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Chapter 19
Chapter 19 Blood Chemistry & Immunology
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Clumping of blood cells | Agglutination |
| A substance that is capable of combining with an antigen resulting in an antigen antibody reaction | Antibody |
| A substance capable of stimulating the formation of antibodies | Antigen |
| A serum that contains antibodies | Antiserum |
| A white, waxy, fatlike substance (lipid) that is essential for normal functioning of the body | Cholesterol |
| One who furnishes something such as blood, tissue, or organs, to be used in another individual | Donor |
| The end product of carbohydrate metabolism which serves as a chief source of energy for the body | Glucose |
| The form in which glucose is stored in the body | Glycogen |
| The process of glucose attaching to hemoglobin | Glycosylation |
| A lipoprotein, consisting of protein and cholesterol that removes excess cholesterol from the cells and carries it to the liver to be excreted | HDL cholesterol |
| A compound formed when glucose attaches to the protein in hemoglobin | Hemoglobin A1c |
| An abnormally high level of glucose in the blood | Hyperglycemia |
| An abnormally low level of glucose in the blood | Hypoglycemia |
| The scientific study of antigen and antibody reactions | Immunology |
| Occurring in glass. Refers to tests performed under artificial conditions, as in the laboratory | In vitro |
| Occurring in the living body or organism | In vivo |
| A hormone secreted by the beta cells of the pancreas required for the normal use of glucose in the body | Insulin |
| A lipoprotein, consisting of protein and cholesterol that picks up cholesterol and delivers it to blood vessels and muscles | LDL cholesterol |
| A complex molecule consisting of protein and a lipid fraction such as cholesterol and function in transporting lipids in the blood. | Lipoprotein |
| One who receives something, such as blood transfusion, from a donor | Recipient |
| A condition in which glucose levels are higher than normal, but not high enough to be classified as diabetes | Prediabetes |
| What does blood chemistry testing involve? | A quantitative measurement of chemical substances dissolved in the plasma of the blood |
| What information is provided by a comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP)? | Information on the kidneys, liver, acid-base balance, blood glucose level, and blood proteins |
| What type of specimen is usually required for blood chemistry test? | Serum specimen collected in an SST (serum separator tube) |
| What type of blood specimen is used with a CLIA-waived blood chemistry analyzer? | Capillary blood specimen |
| What is the purpose of quality control? | To ensure that the test accurately measures what it is supposed to measure. Ensure the tests are reliable and valid |
| What is the purpose of calibrating a blood chemistry analyzer? | To check the precision and accuracy of the blood chemistry analyzer, to determine if the system is providing accurate results |
| What is the name of the device used to perform a calibration procedure? | Standard |
| What is meant by a blood glucose meter with no-code technology? | Means that the glucose meter does not require calibration |
| Produces results that fall below the reference range for the test | Low-level control |
| Produces results that fall above the reference range for the test? | High-level control |
| What may cause a control to fail to produce expected results? | Expired test components, improper storage of test components, improper environmental testing conditions, and errors in the technique used to perform the procedure |
| When running controls on a blood chemistry analyzer what should be done if the controls do not perform as expected? | Patient testing should not be conducted until the problem has been identified and resolved |
| When should the control procedure be performed on a blood chemistry analyzer? | When first receiving the test system. For periodic routine checking of analyzers and test reagents. When a new lot number of test reagents is used. When test system does not seem to be working properly. |
| What is the function of glucose in the body? | Is the chief source of energy for the body |
| What is the function of insulin in the body? | Enables glucose to enter the body's cells and be converted to energy. Also, is needed for proper storage of glycogen in the liver and muscle cells. |
| What is the purpose of a random blood glucose test? | A screening measure to detect the presence of hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia |
| Abbreviation for fasting blood glucose: | FBG |
| Abbreviation for two-hour postprandial blood glucose: | 2-hour PPBG |
| Abbreviation for oral glucose tolerance test: | OGTT |
