of the scaphoid |
| WhAt is a felon? | Digital pulp infection, pocket of infection under the nail |
| Up until the age of skeleton maturity, the three bones of the OS coxae or innominate Bone are the? | Ischium, illium, pubis |
| These bones fuse to form the innominate bone which articulates with the sacrum via the strongly constructed________joint | Sacroiliac |
| The ischium, illium, and pubis fused together, forming a deep socket that’s referred to as the_______ | Acetabulum |
| The two main flexor muscles of the hip actually are referred to with one name. What is it? | Iliopsoas |
| Name the major extensor of the hip | Gluteus maximus |
| The normal angle of the femoral neck to shaft is? | 135° |
| The normal amount of a moral shaft anteversion is | 15° |
| The major blood supply to the femoral head is the_____artery | Medial circumflex artery |
| The name for the ligament that runs from the pelvis to the femoral head supplying very little actual support is the_______. | Ligament of Teres |
| Name the two muscles primarily responsible for abduction of the hip | Gluteus medius and gluteus minimus |
| For each of the following muscle groups name the motor branch of the lumbar plexus that innervates it Flexors- Abductors- Extensors - Adductors- | Flexors- femoral nerve Abductors- superior gluteal nerve Extensors -tibial branch of sciatic nerve Adductors-obturator nerve |
| What is the term for the anterior point where the two innominate pelvic bones meet? | Pubic symphysis |
| Name the ligament that runs from the anterior superior iliac spine to the junction of the pelvic bones named above “it limits hip flexion“ | Inguinal ligament |
| Name the one bony point palpable on the hip “it is the point used to establish the height of a cane” | Greater trochanter |
| When in the extended position, the hip is held in that position by the powerful muscle group known as the | Hamstring muscle group |
| Name three muscles in the hamstring muscle group | Semitendinosis, semimembronois, biceps femoris Long head |
| The difficulty in pelvic fractures is that there is a 66% incidents of shock due to | Soft tissue injuries associated with the fracture |
| The method for treating pertrochanteric, trochanteric, and commuted fractures of the proximal femur described in your hand out was ORIF employing a | Blade plate |
| The primary difference between cortical and cancellous screws | Thread pitch/width |
| The term for reconstructive surgery of a joint to restore motion or to prevent excessive motion is a | Arthroplasty |
| Name the specific traction used to treat a very proximal femoral fracture | 90/90/90 traction |
| 90 90 90 traction requires a Steinman pin placed in the | Distal femur |
| The term for overhead frame, that is basically a double single overhead frame with crossbars connecting to two is technically referred to as a | Balkman frame |
| What is the max the patient can weigh for Bryants traction | 30lbs |
| blauvelt calls this disease osteitis deformans. A disease of unknown origin, resulting in deformation of bone. | Pagets disease |
| Why must you use telescoping overhead bars on a bed like the Hill Rom 840 | Because when the bed moves up in the sitting position, the overhead bars need to move in the bed to accommodate the shortening of the bed |
| This test involves lateral displacement of the patella where you attempt to sublux the patella laterally | Apprehension |
| The ACL provides 85% of the anterior stability of the knee which of the following is a test of that ligaments stability | Anterior drawer |
| Knee test that is done with the knee at 30° of flexion and the foot not stabilized. It is to check the ACL. | Lachmans |
| What mechanical device has made the lachmans test less subjective by providing a means for measuring laxity in millimeters | KT 1000 |
| What is the technical name for this type of device? | Arthrometer |
| What meniscus tear if repaired is most likely to heal? | Red to Red |
| If it is indeed, the femoral condyles compressive force that causes a tibial plateau fracture what primary type of knee stress causes a medial tibial plateau fracture? | Varus |
| Which of the following would be the most appropriate plate and screw for treatment of distal femoral Condyle fracture | Dynamic condular screw |
| The knee ligament tested with a various stress test is the | LCL |
| Although not true knee instability, hypertension of the knee or__________ is demonstrated by simply lifting the heel of a patient and observing the knee | Recurvatum |
| What is the term where the patella rides above its normal position? | Patella alta |
| Your instructed to apply a cylinder cast to a patient who is two days status post patellar dislocation what particular technique discussed will you use in the application of this cast? | Lateral buttress |
| A click either Audible or palpable on this test is a positive sign of a meniscus tear | Mcmurry |
| The x-ray view that visualizes the patella and is taken using a “jig“ to standardize the alignment for each film is referred to as a | Merchant |
