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microbiology
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| diaphragm lever function | changes the width of the diaphragm and thus how much light is let through |
| wet mount | a specimen is placed in a drop of liquid on a glass slide and covered with a coverslip, so it is in a more natural liquid environment |
| hanging drop slide | drop of culture hanging from a coverslip in a slide with a concave well |
| motility agar | test tube of low concentration agar |
| magnification and depth of field relationship | As magnification increases, the depth of field decreases. |
| condenser lens | gathers light from an illuminator and focuses it into a cone |
| movement in response to stimuli | taxis |
| diplo | in pairs |
| strepto | forms chains |
| staph | forms clusters |
| Volvox | a kind of globe algae. green balls inside of clear balls with green dots |
| Yeast | colorless, round to oval, nonmobile |
| Euglena | photosynthetic eukaryote with a flagellum |
| resolving power | the smallest distance in which two points can be distinguished |
| dimmer knob | adjusts light intensity by adjusting the power of the bulb |
| solidifying agent melting point | 100 C |
| solidifying agent holding temperature | 50 C |
| what is solid media best for | establishing pure cultures |
| what is liquid media best for | growing large numbers of bacteria |
| complex media | a soup of inexactly measured biologically derived chemicals and nutrients, somewhat natural food for bacteria |
| chemically defined media | precisely defined and measured mix of chemicals, chemically exact food for bacteria |
| things needed written on a plate | type of sample OR name of bacteria. incubation time AND temperature |
| The solidifying agent in solid media | agar |
| characteristics of selective media | promotes the growth of specific microorganisms while inhibiting others |
| characteristics of differential media | can be used to distinguish closely related microorganisms |
| products of yeast fermentation | CO2 and ethanol |
| Healthcare-associated infections (HAIs) | infections that patients get while or soon after receiving health care |
| sense strand | structurally matches the produced RNA |
| antisense strand | the strand from which the RNA is produced |
| DNA directed DNA polymerase | replicates DNA |
| Inducible Enzymes | produced only when a specific nutrient is available in the environment. |
| Repressible Enzymes | produced by default but is its own production off switch in high concentrations |
| lac operon model | describes gene regulation where it is only activated when needed via presence of something |
| The Tryptophan Operon model | describes gene regulation where presence of a lot of what it produces stops production |
| restriction enzyme | bacterial defesne against viruses that cut up DNA |
| restriction site | palendromic sequences that make sticky ends when cut |
| restriction digest | put a bunch of DNA with a solution of lots of different restriction enzymes to chop it into pieces |
| genetics | the branch of biology that studies genes, heredity, and variation in living organisms |
| restriction fragments | the segments of DNA produced when a DNA molecule is cut by specialized proteins called restriction enzymes |
| How to tell if a restriction enzyme creates sticky ends | check the cut type |
| Steps to do RFLP fingerprints | 1. Lyse cells 2. Extract DNA 3. Digest DNA with restriction enzymes 4. Separate restriction fragments by electrophoresis 5. Stain gel |
| definition of lysing cells | to break open its outer boundary to release the internal contents |
| electrophoresis | a laboratory technique used to separate charged molecules based on their size and electrical charge |
| southern blotting | DNA fragments are transferred from the fragile gel onto a sturdy nylon or nitrocellulose membrane. done via capillary action |
| gene | a specific sequence of nucleotides in DNA that contains the instructions to build a functional product, usually a protein |
| viroid | naked genetic material that can infect others |
| prions | misfolded proteins that cause other proteins to misfold |
| probe | A probe is a labeled piece of DNA that is complementary to the sequence of DNA you are interested in |
| structure of a nucleotide | a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar, and a phosphate group |
| histones | proteins that are used to pack DNA in eukaryotes |
| What is DNA polymerase? | enzymes that build new DNA by assembling nucleotides |