| What type of patient preparation is required for a fasting blood glucose (FBG) test? | Nothing to eat or drink for 8 to 12 hours except water. Certain medications may be stopped by the provider usually 3 days before. |
| List two reasons for performing a FBG test? | Screen for prediabetes and diabetes |
| What are the FBG test results for hyperglycemia? | 126 mg/dL or above |
| What are the FBG test results for hypoglycemia? | Below 70 mg/dL |
| What is prediabetes? | A condition in which glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be classified as diabetes |
| What are the ADA recommended value for a normal FBG? | 70-99 mg/dL |
| What are the ADA recommended value for prediabetes FBG? | 100-125 mg/dL |
| What are the ADA recommended value for diabetes FBG? | 126 mg/dL or above |
| What is the purpose of a 2-hour postprandial blood glucose(2-hour PPGT) test? | Used to screen for diabetes and to monitor the effects of insulin dosage in patients with diabetes |
| What patient preparation is required for a 2-hour PPBG test? | The patient is required to fast beginning at midnight proceeding the test and continuing until breakfast. Patient must consume a prescribed meal that contains 100g of carbohydrates for breakfast. Specimen is collected exactly 2 hours after meal. |
| Describe the procedure for performing a 2-hour PPBG test? | Blood specimen is collected from the patient exactly 2 hours after consumption of breakfast meal or glucose solution |
| What is the purpose of an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)? | To assist in the diagnosis of prediabetes, diabetes, gestational diabetes, hypoglycemia, liver and adrenocortical dysfunction |
| What patient preparation is required for an OGTT? | Must eat a high carbohydrate diet 3 days before the test consisting of 150 g of carbs a day. Patient must not eat or drink anything but water 8 to 12 hours before the test. |
| What normal side effects may occur during an OGTT? | Weakness, a feeling of faintness, or perspiration |
| What are the serious side effects that may occur during an OGTT that should be reported? | Headache, pale, cold and clammy skin, irrational speech or behavior, profuse perspiration, and fainting |
| What are the ADA recommended values for a normal OGTT? | Less than 140 mg/ dL |
| What are the ADA recommended values for a prediabetes OGTT? | 140 - 199 mg/dL |
| What are the ADA recommended values for a diabetes OGTT? | 200 mg/dL or above |
| What can cause hypoglycemia? | Anorexia, bacterial sepsis, carcinoma of the pancreas, hepatic narcosis, or hypothyroidism |
| What is the purpose of a hemoglobin A1c test? | Is used to assist in the diagnosis of prediabetes and diabetes. It also is used to determine whether a diabetic patient's blood glucose level is under control. |
| What information is provided by a hemoglobin A1c test? | An assessment of the average amount of glucose in the blood over a 3-month period |
| What are the ADA recommended values for normal hemoglobin A1c? | Less than 5.7% |
| What are the ADA values for prediabetes hemoglobin A1c? | 5.7% to 6.4% |
| What are the ADA values for diabetes hemoglobin A1c? | 6.5% or higher |
| What are the advantages of diabetic patients maintaining a good blood glucose level? | Have a better chance of delaying or preventing diabetic complications |
| What is the ideal testing schedule for an insulin-dependent diabetic patient? | Should be measured 4 times a day; in the morning (after8 hour fast), before lunch, before dinner, and at bedtime |
| What is a continuous monitoring glucose device? | Measures a patient's glucose level continuously throughout the day and night using a sensor inserted under the patient's skin |
| What are the ADA recommended target blood glucose levels for a patient with diabetes before meals and snacks? | 80 to 130 mg/dL |
| What are the ADA recommended target blood glucose levels for a patient with diabetes 1 to 2 hours after meals? | Less than 180 mg/dL |
| What complications can occur with prolonged high blood glucose levels? | Cardiovascular disease(CVD), blindness (retinopathy), hearing impairment, nerve damage (neuropathy), kidney damage (nephropathy), skin conditions, and poor circulation |
| What can cause too much insulin in a diabetic patient? | Administration of too much insulin, skipping meals, and unexpected or unusual exercise |
| What serious life-threatening symptoms occur from untreated hypoglycemia? | Seizures, loss of consciousness, and coma resulting in brain damage or death |
| What is cholesterol and what is its function in the body? | White, waxy, fat-like substance that is essential for normal functioning of the body. Is a normal component of all cell membranes and is used in the production of essential hormones and bile. |
| List two main sources of cholesterol in the blood? | Manufactured by the liver and individuals diet known as dietary cholesterol |
| What determines an individual's blood cholesterol level? | Genetic makeup and by the amount of saturated fat and dietary cholesterol consumed |
