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Ch. 16 Urinalysis
Chapter 16 Urinalysis
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Failure of the kidneys to produce urine | Anuria |
| The presence of bilirubin in the urine | Bilirubinuria |
| The passing of a sterile catheter through the urethra and into the bladder to remove urine | Bladder catheterization |
| Secretion and passage of large amounts of urine | Diuresis |
| Difficult or painful urination | Dysuria |
| The condition of having to urinate often | Frequency |
| The presence of glucose in the urine | Glycosuria |
| Blood present in the urine | Hematuria |
| The presence of ketone bodies in the urine | Ketonuria |
| An accumulation of large amounts of ketone bodies in the tissues and body fluids | Ketosis |
| The act of voiding urine | Micturition |
| The functional unit of the kidney that filters waste substances from the blood and dilutes them with water to produce urine | Nephron |
| Excessive (voluntary) urination during the night | Nocturia |
| Inability of an individual to control urination at night during sleep (bedwetting) | Nocturnal enuresis |
| Decreased or scanty output of urine. Less than 400 mL in 24 hours. | Oliguria |
| The unit that describes the acidity or alkalinity of a solution | pH |
| Increased output of urine. Exceeding 2000 mL in 24 hours | Polyuria |
| The presence of protein in the urine | Proteinuria |
| The presence of pus in the urine | Pyuria |
| The concentration at which a substance in the blood that is not normally excreted by the kidneys begins to appear in the urine | Renal threshold |
| The inability to empty the bladder. The urine is being produced normally but is not being voided | Retention |
| The weight of a substance compared with the weight of an equal volume of distilled water | Specific gravity (urine) |
| The clear liquid that remains at the top after a precipitate has settled | Supernatant |
| The passing of a sterile needle through the abdominal wall into the bladder to remove urine | Suprapubic aspiration |
| The immediate need to urinate | Urgency |
| The physical, chemical, and microscopic analyses of urine | Urinalysis |
| The inability to retain urine | Urinary incontinence |
| The function of the urinary system is to | regulate the fluid and electrolyte balance of the body and to remove waste products |
| The urinary system consists of: | kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra |
| Are bean-shaped organs approximately 4.5 inches long and 2 to 3 inches wide and are located in the lumbar region of the body | kidneys |
| Urine drains from the kidneys into the urinary bladder through two tubes known as | Ureters |
| Each ureter is approximately: | 10 to 12 inches long and 1/2 inch in diameter |
| Is a hollow, muscular sac that can hold approximately 500 mL of urine | Urinary bladder |
| What is the function of the urinary bladder? | to store and expel urine |
| Is a tube that extends from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body | Urethra |
| Is the external opening of the urethra | Urinary meatus |
| In males, the urethra functions in transporting: | Urine and reproductive secretions |
| In females, the urethra functions in: | Urination only |
| Each kidney contains approximately 1 million smaller units known as | Nephrons |
| Is the functional unit of the kidney. It filters waste substances from the blood and dilutes them with water to produce urine. It also reabsorbes substances like water, glucose, and electrolytes and returns them back to the body | Nephron |
| Urine is composed of: | 95% water and 5% organic and inorganic waste products |
| Organic waste products in urine consist of: | Urea, uric acid, ammonia, and creatinine |
| Is present in the greatest amounts in urine and is derived from the breakdown of proteins | Urea |
| Inorganic waste products in urine include: | Chloride, sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium, phosphate, and sulfate |
| A normal adult excretes approximately: | 750 to 2000 mL of urine per day |
| Polyuria can be caused by: | Excessive intake of fluids or the intake of fluids that contain caffeine, certain drugs such as, diuretics and the pathologic conditions of diabetes mellitus, diabetes insipidus, and renal disease |
| Oliguria may occur with: | Decreased fluid intake, dehydration, profuse perspiration, vomiting, diarrhea, or kidney disease |
| The advantages of urine testing are: | That urine is readily available and obtaining it does not require an invasive procedure or the use of special equipment |
| List two functions of the urinary system: | Regulate fluid and electrolyte balance of the body and remove waste products |
| What is the function of the urinary bladder? | Store and expel urine |
| What is the function of the ureters? | Drains urine from the kidneys into the urinary bladder |
| How does the function of the urethra differ in the male and female? | In males, it transports urine and reproductive secretions and in females it just transports urine |
| What is the urinary meatus? | Is the external opening of the urethra |
| Most of the urine (95%) is composed of what substance? | Water |