| DNA-directed DNA polymerase | synthesizes new DNA from an existing strand |
| RNA-directed DNA polymerase | RNA stand that makes DNA. used by retroviruses to spread |
| In what direction does DNA-directed DNA polymerase synthesize new DNA strands? | 5' to 3' |
| In what direction does DNA-directed DNA polymerase read a template strand of DNA? | 3' to 5' |
| RNA primer | a short sequence of ribonucleotides that serves as the essential "starting block" for DNA synthesis |
| In a new strand of DNA what enzyme links the pieces of DNA that replace the RNA primers? | DNA ligase |
| What are Okazaki fragments? | short, newly synthesized DNA segments formed on the lagging strand during DNA replication |
| What enzyme carries out transcription? | RNA ploymerace |
| coding strand | not read, but matches the actual rna produced |
| introns | inbetween code |
| exons | expressed |
| how are noncoding sequences removed? | spliced out via spliceosomes |
| What is catabolic repression? | a mechanism where the presence of an efficient source of energy disables the digestion of other sources |
| lac operon | active repressor protein that lets go when needed |
| trp operon | inactive repressor protein that activates via reaction with what its gene makes |
| silent mutation | change in DNA that has no effect on the produced protein |
| point or substitution mutation | one nucleotide is swapped for another |
| frameshift mutation | one or more nucleotides, a non-multiple of three, is deleted or added to the genome, messes up the whole protein |
| in-frame mutation | 3 times n base pairs are added or deleted |
| missense mutation | changes the protein structure, acts wrong |
| nonsense mutation | mutation into a stop codon, resulting in a short, nonfunctional protein |
| positive mutation selection | plate an environment where only a mutant can grow |
| negative mutation selection | plate a bunch of colony dots on multiple plates in a pattern and change the conditions until one of the plates loses a colony |
| F+ cell | plasmid donor |
| F- cell | plasmid acceptor |
| What is an Hfr cell | bacterium where the F plasmid has physically integrated into the main circular chromosome |
| why is rat liver extract used in the ames test? | it turns a lot of nondangerous chemicals into carcinogens and simulates what actually happens inside the body |
| transformation | a bacterium incorporates a DNA strand it finds in its environment |
| conjugation | a bacterium accepts DNA from a donar cell |
| transduction | a bacterium incorporates a DNA accidently delivered to it via virus |
| Hfr conjugation or interrupted mating | an Hfr cell tries to feed an F- cell a copy of its entire genome, only gets partway before the bridge snaps |
| transposons | genes that copy and reinsert themselves into the genome |
| Protoplast Fusion | two cells with walls have their walls removed and are then fused together |
| gene library | a collection of cloned DNA fragments that together represent the genome or part of the genome of an organism |
| vector | a specialized DNA molecule used as a "vehicle" to carry foreign genetic material into a host cell |
| cDNA | eukaryote mRNA that has been reverse transcribed back into DNA but without the introns |
| what do the gram and endospore stain both use | safranin as a secondary stain |
| which staining techniques stain the cell wall | gram stain and acid fast |
| what is the primary stain of the endospore stain technique | malachite green |
| strain | a genetic variant or subtype of an organism that belongs to the same species but possesses unique, identifiable characteristics |
| what is SDS used for | breaks open cells by breaking up the membraine |
| what is TRIS used for | buffer for extracted DNA |
| binomial nomenclature | the formal, two-part scientific naming system for living organisms |
| eukaryotic species | a group of organisms that interbreed within the group but not with organisms outside the group |
| prokaryotic species | a group of cells with similar characteristics |
| distinguishing features of archaea | extremophiles, no peptidoglycan, ether linked cell membrane lipids |
| what are taxonomic schemes useful for? | showing evolutionary relatedness |
| serological test | blood test that detects antibodies and antigens |
| mycoplasma | distinguished by their lack of cell wall |
| mycobacterium | gram-positive acid-fast bacterium with a thick, waxy cell wall |
| what do C. perfringens and B. anthrasis have in common? | gram positive endospore forming bacillus |