| What is atherosclerosis and why is it a health risk? | Are fatty deposits or plaque that build up on the walls of the arteries. As the arteries become more occluded, it could lead to heart attack or stroke. |
| Why is LDL cholesterol referred to as bad cholesterol? | It combines with other substances to form plaque on the walls of arteries resulting in atherosclerosis |
| Why is HDL cholesterol referred to as good cholesterol? | It removes excess cholesterol and it is protective and beneficial to the body |
| What does a total cholesterol test measure? | LDL cholesterol and HDL cholesterol |
| What tests are included in a lipid panel? | Total cholesterol, HDL cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, and triglycerides |
| What is the primary use of cholesterol test results? | Assist and determining the patient's risk for cardiovascular disease(CVD) |
| What is the DESIRABLE level of total cholesterol? | Less than 200 mg/dL |
| What is the BORDERLINE HIGH level of total cholesterol? | 200 - 239 mg/dL |
| What is the HIGH level of total cholesterol? | 240 mg/dL or above |
| What are the values for the OPTIMAL level of LDL cholesterol? | Less than 100 mg/dL |
| What are the values for the NEAR OPTIMAL level of LDL cholesterol? | 100 - 129 mg/dL |
| What are the values for the BORDERLINE HIGH level of LDL cholesterol? | 130 - 159 mg/dL |
| What are the values for the HIGH level of LDL cholesterol? | 160 - 189 mg/dL |
| What are the values for the VERY HIGH level of LDL cholesterol? | 190 mg/dL or above |
| At what level is HDL cholesterol considered an increased risk factor of cardiovascular disease for a male? | Less than 40 |
| At what level is HDL cholesterol considered an increased risk factor for cardiovascular disease for a female? | Less than 50 |
| What are triglycerides? | The chemical form in which most fat exists in food as well as the body |
| What are the sources of triglycerides in the body? | first is synthesis by the body and second from food |
| What are the values for a NORMAL triglycerides level? | Less than 150 mg/dL |
| What are the values for a BORDERLINE HIGH triglycerides level? | 150 - 199 mg/dL |
| What are the values for a HIGH triglycerides level? | 200 - 499 mg/dL |
| What are the values for a VERY HIGH triglycerides level? | 500 mg/dL or higher |
| What conditions result in elevated blood triglycerides? | Obesity, type 2 diabetes, being physically inactive, excessive alcohol consumption, smoking, hypothyroidism, kidney disease, and liver disease |
| What is the purpose of performing a BUN? | To evaluate kidney function |
| What is the definition of Immunology? | Is the scientific study of antigen and antibody reactions |
| List examples of antigens: | Protein, glycoprotein, complex polysaccharides, or nucleic acid |
| What is the purpose of performing a hepatitis test? | To detect viral hepatitis also determines the type of hepatitis present |
| What is the purpose of performing a HIV test? | To test for the presence of HIV |
| What is the purpose of performing rheumatoid factor test? | Detects the presence of rheumatoid factor(RF) antibodies |
| What is the purpose of performing antistreptolysin O test? | To detect ASO antibodies in the serum |
| What is the purpose of performing C-reactive protein test? | Diagnosing or documenting the process of rheumatoid arthritis, acute rheumatic fever, widespread malignancy, and bacterial infections |
| How long does it take for HIV antibodies to form in the blood of an adult following infection? | 2 to 12 weeks (but possibly as long as 6 months) |
| What are the two most common screening test for syphilis? | Venereal Disease Research Laboratories(VDRL) and rapid plasma reagin(RPR) |
| What type of digestive disorders can be caused by H. pylori? | Gastritis, ulcers of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus, and certain types of stomach cancer |
| What is infectious mononucleosis? | An acute infectious disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus(EBV) |
| How is infectious mononucleosis transmitted? | Through saliva by direct oral contact |
| What are the symptoms of infectious mononucleosis? | Mental and physical fatigue, fever, sore throat, severe weakness, headache, and swollen lymph nodes |
| What is the most frequent use of an Rh antibody titer test? | To detect the presence of an Rh incompatibility problem with a mother and her unborn child |
| What is the purpose of performing ABO and Rh blood typing? | To determine an individual's ABO and Rh blood type. Helps prevent transfusions and transplant reactions and helps to identify problems such as hemolytic disease of the newborn |
| What happens when a blood antigen and blood antibody combine? | Results and the clumping or agglutination of red blood cells |
| If a person has type A blood, what blood antigens and blood antibodies are present? | A antigens and B antibodies |