| How much urine does the normal adult excrete each day and what causes the amount to vary? | Approximately 750 to 2000 mL a day and varies according to the amount of fluid consumed and the amount lost by other means |
| What are four conditions that cause polyuria? | Excessive intake of fluids, diabetes mellitus, diabetes insipidus, and renal disease |
| What are four conditions that cause oliguria? | Decreased fluid intake, dehydration, profuse perspiration, vomiting, diarrhea, or kidney disease |
| What type of urine specimen is required for the detection of a UTI? | Clean-catch midstream specimen |
| Why is the first-voided morning specimen often preferred for urine testing? | Because it contains the greatest concentration of dissolved substances and a small amount of an abnormal substance that is present would be more easily detected |
| What is the purpose of performing the clean-catch midstream urine collection procedure? | Is to remove microorganisms from the urinary meatus and the distal urethra |
| What type of test is performed on a first-catch urine specimen? | Chlamydia and gonorrhea using a nucleic acid amplification (NAA) test |
| What is the purpose of a 24-hour urine specimen? | Use for the quantitative measurement of specific urinary components |
| Why should a patient not void directly into a 24-hour urine specimen container that contains a preservative? | The preservative could splash onto the patient's skin resulting in a chemical burn |
| What changes may take place in a urine specimen, if it is allowed to stand at room temperature for more than 1 hour | Bacteria gets into specimen & work on urea present in the urine converting it to ammonia. Bacteria multiply rapidly resulting in a cloudy specimen & increase in the nitrite. Cast decompose after several hours. Red & white blood cells present may breakdown |
| Why does concentrated urine tend to be a darker yellow? | Because it contains more dissolved substances |
| What can cause a freshly voided urine specimen to be cloudy? | Maybe the presence of bacteria, pus, blood, fat, yeast, sperm, mucus threads, or fecal contaminants |
| What is the odor of a urine specimen that has been allowed to stand at room temperature for a long period of time? | Has an ammonia odor from the breakdown of urea by bacteria |
| What is the purpose of testing the specific gravity of urine? | Indicates the amount of dissolved substances present in the urine |
| What are conditions that cause an increase in the specific gravity of urine? | Adrenal insufficiency, congestive heart failure, hepatic disease, and diabetes mellitus with glycosuria |
| What is the normal range for the specific gravity of urine? | 1.005 to 1.030 |
| Why does concentrated urine have a higher specific gravity? | Because of the increased amount of dissolved substances |
| What conditions can be evaluated and diagnosed through the chemical examination of urine? | Kidney function, UTI, carbohydrate metabolism (diabetes mellitus), and liver function |
| What is the normal range for the pH of urine? | 5 to 7.5 |
| What may cause an increase in the pH of urine? | Bacterial infection of the urinary tract |
| Why does urine become more alkaline if it is not preserved? | Urea is converted to ammonia by bacterial action, which causes it to be more alkaline |
| What may cause glycosuria? | Diabetes mellitus is the most common cause |
| What conditions may cause proteinuria? | Stress or strenuous exercise, glomerular filtration problems, renal disease, and bacterial infection of the urinary tract |
| What may cause ketonuria? | Diabetes mellitus, starvation, and a diet composed entirely of fat |
| How is bilirubin normally eliminated from the body? | Transported to the liver by the blood and excreted into the bile, and it eventually leaves the body through the intestines in the feces, giving the stool it's brown color |
| What conditions may cause bilirubin to appear in the urine? | Gallstones, hepatitis, and cirrhosis |
| What may cause blood to appear in the urine? | Result of an injury or cystitis, tumors of the bladder, urethritis, kidney stones, and certain kidney disorders |
| Why should a nitrite test not be performed on a urine specimen that has been left standing at room temperature? | Because a false-positive result may occur from bacterial contamination from the environment |
| Why should a nitrite test be performed on a first-voided morning specimen? | Must be performed with urine that has been in the bladder for at least 4 to 6 hours to ensure that bacteria has converted nitrate to nitrite |
| What conditions cause leukocyturia? | Acute and chronic pyelonephritis, cystitis, and urethritis |
| What should be done if a urine specimen is unable to be tested within1 hour of voiding? | Should be refrigerated immediately and then allowed to return to room temperature before testing |
| How should urine reagent strips be stored? | In a cool, dry area away from direct sunlight with the cap tightly closed to maintain reactivity of the reagent |