| Rickettsia rickettsii | tick borne gram-negative coccobacilli |
| Borellia bungdoferri | causes lyme disease |
| Borrelia | gram negative spirochete |
| Chlamydia trachomatis | causes the STI chlamydia, the eye infection trachoma, and urinary inflammation called non-gonococcal urethritis |
| Bordetella pertussis | causes whooping cough |
| Neisseria gonorrhoeae | gram-negative coccus. causes gonorrhea, an STI that infects the throat and orifices. main symptom yellow-green discharge |
| Clostridium difficile | causes life-threatening diarrhea and inflammation of the colon |
| Salmonella enterica | gram negative bacillus that is the most common source of food poisoning |
| Shigella sonnei | gram negative bacillus. most common cause of dysentery. as few as 10 bacteria can cause a full-blown infection. |
| Escherichia coli | large and diverse group of Gram-negative bacillus. some are harmless but other cause food poisoning or UTIs |
| Staphylococcus aureus | gram positive with a golden glow in agar. causes a range of illnesses and is the most common healthcare infection |
| nosocomial | infections acquired while receiving treatment in a hospital, clinic, or nursing home |
| HAIs | Healthcare-Associated Infections |
| Clostridium perfringens | fast-growing Gram-positive bacillus that causes food poisoning and gas gangrene |
| Clostridium tetani | anaerobic, Gram-positive, motile, bacillus that causes tetanus. produces endospores when in oxygen. |
| Bacillus anthracis | endospore making, aerobic, gram-positive, bacillus that makes the deadly poison anthrax |
| Clostridium botulinum | gram-positive, anaerobic, endospore making. makes the potent neurotoxin botox, causing deadly botulism |
| Mycoplasma pneumonia | causes primary atypical pneumonia and walking pnumonia |
| Streptococcus pneumoniae | gram-positive diplococci. causes pneumococcal pneumonia. |
| Corynebacterium diphtheriae | Gram-positive, non-motile, club shaped bacillus that makes diphtheria toxin. toxin halt protein synthesis. |
| Mycobacterium leprae | acid-fast bacillus that causes leprosy. attacks the cooler extremities and blocks pain signals |
| Mycobacterium tuberculosis | acid fast bacillus that causes tuberculosis, 'the white death' infects immune cells, hides in the lungs, and slowly incubates |
| Borrelia burgdorferi | tick-borne gram-negative spirochete that causes Lyme disease |
| Treponema pallidum | gram negative spirochete that can only be seen via darkfield microscopy. causes syphilis. |
| lactose fermentation test | uses emb , phynl red or MacConkey agar. positive result generates acid and gas |
| Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar | inhibits growth of gram positive bacteria. tests for lactose fermentation, positive result pink or purple, E coli is green |
| Durham Lactose Broth | tests for lactose fermentation. glass vile inside a larger tube. positive result has cloudiness and a gas bubble |
| phenol red | used in urea test. tests for acid production. naturally red-orange. turns yellow in acid. turns pink in alkaline. |
| MacConkey (MAC) agar | tests for lactose fermentation. inhibits growth of gram positves. default yellow, turns pink when positve result |
| DNase test (or DNA hydrolysis test) | tests for production of DNase, which breaks down dna for food or disguise, uses methyl green or Toluidine Blue O |
| Methyl green | visual indicator for DNase Test Agar. A clear halo or colorless zone surrounding the bacterial growth is a positive result |
| Toluidine Blue O | visual indicator for DNase Test Agar. for positive result a bright pink halo forms around the colonies |
| indole test | test for ability to make tryptophanase. done via Tryptone Broth or SIM media. pink ring forms on surface for positive result. |
| Tryptone Broth | liquid medium used primarily to perform the Indole Test. needs Kovac's Reagent. |
| SIM (Sulfide-Indole-Motility) medium/media/agar | three-in-one semi-solid agar that tests for Sulfide production, Indole production, and Motility |
| Methyl Red (MR) test | determine if a bacterium performs mixed-acid fermentation. red if positive, yellow if negative, orange if mixed or inconclusive |
| Optochin | Antibiotic used to differentiate between s pnumoniae from other bacterium. Positive result as zone of inhibition |
| Blood agar | Used to observe hemolysis. Alpha = partial: greenish or brownish. Beta = complete: clear zone around cells. Gamma = none |
| Bacitracin | Antibiotic used to differentiate S pyogenes from other streptococcus |
| Catalase test | Tests for aerobic bacteria. Positive is vigorous bubbling when reagent of hydrogen peroxide is added. |
| Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) | Isolates Staphylococcus, who like salty environments. S. aureus is yellow, ferments the mannitol making acid. S. Epi makes it pink |
| Coagulase test | Determines whether bacterium produces coagulase. Positive result is clumping |
| DNase test | Tests for a dna breaker enzyme. Uses HCl, methyl green, or toluidine blue. Halo forms around colonies in positive result. |
| Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) slant agar | Tests for ability to ferment certain sugars and production of H2S gas. Red is neutral, yellow is acidic, pink is basic, Black is H2S. |
| Carb fermintation test | Used to tell if can ferment a specific sugar. Uses phenol red and inverted glass tube. Yellow+for acid, bubble in tube for gas+ |
| Urease test | urease hydrolyzes urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, pink is positive, |
| Voges-Proskauer (VP) test | if a bacterium ferments glucose via the butanediol pathway, making acid. positive is pink or red, negative is yellow or brown |
| Citrate Utilization Test | if live on only sodiumcitrate for carbon and ammoniumsalt for nitrogen. uses SimmonsCitrateAgar. +Intense Blue or growth |
| Simmons Citrate Agar | used for the citrate test |
| Long filaments of fungal cells joined together | hyphae |
| Vegetative hyphae | part that fungi absorb nutrients through |
| aerial hyphae | produces fungal reproductive spores |
| why are fungi mainly responsible for decomposing plant material | fungi have great tolerance for low moisture conditions |
| what temp are Pathogenic dimorphic fungi yeast like at | 37 degrees C |
| Plasmogamy | union of two haploid cells |
| Karyogamy | fusion of nuclei |
| Meiosis | cell division resulting in haploid cells |
| Anamorph | produces asexual spores only |
| Deuteromycota | a classification of fungi with an unknown reproductive method |
| Ascospore | sexually formed spore formed in a sac |
| Basidiospore | sexually formed spore found on a pedestal |
| zygospore | sexually formed, thick-walled spore formed as a segment within a hypha |
| Blastospore | asexual spore |
| fungal thallus | vegetative body of a fungus, made of hyphae |
| Mycelium | vegetative, root-like underground network of fungal hyphae |
| Coenocytic | lacking cross walls |
| Septate | with cross walls |
| Aerial mycelium | hyphae that grow above the ground |
| how do algae produce oxygen | hydrolysis of water |
| nontoxic algae | green algae |
| protozoa cyst | resilient life stage for surviving harsh environmental conditions or the journey between hosts |
| organism that can grow photoautotrophically in the light and chemoheterotrophically in the dark | Euglena |
| definitive host for Plasmodium | The Anopheles mosquito |
| when are Plasmodial gametocytes are present in the blood | at night |
| gametocytes | sexual precursor cells of Plasmodium parasites |
| helminths | worms, mostly parasitic |
| main transmission route of helminth infections | Gastrointestinal route |
| platyhelminths | flatworms |
| Cercariae | free-swimming, tadpole-like larval stage of trematode parasites (flukes) |
| Trematodes | class of flatworm flukes that are obligate parasites with at least two hosts |
| Nematodes | roundworms |
| Sporozoans | nonmotile parasitic protozoans with both sexual and asexual reproduction, often switching between hosts |
| Sarcodina | amoeboid protozoa |
| Cercariae, metacercaria, miracidia, and rediae | stages in the lifecycles of Trematodes |
| Redia | larval stage of trematodes, immediately precedes the adult stage |
| encysted larva of the beef tapeworm | Metacercaria |
| Bacteriophages and animal viruses are most similar in performing what | Adsorption |
| viral adsorption | occurs when a virus' surface element (virus attachment protein, VAP) interacts with a cellular receptor |
| The incorporation of phage DNA into bacterial host cell DNA | Lysogeny |
| prophage | phage DNA integrated into the bacterial chromosome |
| Lysogeny | when viral genome integrates into the host bacterium's chromosome |
| Cold sores | latent infection from herpes simplex virus |
| Generalized transduction | bacteriophages mistakenly package random fragments of host bacterial DNA instead of viral DNA |
| latent viruses | don't cause symptoms or cause hard to notice symptoms |
| what do latent viruses present in cells as | Proviruses |
| what do tapeworms eat | intestinal contents |
| what do hookworms eat | host tissues |