| If a person has type AB blood, what blood antigens and blood antibodies are present? | AB antigens and neither A or B antibodies |
| If a person has type O blood, what blood antigens and blood antibodies are present? | No antigens are present and A and B antibodies |
| What is the difference between Rh-positive and Rh-negative blood? | Rh-positive means the blood cell has a Rh-antigen on the surface of the blood cell. Rh-negative means there is no Rh-antigen on the surface of the blood cell. |
| A comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP) provides information on which of the following: kidneys liver blood glucose acid-base balance All of these | All of these |
| A condition in which glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be classified as diabetes is known as | prediabetes |
| All of the following are included in the lipid panel except: total cholesterol HDL cholesterol lipids LDL cholesterol | lipids |
| All of the following may result in elevated blood triglyceride levels except: obesity malnutrition type 2 diabetes being physically inactive | malnutrition |
| What is the normal range for a fasting glucose test result? | 70-99 mg/dL |
| Total cholesterol test results of 250 mg/dL is considered what? | high |
| Another important use of a CMP is to monitor and manage a variety of diseases and conditions such as | Kidney disease, liver disease, hypertension, and diabetes |
| Blood chemistry tests usually require a serum specimen collected in an SST. General guidelines for collection of the serum specimen for transport to an outside lab include the following: | Collect the blood in an SST. Completely fill the tube to the exhaustion of the vacuum to obtain an adequate amount of serum. Gently invert 5 times immediately after collection. Place upright position for 30-45 mins. Centrifuge 10 mins. Stable 3 days at RT |
| Automated blood chemistry analyzers are used to perform blood chemistry test. The analyzer consists of a reflectance photometer that quantitatively measures the amount of | Chemical substances or analytes in the blood |
| Two important quality control procedures must be performed routinely when a blood chemistry analyzer is used, these procedures include: | A calibration procedure and a control procedure |
| Is a mechanism used to check the precision and accuracy of a blood chemistry analyzer to determine if the system is providing accurate results, also detects errors caused by laboratory equipment that is not working properly | Calibration |
| A calibration procedure is typically performed using a calibration device known as a | Standard |
| Is a solution with a known value used to monitor a blood chemistry analyzer to ensure reliable and accurate test results | A blood chemistry control |
| The most common CLIA-waived blood chemistry tests performed in the medical office include: | Random blood glucose, fasting blood glucose, hemoglobin A1c, and cholesterol |
| Ingested glucose that is not needed for energy can be stored for later use in the form of | Glycogen |
| When no more tissue storage is possible, excess glycogen is converted to triglycerides (a form of fat) and is stored as | Adipose tissue |
| What medications may affect the fasting blood glucose test? | Oral contraceptives, antidepressants, beta blockers, and corticosteroids |
| An individual with prediabetes has an increased risk of developing | Type 2 diabetes |
| How many grams of carbohydrates must be consumed 2 hours before a 2-hour postprandial blood glucose test? | 100 g |
| It provides a more thorough analysis of glucose utilization then is provided by the FBG test or the 2-hour PPBG test | Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) |
| High carbohydrate foods include: | Bread, pasta, cereal, rice, potatoes, and crackers |
| The inability for the body to use the insulin it does produce is known as | Insulin resistance |
| Results from the removal of glucose from the blood at an excessive rate or from an increase secretion of insulin into the blood | Hypoglycemia |
| Has a "sticky" quality to it and thus has a tendency to stick to protein in the body | Glucose |
| The ADA strongly recommends that patients with diabetes maintain an A1c level of less than | 7% |
| A change in a patient's diabetes management plan is almost always required if the A1c test results is greater than | 8% |
| For a stable diabetic patient under good control the A1c test is typically ordered at least | 2 times a year |
| Symptoms of diabetes include: | Frequent urination, increase thirst, unintended weight loss, increased hunger, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, fatigue, blurred vision |
| Is an autoimmune disease in which the body produces antibodies to attack and gradually destroy the insulin producing beta cells of the pancreas | Type 1 diabetes |
| The biggest risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes is | Excess body weight |