| How does a quality control test ensure the reliability of reagent strip urine testing? | By determining whether the reagent strips are reacting properly and confirming that the test is being properly performed and accurately interpreted |
| What problems may cause a urine strip quality control test to fail to produce expected results? | Outdated reagent strips, improper storage of the strips, and an error in testing technique |
| When should a urine reagent strip quality control test be performed? | When each new container of strips is opened for the first time or when a question of reliability arises regarding test strips |
| What is the purpose of performing a microscopic examination of the urine? | Helps to clarify the results of the physical and chemical examination of urine |
| What is urine sediment? | Is the solid material contained in the urine |
| Why is the first-voided urine specimen recommended for a microscopic examination of the urine? | Because it is more concentrated and contains more dissolved substances |
| What effect does concentrated urine have on red blood cells? | Causes red blood cells to become shrunken or crenated |
| What effect does dilute urine have on red blood cells? | Causes them to swell and become rounded which may cause them to hemolyze |
| What condition may be indicated by an elevated number of white blood cells in the urine sediment? | Pyelonephritis, cystitis, urethritis, prostatitis, transplant rejection, tissue injury accompanied by severe inflammation, and inflammation, immune mechanisms, and other host defense mechanisms |
| What are urinary casts? | Cylindric structures formed in the lumen of the tubules that make up the nephron |
| What is the name of the vaginal infection caused by yeast? | Vulvovaginal candidiasis |
| List three reasons for performing a pregnancy test | To initiate early prenatal care. Before certain medications are ordered. Before procedures are performed that may cause injury to a fetus. |
| What is the name of the hormone that is present in the urine and blood only of a pregnant woman? | Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) |
| What is the preferred specimen for a urine pregnancy test? | First-voided morning specimen |
| What may occur if the specific gravity of a urine specimen is less than 1.007? | Is considered too dilute for pregnancy testing and may lead to a false-negative test results |
| What is the purpose of an internal control built into a urine pregnancy test? | To evaluate whether certain aspects of the testing procedure are working properly |
| What conditions (other than a normal pregnancy) can result in a positive urine pregnancy test? | Ectopic pregnancy and molar pregnancy |
| Urine testing in the medical office is often performed on | Freshly voided random specimens |
| A first-voided morning specimen is recommended for | Pregnancy testing |
| A clean-catch midstream specimen is necessary for | Identification of the presence of a urinary tract infection (UTI) |
| The urinary bladder and most of the urethra are normally | Free of microorganisms |
| The distal urethra and the urinary meatus normally | Harbor microorganisms |
| The purpose of a clean-catch midstream collection is: | To remove microorganisms from the urinary meatus and the distal urethra |
| How is a clean-catch midstream specimen accomplished? | Thoroughly cleanse the area surrounding the meatus and to void a small amount of urine into the toilet which flushes out microorganisms in the distal urethra. Is collected in a sterile container using medically aseptic techniques. |
| A first-catch urine specimen can be used to test for | The presence of chlamydia and gonorrhea using a nucleic acid amplification (NAA) test |
| To obtain a first catch urine specimen the patient should: | Not urinate for at least 1 hour prior to the collection of the urine specimen. Should not cleanse the genital area before collecting the specimen. Should be instructed to collect only 15 to 30 mL of the initial urine stream in the specimen container. |
| The first 15 to 30 mL of urine voided by the patient in the first-catch urine specimen contains: | The greatest concentration of chlamydia and or gonorrhea bacteria, resulting in the greater likelihood that the NAA test will detect the presence of these pathogens |
| Collection of more than 30 mL of urine in the first-catch urine specimen results in | Dilution of the specimen which may affect the accuracy of the test results |
| Collecting urine over a 24-hour period provides | Greater accuracy and measurement of urinary components |
| Examples of substances measured in a 24-hour specimen include: | Calcium, cortisol, lead, potassium, protein, and urea nitrogen |
| A 24-hour specimen is often used in the diagnosis of the | Cause of kidney stone formation and in the control and prevention of new stone formation. May also be used to perform a creatinine clearance test, which provides information on kidney function. |
| Is used to store the urine collected over the 24-hour period | large wide-mouthed container (3000 mL) |
| Examples of urine preservatives include: | Hydrochloric acid, boric acid, acetic acid, and toluene |
| What should be attached to the specimen container with a preservative? | A hazardous chemical warning label |