| parasitic reservoir | a host that can forever carry parasites without dying from them |
| Ringworm is caused by a(n) | Ascomycete |
| Yeast infections are caused by | Candida albicans |
| The scientific study of disease | pathology |
| The cause of a disease | etiology |
| The ability of a pathogen to produce a disease by overcoming the defenses of the host | pathogenicity |
| Ld50 | the amount of a pathogen or toxin required to kill 50% of a test population |
| id50 | median infectious dose required to cause active infection in 50% of a test population |
| virulence | Describes just how good a pathogen is at overcoming host defenses |
| The development (or progression) of a disease | pathogenesis |
| Koch’s postulates | Criteria for establishing that specific microbes cause specific diseases |
| Sporadic diseases | diseases that occur rarely |
| endemic disease | constantly present in population |
| epidemic | rapid widespread increase in a disease |
| subclinical disease | a disease that is active but asymptomatic |
| A disease that is relatively severe but of short duration | acute |
| reservoir | continuous source of infection |
| Nosocomial infections | infections acquired in a hospital |
| The period when the first mild signs and symptoms appear | predromal |
| The period when the signs and symptoms subside | period of decline |
| period when health is restored | period of convalescence |
| Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) | endotoxin |
| vasodilation | source of heat and redness during inflammation |
| Edema | the accumulation of fluid (swelling) in tissues caused by increased vascular permeability |
| Interleukin-1 | a family of cytokines that regulates immunity and can induce inflammation and fever |
| opsonization | pathogens or dead cells are coated with proteins marking them for destruction |
| cytolysis | bursting of a cell caused by an influx of water |
| effector cells | T, B, and NK cells |
| plasma cell | cell that produces antibodies |
| cell-mediated immunity | adaptive immune response that doesnt involve antigens |
| T cells that secrete Il-2 and stimulate B-cells, other T-cells, and even macrophages | helper T-cells |
| Agglutination | antibodies sticking together cells |
| Precipitation | antibodies sticking together toxins and particles |
| IgA | saturates the body fluids and mucosa, can't activate the complement system, found as a dimer |
| IgM | large, unrefined, and short lived. first antibodies produced in response to an antigen |
| IgD | found in blood, lymph, and immune cell membranes. no known specific or significant function. |
| IgG | main antibody for marking specific invaders. has many types, is long lasting, and most numerous. can cross into the placenta |
| IgE | antiparasitic agent. has a tendency to cause allergies when not given any real targets |
| dimer | a protein fragment (fibrin degradation product) found in the blood when a clot is degraded |
| The cell type that produces antibodies | plasma cell |
| cytotoxic T-cell | The cell type most likely to be involved in cell-mediated immunity |
| helper T-cells | T cells that secrete Il-2 and stimulate B-cells, other T-cells, and macrophages |
| attenuated vaccine | use a weakened form of a virus or bacteria that replicates in the body, most likely to cause disease when faulty |
| serological test that uses lysis of red blood cells as an indicator of a negative reaction | Agglutination test |
| Anaphylactic shock | hypersensitivity reaction that involves production of IgE which subsequently bind to mast cells and basophils |
| Desensitization | The process of injecting small doses allergen to elicit IgG production and block the allergic response |
| Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test | interpreted based on the diameter of the zone of inhibition |
| lactose fermentation test | uses emb , phynl red or MacConkey agar. positive result generates acid and gas |
| Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar | inhibits growth of gram positive bacteria. tests for lactose fermentation, positive result pink or purple, E coli is green |
| Durham Lactose Broth | tests for lactose fermentation. glass vile inside a larger tube. positive result has cloudiness and a gas bubble |
| phenol red | used in urea test. tests for acid production. naturally red-orange. turns yellow in acid. turns pink in alkaline. |
| MacConkey (MAC) agar | tests for lactose fermentation. inhibits growth of gram positves. default yellow, turns pink when positve result |