| Type 2 diabetes is first treated by | Dietary adjustments, weight reduction, and exercise |
| Approximately what percentage of cases of type 2 diabetes can be managed by lifestyle changes alone | 20% |
| Risk factors for type 2 diabetes that can be controlled include: | Weight, fat distribution, smoking, lack of physical activity, prediabetes, high blood pressure, abnormal lipid panel, or both |
| Risk factors for type 2 diabetes that cannot be controlled include: | Family history, gestational diabetes or giving birth to a large infant, age, ethnic group |
| Two testing methods are used for the management of diabetes they include: | Self-monitoring of blood glucose and the hemoglobin A1c test |
| Is a small portable battery operated device that quantitatively measures the blood glucose level in a capillary blood specimen | Glucose meter |
| Measures a patient's blood glucose level continuously throughout the day and night using a sensor inserted under the patient's skin | Continuous monitoring device (CMD) |
| Continuous monitoring device brand names include: | Dexcom system and the Freestyle Libre System |
| Advantages of self-monitoring blood glucose (SMBG) include the following: | Delay or prevention of long-term complications. Prevention of hypoglycemia. Convenience of testing. Greater involvement in self-management decisions. |
| Symptoms of hypoglycemia include: | Sweating or cold clammy hands, shakiness, dizziness, headache, and tachycardia |
| If hypoglycemia is not treated and the blood glucose levels continues to drop the patient may experience | Confusion, irritability, sleepiness, anxiety, problems with speaking, and problems with vision |
| Dietary cholesterol is found only in animal products such as | Organ meats, egg yolk, and dairy products |
| High blood cholesterol means | An excessive amount of cholesterol is present in the blood |
| An individual's cholesterol level is determined by | Genetic makeup and by the amounts of saturated fat and dietary cholesterol consumed |
| Cholesterol is transported in the blood as a complex molecule known as | A lipoprotein |
| Two types of lipoproteins contain cholesterol they are | Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and high-density lipoprotein (HDL) |
| Types of cardiovascular disease include the following: | Coronary artery disease, high blood pressure, heart attack, stroke, heart failure, congenital heart disease, rheumatic heart disease, cardiomyopathy, aortic aneurysm, cardiac arrhythmias, heart valve disease, peripheral artery disease & venous thrombosis |
| Risk factors for cardiovascular disease (CVD) include: | High total blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, smoking, atherosclerosis, family history of CVD, unhealthy diet, lack of physical activity, diabetes, obesity, low HDL cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, being a man over 45, being a woman over 55 |
| All adults older than 20 years of age should have a cholesterol test at least every | 4 to 6 years |
| Is a combined measurement of LDL cholesterol and HDL cholesterol in the blood | Total cholesterol |
| What testing does not require a fasting specimen because the test results are not affected by food or beverages | Cholesterol testing |
| Most providers prefer that the patient fast for this panel since the triglycerides test is affected by the consumption of food and beverages | Lipid panel |
| Is the end product of protein metabolism and is normally present in the blood | Urea |
| May consist of protein, glycoprotein, complex polysaccharides, or nucleic acid | Antigen |
| The enzyme immune assay EIA test and the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay ELISA test are used as screening test for the presence of | HIV |
| An individual who test positive for HIV is | Seropositive |
| If a second HIV test is also positive a more specific test such as the | Western blot test is performed |
| Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by the microorganism | Treponema pallidum |
| Syphilis test results are reported as | nonreactive, weakly reactive, or reactive |
| What results are considered positive for the presence of syphilis antibodies | Weakly reactive and reactive |
| Is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the joints of the body | Rheumatoid arthritis |
| The blood of patients with rheumatoid arthritis contain a type of antibody called | Rheumatoid factor (RF) |
| ASO antibodies are common antibodies produced by the immune system in the response to a | Strep infection |
| This test is useful in assisting in the diagnosis of rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis, bacterial endocarditis, and scarlet fever | Antistreptplysin O test (ASO) |
| During inflammation and tissue destruction a abnormal protein appears in the blood. This protein is called | C-reactive protein |