| Certain medications can alter a 24-hour urine specimen and the provider usually requires the patient to discontinue for 1 week before test. These medications include: | Thiazides, phosphorus-binding antacids, allopurinol, and vitamin C |
| Urinalysis consists of a: | Physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine |
| If a urine specimen cannot be examined within 1 hour of voiding it should be | Preserved at once in the refrigerator in a closed container and later returned to room temperature and mixed before testing |
| The physical examination of urine includes: | A determination of color, appearance, odor, and specific gravity of urine |
| For an accurate evaluation of the color and appearance the urine specimen must be collected in | A clear plastic container |
| The color of the urine is the result of the presence of a yellow pigment known as | Urochrome, produced by the breakdown of hemoglobin |
| Classifications that can be used to describe the color of urine include: | Light yellow, yellow, dark yellow, amber, and dark amber |
| Abnormal urine color assists in determining additional tests that may be necessary. Abnormal colors may be caused by the presence of | Hemoglobin or blood (resulting in a red or reddish color), bile pigments (resulting in a yellow brown or greenish color) and fat deposits or pus (resulting in a milky color) |
| What urinary tract analgesic causes the urine to change to a orange to red color? | Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) |
| Fresh urine is usually | Clear or transparent, but becomes cloudy if left standing out too long |
| Cloudiness in a freshly voided specimen may be the result of the presence | Of bacteria, pus, blood, fat, yeast, sperm, mucus threads, or fecal contaminants |
| A microscopic examination of the urine sediment is usually performed on all | Cloudy specimens to determine the cause of the cloudiness |
| Classifications used to describe the appearance of urine include: | Clear, slightly cloudy, cloudy, and very cloudy |
| Freshly voided urine normally should have a | Slightly aromatic odor |
| Urine left standing out for a long time develops an | Ammonia odor from the breakdown of urea by bacteria in the specimen |
| The urine odor of a patient with diabetes mellitus may have | A fruity odor from the presence of ketone |
| The urine odor of a patient with a UTI is usually | Foul smelling and the odor becomes worse on standing |
| Certain foods can cause the urine to have a musty smell like | Asparagus |
| Although urine may have many characteristic odors, as a rule the odor of urine is not typically used in | The diagnosis of a patient's condition |
| Indicates the amount of dissolved substances present in the urine providing information on the ability of the kidneys to dilute or concentrate the urine | Specific gravity |
| Specific gravity is decreased in conditions in which the kidneys cannot concentrate the urine such as | Chronic renal insufficiency, diabetes insipidus, and malignant hypertension |
| The specific gravity is increased in patients with | Adrenal insufficiency, congestive heart failure, hepatic disease, diabetes mellitus with glycosuria, and conditions that cause dehydration such as fever, vomiting, and diarrhea |
| The normal specific gravity of urine ranges from | 1.005 to 1.030 (but is usually between 1.010 and 1.025) |
| The specific gravity of distilled water is | 1.000 |
| Dilute urine contains fewer dissolved substances and has a | Lower specific gravity |
| Concentrated urine has a increased amount of dissolved substances and has a | Higher specific gravity |
| In the medical office, specific gravity is most commonly measured using a | Reagent strip |
| What percentage of all work-related accidents can be traced to substance abuse | 65% |
| A comprehensive drug testing program includes: | The detection of drug use in the workplace, policies to discourage further abuse, and the referral of employees for treatment and rehabilitation |
| Drug testing may be performed for one or more of the following purposes: | Preemployment drug screening testing, for probable cause after unexplained behavior or an incident, and random sample testing of the workforce to detect use of controlled substances by employees on the job |
| Current urine screening test target the most common drugs of abuse they are: | Alcohol, amphetamines, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, cocaine, marijuana, opioids, phencyclidine (PCP) and methadone |
| To help ensure reliable and valid drug testing results a security system must be followed in the collection and handling of the specimen this is called | "Chain of custody" |
| Chemical examination of urine includes: | pH, glucose, protein, ketone, bilirubin, urobilinogen, blood, nitrite, and leukocytes |
| The pH reading of 7.0 is | Neutral |
| The pH reading less than 7.0 indicates | Acidity |
| The pH reading greater than 7.0 indicates | Alkalinity |
| For an accurate pH reading of the urine the measurement should be performed on | Freshly voided urine |
| The pH of urine can normally range from | 5 to 7.5 |