| The term________ is a catch all for cystic disease in the popliteal fossa of the knee | Baker’s cyst |
| This disease develops between the age of nine and 13 more commonly in males. It is characterized by pain, swelling over the tibial tuberosity, aggravated by activity. | Osgood slaughter disease |
| In this disease, young adult sustained a separation of the articular surface of a joint due to a cleavage plane through the subdural bone | Osteochondritis dissecans |
| Name three primary x-ray reviews for knee exam | AP, lateral, merchant |
| Patella fractures are usually fixed internally with what? | Percutaneous pins, cerclage wires |
| What is the specific term used to describe the type of race used immediately postop also known as as a range of motion brace | Rehab brace |
| The type of brace you would fit to a patient who is now 12 months post injury and wants to return to his active sports lifestyle would be a | Functional ACL brace |
| What injury would a “knee cage“ most appropriately treat | Patella instability |
| Which of the following would be most important for treatment of a patient with patella, femoral malalignment | Straight leg exercises |
| The most significant long-term problem associated with knee joint damage is early arthritis or | degenerative joint disease |
| Aspiration of the knee joint with a large bore needle introduced beneath patella for diagnostic reasons, and to relieve effusion would be referred to as a | Arthrocentesis |
| The anatomic landmark used to align the hinges in a knee brace, support or motion device would the | Adductor tubricle |
| What is the term for the surgical corrective procedure that treats arthritis of one surface of the knee joint? | High tibial osteotomy |
| The ______ Tendon inserts into the proximal or superior pole of the patella. The tenant has four muscle components. Name them: | Quadriceps tendon Vastus lateralis Vastus medialis Vastus inter Rectis femoris |
| The quadriceps tendon becomes the_____ as it runs from the distal pool of the patella to the proximal tibia or more precisely the tibial________ | Patellar tendon Tibial tuberosity |
| Name the three bony joints of the knee | Lateral tibiofemoral Medial tibiofemoral Petellar femoral |
| Name the two sets of muscles that are primarily flexors of the knee joint | Hamstring muscles in the Gastronemius |
| The extensor muscles of the knee are basically introverted by what nerve? | Femoral nerve |
| The flexor muscles of the knee are introverted by what motor branch of the sciatic nerve | Tibial branch of sciatic |
| What is the term for the fibrocartilage semilunar shaped discs on the articular surface of the medial and lateral tibial plateau? | Menisci |
| The femoral artery becomes the_______ artery as soon as it passes through the posterior portion of the knee, providing the primary blood supply to the knee | Popliteal |
| The ______ Ligament attaches to the posterior, medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle and runs to the anterior surface of the tibia. It’s function is to limit_______ “direction“ travel of the tibia on the femur. | Anterior cruciate ligament anterior direction |
| If you were asked to apply cast for a patient with a PCL tear, would it be reasonable to put the patient’s leg up on a stand for casting yes or no? | No, it was just the PCL and caused tibial SAG or posterior displacement. It will hurt the patient and cause more damage. |
| In a valgus stress of the knee what capsular ligament is stressed? Which ligament is relieved? | Medial collateral ligament is stressed Lateral collateral ligament is relieved |
| The measurement made of the intersection of lines drawn from the anteriorsuperior iliac spine to the mid patella, and the mid patella to the anterior tibial tuberosity is referred to as the | Q angle |
| The iliotibial band inserts between the tibial tuberosity and the head of the fibula. What is the term for the point of insertion? | Gerdys tubercle |
| What ligaments is the KT – 1000 designed to test? | Anterior and posterior cruciate ligament |
| What is plica? | Plica is a fold or shelf of membraneous synovial tissue |
| In order for Taylor Swift to occur, there must be_____ points of failure in the ring of the Mortise. | 2 |
| External rotation ankle fractures usually result from_______ rotation of your body | Internal |
| Name the three radiologic views that constitute a “ankle series“ | A/P Lateral Mortise |
| The _______ Ligaments of the ankle are more common sites for inversion ligament sprains of the ankle | Anterior talofibular |
| What is not a common problem with spiral tibial fxs | Distraction |
| This device is used to treat tibial shaft fractures involving significant bone loss. If used to treat an acute fracture it can both be a fracture, fixator and a traction device to lengthen the bone. | Illizarov |
| A fracture of the medial Mallios is also a sign of a possible avulsion or tear of the | Deltoid ligament |