| Patients with inflammatory conditions or disorders accompanied by tissue destruction have a positive C-reactive protein test result. Because of this it is used to assist in diagnosing and documenting the progress of | Rheumatoid arthritis, acute rheumatic fever, widespread malignancy, and bacterial infections |
| This test is performed by incubating the patient's serum with erythrocytes at cold temperatures | Cold agglutinins test |
| Are found in patients with infectious mononucleosis, mycoplasmal pneumonia, chronic parasitic infections, and lymphoma | Cold agglutinins |
| Is a bacteria that infects the digestive system | Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) |
| A blood test can be performed to check for the presence of antibodies to | H. pylori |
| The CLIA-waived rapid testing kits that are available to perform an antibodies test for H. pylori include: | Clear-view H. pylori and Quick Vue H. pylori |
| Is transmitted through saliva by direct oral contact and because of this it is often called the "kissing disease" | Mononucleosis |
| Patients with infectious mononucleosis produce an antibody called | heterophile antibody |
| How long does it take to produce the heterophile antibody from mononucleosis | 6 to 10 days into the illness |
| CLIA-waived rapid mononucleosis test include: | QuickVue+ Mononucleosis |
| Is a branch of Immunology and is the study of red blood cell antigens and antibodies; it is also known as blood banking | Immunohematology |
| Detects the amount of circulating Rh antibodies in the blood | Rh antibody titer test |
| Rh antibodies can occur in a pregnant woman who is Rh-negative and is carrying an | Rh-positive fetus |
| Consist of protein and are inherited through genes, which program the body to produce a particular antigen | Blood antigens |
| If a blood antigen is present it will be presented on | the surface of the red blood cell |
| What are the four main blood types? | A, B, AB, O |
| People with AB blood type is considered to be a | Universal recipient |
| People with O blood type is considered to be a | Universal donor |
| Are proteins that are naturally present in the plasma of the blood | Blood antibodies |
| An antibody is a substance that is capable of combining with an | Antigen |
| In 1940, Landsteiner and Weiner discovered the Rh blood group system while working with | Rhesus monkeys |
| What percentage of people in the United States have the Rh antigen present on the red blood cell making them Rh+ | 85% |
| What percentage of people in the United States do not have the Rh antigen present on the red blood cells making them Rh- | 15% |
| A prospective donor is permanently deferred from giving blood for any of the following reasons: | Leukemia, a clotting disorder, hepatitis, infection with HIV, a behavior associated with the spread of HIV, and a history of IV drug use |
| How old does the individual have to be to donate blood? | At least 17 years old |
| How many weeks must you wait between blood donations | 8 weeks |
| A blood donor must weigh at least | 110 lbs |
| Blood donors must have a body temperature that does not exceed | 99.5 F |
| What is the pulse range that a blood donor must have | 50-110 beats/min |
| The acceptable limit for blood pressure for a blood donor is | no higher than 180/100 |
| What hemoglobin level must a blood donor have? | 12.5 mg/dL or greater |
| A condition in which there is a buildup of plaque in the arteries supplying blood to the heart which narrows the lumen of the arteries and reduces the flow of blood to the heart | Coronary artery disease (CAD) |
| A condition in which there is an increased force of circulating blood against the walls of the blood vessels which damages them and increases the risk of a heart attack or heart failure, stroke, or aneurysm | High blood pressure |
| A condition in which there is a sudden blockage of blood flow to a part of the heart. If the blood flow is cut off completely the muscle tissue in that part of the heart dies. | Heart attack |
| A condition in which the blood supply to a part of the brain is cut off which could result in brain damage and possibly death. | Stroke |
| A condition in which the heart cannot pump as well as it should due to weakened heart muscle. It may be due to an injury to the heart muscle, a heart attack, or a heart valve that does not work properly. | Heart failure |
| A condition in which the heart does not function properly because the heart did not develop normally before birth. | Congenital heart disease |
| A condition in which the heart valves have been permanently damaged by rheumatic fever. | Rheumatic heart disease |
| A condition in which the heart enlarges and is unable to pump blood efficiently. | Cardiomyopathy |
| A condition in which the aorta becomes weakened and bulges outwards. It may burst and cause life-threatening bleeding. | Aortic aneurysm |