| The pH of a freshly voided specimen of a patient on a normal diet is usually acidic and has a pH reading of | 6.0 |
| An abnormally high pH reading on a fresh specimen may indicate a | Bacterial infection of the urinary tract |
| The renal threshold for glucose is typically | 160 to 180 mg/dL (100 mL of blood) |
| What is the most common cause of glycosuria | Diabetes mellitus |
| Some individuals have a low renal threshold and glucose may appear in the urine after the consumption of a large quantity of foods containing sugar. This condition is known as | Alimentary glucosuria |
| A temporary increase in urine protein (proteinuria) may be caused by | Stress or strenuous exercise |
| Some conditions that may cause proteinuria include: | Glomerular filtration problems, renal disease, and bacterial infection of the urinary tract |
| Are normal products of fat metabolism and can be used by muscle tissue as a source of energy | Ketones |
| The three types of ketone bodies are? | B-hydroxybutyric acid, acetoacetic acid, and acetone |
| Conditions that can cause increased fat metabolism resulting in ketonuria include: | Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, starvation, and a diet composed almost entirely of fat |
| When a red blood cell breaks down, one of the substances released from the breakdown of hemoglobin is a vivid yellow pigment known as | Bilirubin |
| What conditions can cause an increase of bilirubin in the urine? | Liver conditions like hepatitis and cirrhosis and gallbladder problems like gallstones |
| What does urine look like when bilirubin is present? | Becomes yellow-brown or greenish and a yellow foam appears when the urine is shaken |
| Conditions that may increase the level of urobilinogen in the urine include: | Excessive hemolysis of red blood cells, infectious hepatitis, cirrhosis, congestive heart failure, and infectious mononucleosis |
| Is considered an abnormal constituent of urine | Blood |
| The condition in which blood is found in the urine is termed | Hematuria |
| Hematuria may be the result of | Injury or disorders such as cystitis, tumors of the bladder, urethritis, kidney stones, and certain kidney disorders |
| Nitrite in the urine indicates the presents of a | Pathogen in the (normally sterile) urinary tract, which results in a UTI |
| A pathogen possesses the ability to convert nitrate, which normally occurs in urine into | Nitrite which is normally absent |
| The nitrite test must be performed with urine that has been in the bladder for at least | 4 to 6 hours |
| What urine specimen is recommended for a nitrite test? | First-voided morning specimen |
| Examples of specific conditions that cause leukocyturia include: | Acute or chronic pyelonephritis, cystitis, and urethritis |
| The recommended urine specimen for the presence of leukocyturia is | A clean-catch midstream collection |
| Multistix10 SG is a CLIA-waived test that contains 10 reagent pads for testing | pH, protein, glucose, ketone, bilirubin, blood, urobilinogen, nitrite, specific gravity, and leukocytes |
| Indicate whether a substance is present in the urine and also may provide an approximate indication of the amount of the substance present | Qualitative test results |
| The reagent strip test results provide information to assist in diagnosis of the following: | Conditions affecting kidney function, UTIs, conditions affecting carbohydrate metabolism (diabetes mellitus), conditions affecting liver function (hepatitis). Test results also provide information on a patient's acid-base balance and urine concentration |
| Guidelines for testing urine with a reagent strip to ensure accurate test results include: | Type of specimen. Type of collection. Urine specimen container. Time intervals. Interpretation and reading of results. Storage of reagent strips. |
| The container of reagent strips must be stored at a temperature between | 59° F and 86° F |
| A tan-to-brown discoloration or darkening of the reagent pads indicates | Deterioration of the reagent strips, in which case the strips should not be used because the test results would be inaccurate |
| To check the reliability of Multistix reagent strips what should be used | Chek-Stix control |
| Some medical offices perform moderate complexity test which involve the examination of a specimen under the microscope known as | Provider-performed microscopy (PPM) |
| The microscopic examination of urine sediment is a PPM procedure and must be performed by | An individual with the proper training and skill qualifications such as a medical office provider |
| The presence of blood in urine at a normal level is | 0 to 3 per high-power field (HPF) |
| The presence of white blood cells in urine at a normal level is | 0 to 5 per high-power field (HPF) |
| Are large, clear, flat cells with an irregular shape. They contain a small nucleus and come from the urethra, bladder, and vagina. Are normally present in small amounts in the urine. | Squamous epithelial cells |
| Are round and contain a large nucleus. They come from the deeper layers of the urinary tract and their presence in the urine is considered abnormal. | Renal epithelial cells |