| This ankle injury is a complete disruption of the syndesmosis caused by external rotation forces, resulting in proximal fibula fracture | Maisonnauve |
| What does SER & PER refer to in ankle injuries | Supination external rotation Pronation external rotation |
| Which of the following would be the best method of treatment for an open injury with substantial loss and a spiral fracture of the tibia and fibula in an adult? & why? | External fixator because you can check the one to make sure there’s no infection and it can possibly lengthen Bone |
| What is the true term for clubfoot? | Talipes equinovarus |
| The term for the turning in of the forefoot metatarsal is | Metatarsus adductus |
| A fracture and dislocation through the tarso-metatarsal joint with displacement of the proximal metatarsal is referred to using the term | Lizfranc |
| The term for thickening of the planter nerve just beyond the metatarsal head in the web space usually found between the third and fourth toes | Morton’s neuroma |
| This x-ray visualizes the calcaneus, it is an AP with a 45° tilt | Harris |
| The term for a tearing or disruption of the syndesmosis joint of the ankle is | Diastasis |
| A ________ fresher described as a “third degree abduction, external rotation fracture of the ankle” | Potts |
| Name the term for an apophyistis of the heel bone at the insertion of the Achilles tendon | Severs disease |
| The term for the surgical procedure for the correction of clubfoot in an infant is | Turco |
| Achilles tendon injuries that are treated conservatively are placed in a | LLC with equines and knee flexed |
| In the treatment of tibia fractures with intramuscular rods, what is the term used to indicate a rod that incorporates transverse screws at the proximal and distal ends of the rod to maintain length? | Interlocked |
| The lower or distal end of the tibia and fibula makes up the medial and lateral______of the ankle | Malleoli |
| Because of the geometry of the ankle joint is referred to as a______ type of joint a word used in carpentry in masonry | Mortise |
| The distal articular surface of the tibia is referred to as the_______ which articulates with the dome of the______ which in turn articulates in a side saddle way with the largest of the tarsal bones the _______ | Plafond Talus Calcaneous |
| The ______ Compartment of the leg contains the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, and peroneus tertius. These muscles_______ The ankle joint and______ the toes. This compartment is innovated by the _____ ______ nerve | Anterior Dorsiflex Dorsiflex Deep peroneal |
| The_____ compartment of the leg contains the gastroc, soleus, and plantarius muscles. These muscles primarily_____ the ankle joint. The compartments are innervated by the______nerve | Posterior Plantar Flex Posterior tibia |
| The _______ compartment of the leg contains the peroneus longus and brevis muscles. These muscles cause what action of the ankle? ________ These muscles cause what action of the foot?_____ | Lateral Plantar Flex of the ankle Eversion of the foot |
| What nerve in innervates the lateral compartment of the leg | Superficial peroneal nerve |
| Besides a normal number of sesamoid and accessory bones in the foot, how many bones comprise the foot? | 26 |
| Prior and immediately after the cast application of any lower extremity cast, one should always test the extension power of the great Toe why? | To test motor function of the extensor hallucis longus, when innervated by the deep peroneal nerve |
| What structure bridges the two bones of the lower leg to maintain the integrity of the ankle Mortise joint forming the syndesmosis? | Interossius membrane |
| The large bulk of muscle responsible for extension of the spine, extends from the sacrum to the skull, and is the only muscle supplied by the post primary rami of the spinal nerves | Erector spinae |
| The normal adult vertebrae spine contains how many osseous units | 33 |
| Between each of the vertebrae there are fibrocartilaginous discs. What is the term for the outer or peripheral layer of these discs? | Annulus fibrosus |
| What is the term for the gelatinous mass in the center of these discs? | Nucleus pulposus |
| What two areas allow for the most rotation motion of the spine | Cervical/ thoracic |
| Name the five spinal regions and the number of vertebrae in each | Cervical-7 Thoracic-12 Lumbar-5 Sacral-5 “fused” Coccygeal-4 |
| The total number of normal curves seen in the AP view of the spine is | 0 |
| In rotation of the skull C one together with a skull rotates around the process that arises from C2 and incorporates into C1 this process is known as the | Odondoid process |
| What action on the lumbar spine does the quadratus lumborum have? | Lateral flexion |
| The C1 through C7 spinal nerves leave the vertebral canal_____ the pedicles of the corresponding vertebrae, while the rest of the spine they_______ THE Pedicles OF THE VERTEBRAE | Above Exit below |
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