| DNase test (or DNA hydrolysis test) | tests for production of DNase, which breaks down dna for food or disguise, uses methyl green or Toluidine Blue O |
| Methyl green | visual indicator for DNase Test Agar. A clear halo or colorless zone surrounding the bacterial growth is a positive result |
| Toluidine Blue O | visual indicator for DNase Test Agar. for positive result a bright pink halo forms around the colonies |
| indole test | test for ability to make tryptophanase. done via Tryptone Broth or SIM media. pink ring forms on surface for positive result. |
| Tryptone Broth | liquid medium used primarily to perform the Indole Test. needs Kovac's Reagent. |
| SIM (Sulfide-Indole-Motility) medium/media/agar | three-in-one semi-solid agar that tests for Sulfide production, Indole production, and Motility |
| Methyl Red (MR) test | determine if a bacterium performs mixed-acid fermentation. red if positive, yellow if negative, orange if mixed or inconclusive |
| Optochin | Antibiotic used to differentiate between s pnumoniae from other bacterium. Positive result as zone of inhibition |
| Blood agar | Used to observe hemolysis. Alpha = partial: greenish or brownish. Beta = complete: clear zone around cells. Gamma = none |
| Bacitracin | Antibiotic used to differentiate S pyogenes from other streptococcus |
| Catalase test | Tests for aerobic bacteria. Positive is vigorous bubbling when reagent of hydrogen peroxide is added. |
| Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) | Isolates Staphylococcus, who like salty environments. S. aureus is yellow, ferments the mannitol making acid. S. Epi makes it pink |
| Coagulase test | Determines whether bacterium produces coagulase. Positive result is clumping |
| DNase test | Tests for a dna breaker enzyme. Uses HCl, methyl green, or toluidine blue. Halo forms around colonies in positive result. |
| Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) slant agar | Tests for ability to ferment certain sugars and production of H2S gas. Red is neutral, yellow is acidic, pink is basic, Black is H2S. |
| Carb fermintation test | Used to tell if can ferment a specific sugar. Uses phenol red and inverted glass tube. Yellow+for acid, bubble in tube for gas+ |
| Urease test | urease hydrolyzes urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, pink is positive, |
| Voges-Proskauer (VP) test | if a bacterium ferments glucose via the butanediol pathway, making acid. positive is pink or red, negative is yellow or brown |
| Citrate Utilization Test | if live on only sodiumcitrate for carbon and ammoniumsalt for nitrogen. uses SimmonsCitrateAgar. +Intense Blue or growth |
| Simmons Citrate Agar | used for the citrate test |
| power switch | turns the microscope on and off |
| microscope head | white top that holds the eyepiece |
| microscope arm | structural backbone connecting the head (eyepieces) to the base |
| microscope base (or foot) | bottom of microscope. houses the light source, electronics, and power switch |
| microscope Stage | flat platform located beneath the objective lenses where specimens are placed for observation |
| microscope Ocular | glass lens closest to the eye |
| Bacillus anthracis | Anthrax |
| Bordetella pertussis | Whooping cough |
| Borrelia burgdorferi | Lyme disease, relapsing fever |
| Campylobacter jejuni | Dysentery, Campylobacter |
| Chlamydophila pneumoniae | Pneumonia (Chlamydial) |
| Chlamydia trachomatis | Urethritis (nongonococcal), Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) |
| Clostridium botulinum | Botulism; wound botulism |
| Clostridium difficile | Diarrhea, nosocomial |
| Clostridium perfringens | Gas gangrene, C. perfringens gastroenteritis |
| Clostridium tetani | Tetanus |
| Corynebacterium diptheriae | Diptheria |
| Coxiella burnetti | Q Fever |
| Ehrlichia spp. | Ehrlichiosis |
| Enterobacter spp. | Nosocomial pneumonia and wound infections |
| Enterococcus spp. (faecalis, faecium) | Most common cause of surgical wound infections, nosocomial sepsis |
| Escherichia coli | Gastroenteritis, Nosocomial pneumonia and wound infections. Traveler’s diarrhea/Montezuma’s revenge. |
| Haemophilus influenzae | Meningitis, bacteremia, epiglottitis, or pneumonia. |
| Helicobacter pylori | Ulcer (Gastric and duodenal), stomach cancer |
| Klebsiella pneumoniae | Pneumonia, most common cause of surgical wound infections |
| Legionella pneumophila | Legionellosis (pneumonia) |
| Mycobacterium leprae | Leprosy (Hansen's disease) |
| Mycobacterium tuberculosis | Tuberculosis |
| Mycoplasma pneumonia | Pneumonia (Mycoplasmal) |
| Neisseriae gonorrhoea (gonococcus) | Gonorrhea |