| Are pale, colorless, cylinders with rounded edges that vary in size | Hyaline cast |
| Are hyaline cast that contain granules and are described as "coarsely granular" or "finally granular" depending on the size of the granules | Granular casts |
| Are hyaline cast that contain fat droplets | Fatty casts |
| Are light yellow and have serrated edges their name is derived from the fact that they appear to be made of wax | Waxy casts |
| Contain organized structures and are named according to what they contain. (Ex. Red blood cell casts, white blood cell casts, epithelial casts, and bacterial casts) | Cellular casts |
| Abnormal crystals found in the urine include: | Leucine, tyrosine, cystine, and cholesterol |
| Crystals that commonly appear in acid urine include: | Amorphous urates, uric acid, and calcium oxalate |
| Crystals that commonly appear in alkaline urine include: | Amorphous phosphate, triple phosphate, calcium phosphate, and ammonium urate crystals |
| A UTI is usually treated with a | Antibiotic |
| The most common source of infection of a UTI is | E. coli |
| Are normally present in small amounts in the urine. They appear as long, wavy, thread-like structures with pointed ends | Mucus threads |
| Should not normally exist in the urinary tract. The presence of more than a few may indicate either contamination of the specimen during collection or a UTI | Bacteria |
| Are smooth, refractile bodies with an oval shape. A distinguishing feature is small buds that project from the cells involved with reproduction. | Yeast |
| Yeast cells in the urine of female patients are usually a vaginal contaminant caused by the yeast | Candida albicans |
| Candida albicans produce a vaginal infection known as | Vulvovaginal candidiasis |
| Yeast cells may also be present in the urine of patients with | Diabetes mellitus |
| Maybe present in the urine sediment as a contaminant from fecal or vaginal material | Parasites |
| Is a parasite that causes trichomoniasis vaginitis | Trichomonas vaginalis |
| Maybe present in the urine of a man or woman after intercourse. Has round heads and long, slender, hairlike tails | Spermatozoa |
| In the medical office, immunologic tests are often used for pregnancy testing. These tests are performed on a concentrated urine specimen and rely on the presence of a hormone known as | Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) |
| Is produced by the developing fertilized egg and small amounts of it is secreted into the urine and blood | Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) |
| HCG increases rapidly and can be used to detect pregnancy with a serum pregnancy test as early as | 6 days before the first missed menstrual period |
| The highest plasma levels of HCG occur at approximately | 8 weeks after conception |
| Within 72 hours of delivery HCG | Disappears entirely from the plasma |
| Pregnancy tests are more sensitive during the | First trimester |
| When performed correctly most urine pregnancy tests are | 99% accurate with low occurrences of false-positive test results |
| Early prediction urine pregnancy test may be able to detect pregnancy as early as | 2 to 3 days before a first missed menstrual period |
| Accurate results are much more probable if the urine is tested | 1 week after a missed period |
| Is a non-waived quantitative test used to detect HCG in the serum of the blood | Radioimmunoassay (RIA) |
| A serum pregnancy test can usually detect pregnancy at approximately | The 8th day after fertilization, which is 6 days before the first missed menstrual period |
| The serum pregnancy test is usually used to diagnose abnormalities such as | Ectopic pregnancy; to follow the course of early pregnancy with abnormalities of embryonic development are suspected; and to provide an early diagnosis of pregnancy in individuals at high risk, such as patients with diabetes |
| Possible causes of red blood cells in urine sediment include: | Inflammatory disease, acute glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis, hypertension, renal infarction, trauma, stones, tumor, bleeding diseases, use of anticoagulants |
| Possible causes of white blood cells in urine sediment include: | Pyelonephritis, cystitis, urethritis, prostatitis, transplant rejection, tissue injury accompanied by severe inflammation |
| Possible causes of squamous epithelial cells in urine sediment include: | Vaginal contamination |
| Possible causes of renal tubular epithelial cells in urine sediment include: | Acute tubular necrosis, glomerulonephritis, acute infection, renal toxicity, and viral infection |
| Possible causes of hyaline casts in urine sediment include: | Normal urine, strenuous exercise, acute glomerulonephritis, acute pyelonephritis, malignant hypertension, chronic renal disease |
| Possible causes of uric acid in urine sediment include: | Usually nonpathologic; In large numbers, may indicate gout |
| Possible causes of calcium oxalate in urine sediment include: | Usually nonpathologic; may be associated with stone formation |
| More than 100,000 bacteria per mL indicates | Urinary tract infection |
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Diamond87