| Neisseriae meningitidis (meningococcus) | Meningitis (meningococcal) |
| Pseudomonas aeruginosa | Nosocomial pneumonia and wound infections, dermatitis, otitis externa, utis, burns; septicemia, abscesses, and meningitis |
| Rickettsia rickettsii | Rocky Mountain spotted fever |
| Salmonella enterica | Food Poisoning (Salmonellosis) |
| Salmonella typhi | Typhoid fever |
| Shigella sonnei | Dysentery (Shigellosis) |
| Staphylococcus aureus | mild skin infections, life-threatening bloodstream infections, pneumonia, endocarditis, osteomyelitis, food poisoning |
| Staphylococcus epidermidis | cause of nosocomial sepsis. May also cause acute bacterial endocarditis |
| Streptococcus pneumoniae | Pneumonia (pneumococcal), Meningitis (pneumococcal), otitis media; Nosocomial pneumonia and wound infections. |
| Streptococcus pyogenes | strep throat (pharyngitis), scarlet fever, and impetigo, necrotizing fasciitis, cellulitis, and streptococcal toxic shock syndrome |
| Treponema pallidum | Syphilis |
| Vibrio cholerae | Gastroenteritis, Vibrio |
| Yersinia pestis | Bubonic Plague |
| Aspergillus flavus | Aflatoxin poisoning may contribute to cirrhosis and liver cancer, serious respiratory infections |
| Blastomyces dermatitis | Blastomycosis - respiratory infection resembles bacterial pneumonia, may spread from lungs, causing severe abscesses |
| Candida albicans | Opportunistic, usually infects mucosa or moist skin. Thrush, Vaginitis. |
| Coccidiodies immitis | Coccidioidomycosis - progressive disease resembles T.B. |
| Cryptococcus neoformans | Cryptococcosis - severe meningitis |
| Histoplasma capsulatum | Histoplasmosis - respiratory, usually subclinical, resembles T.B. if progressive |
| Ascaris lumbricoides | Ascariasis |
| Echinonococcus granulosus | Hydatid disease |
| Necator americanus | Hookworms |
| Schistosoma sp. | Schistomiasis |
| Taenia saginata (beef) | Tapeworm infection |
| Prion | Spongiform encephalitis |
| Cryptosporidium parvum | Dysentery: Cryptosporidiosis |
| Entamoeba histoltica | Dysentery: Amoebiasis |
| Giardia intestinalis (lamblia) | Dysentery: Giardiasis |
| Leshmania sp. | Leshmaniasis |
| Naegleria fowleri | Meningoencephalitis |
| Plasmodium sp. | Malaria |
| Toxoplasma gondii | Toxoplasmosis |
| Trichomonas vaginalis | Trichomoniasis (vaginitis) |
| Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense, T.b. gambiense | African trypanosomiasis |
| Trypanosoma cruzi | Chagas’ disease, American trypanosomiasis |
| Ebola virus (a filovirus) | Hemorrhagic fever, viral |
| Epstein-Barr virus | Infectious mononucleosis, Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma |
| Hepatitis A virus | Hepatitis, infectious |
| Hepatitis C virus | Hepatitis, serum |
| Herpes simplex 1 | Cold Sores, may cause genital herpes depending on transmission |
| Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV) | AIDS |
| Influenza virus | the flu |
| Lassa fever virus | Hemorrhagic fever, viral; Lassa Fever |
| Marburg virus (a filovirus) | Hemorrhagic fever, viral |
| Measles virus | Red measles (rubeola), Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis |
| Papillomavirus spp. | Warts, including genital warts |
| Poliovirus | Poliomyelitis |
| Lyssavirus | Rabies |
| Rhinovirus | Common cold |
| Rotavirus | Gastroenteritis |
| Rubivirus | Rubella (German Measles), Congenital rubella syndrome |
| Varicella zoster | Chicken Pox, Shingles |
| Variola major | Smallpox |
| Yellow Fever Virus (Flavivirus) | Hemorrhagic fever, viral; Yellow Fever |
| Edward Jenner | (Father of Immunology), first vaccine (smallpox) |
| Robert Koch | germ theory of disease , isolated Bacillus anthracis, cultured Mycobacterium tuberculosis , Koch’s Postulates |
| Joseph Lister | aseptic surgery |
| Paul Ehrlich | salvarsan, first chemotherapeutic agent, treated syphilis |
| Anton Van Leeuwenhoek | first published descriptions of bacteria viewed with a microscope |
| Pasteur | disproved spontaneous generation, aseptic techniques, pasteurization, germ theory of disease, coined the word vaccine |
| Alexander Fleming | discovered first antibiotic, penicillin |
| peptidoglycan cell walls | Carbohydrate chains consisting of alternating NAG and NAM subunits. The carbohydrate chains are joined by peptide cross bridges |
| The products of glycolysis | 2 ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation, High energy electrons (2 NADH), 2 pyruvic acids |
| glycolysis | initial step of respiration that splits sugar into pyruvte |
| Lytic cycle | phage replicates, lyses host cell |
Created by:
DinoRex