| Abnormal heart rhythms which may prevent the heart from pumping enough blood to meet the body's needs. | Cardiac arrhythmias |
| A condition in which one or more of the heart valves does not work properly, interfering with the flow of blood through the heart. | Heart valve disease |
| The build-up of plaque in the arteries supplying blood to the limbs (usually the legs) which interferes with the flow of blood to the limbs. | Peripheral artery disease |
| A condition in which a clot forms in a vein which interferes with the flow of blood. If a clot forms in the leg (DVT) part of the clot may break off and cause a pulmonary embolism. | Venous thrombosis |
| What is the uric acid (UA) reference range for a male? | 3.9 - 9mg/dL |
| What is the uric acid (UA) reference range for a female? | 2.2-7.7 mg/dL |
| What is the purpose of a uric acid test? | To evaluate renal failure, gout, and leukemia |
| What can increase uric acid levels? | Renal failure, gout, leukemia, severe eclampsia, lymphomas |
| What can decrease uric acid levels? | Patient's undergoing treatment with uricosuric drugs |
| What is the albumin reference range? | 3.6 - 5.1 g/dL |
| What is the purpose of a albumin test? | To monitor and treat liver and kidney disease |
| What can increase albumin levels? | Dehydration |
| What can decrease albumin levels? | Liver disease, nephrotic syndrome, Crohn disease, thyroid disease, heart failure |
| What is the reference range for alanine aminotransferase (ALP)? | 45 U/L or less |
| What is the purpose of a alanine aminotransferase test? | To detect liver disease |
| What can increase alanine aminotransferase levels? | Hepatocellular disease, active cirrhosis, metastatic liver tumor, obstructive jaundice, pancreatitis |
| What is the purpose of a alkaline phosphatase (ALP) test? | To assist and diagnosis of liver and bone diseases |
| What is a reference range for alkaline phosphatase? | 25-140 U/L |
| What can increase alkaline phosphatase levels? | Liver disease, bone disease, hyperparathyroidism, infectious mononucleosis |
| What can decrease alkaline phosphatase levels? | Hypophosphatasia, malnutrition, hypothyroidism, chronic nephritis |
| What is the reference range for aspartate aminotransferase (AST)? | 40 U/L or less |
| What is the purpose of a aspartate aminotransferase test? | To detect tissue damage |
| What can increase aspartate aminotransferase levels? | Myocardial infarction, liver disease, acute pancreatitis, acute hemolytic anemia |
| What can decrease alanine aminotransferase levels? | Beriberi, uncontrolled diabetes with acidosis |
| What is the purpose of a bilirubin total (TB) test? | To evaluate liver functioning and hemolytic anemia |
| What is the reference range for a bilirubin total test? | 0.2 - 1.3 mg/dL |
| What can cause an increase in bilirubin total levels? | Liver disease, obstruction of bile ducts, hemolytic anemia |
| What is the protein total (TP) test reference range? | 6-8.5 g/dL |
| What is the purpose of a protein total test? | To screen for diseases that alter protein balance. To assess body hydration. |
| What can cause an increase in protein total levels? | Dehydration, chronic infections, acute liver disease, multiple myeloma, lupus erthematosus |
| What can cause a decrease in protein total levels? | Severe hemorrhaging, hodgkin disease, severe liver disease, malabsorption |
| What is the purpose of a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test? | To screen for kidney disease. To monitor the effectiveness of dialysis. |
| What is the reference range for a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test? | 7-25 mg/dL |
| What can cause an increase in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels? | Kidney disease, urinary obstruction, dehydration |
| What can cause a decrease in blood urea nitrogen levels? | Liver failure, malnutrition, impaired absorption |
| What is the reference range for a calcium (Ca) test? | 8.5-10.8 mg/dL |
| What is the purpose of a calcium test? | To assess parathyroid functioning and calcium metabolism. To evaluate malignancies. |
| What can cause an increase in calcium levels? | Hypercalcemia, hyperparathyroidism, bone metastases, multiple myeloma, hodgkin disease, addison disease, hyperthyroidism |
| What can cause a decrease in calcium levels? | Hypocalcemia, hypoparathyroidism, acute pancreatitis, renal failure |
| What is the purpose of a carbon dioxide (CO2) test? | To diagnose and treat disorders associated with changes in acid-base balance in the body |
| What is the reference range for carbon dioxide levels? | 20-32 mmol/L |
| What can cause an increase in carbon dioxide levels? | Severe prolonged vomiting and or diarrhea, Cushing syndrome, metabolic alkalosis |
| What can cause a decrease in carbon dioxide levels? | Addison disease, diabetic ketoacidosis, metabolic acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, chronic diarrhea |
| What is the purpose of a chloride (Cl) test? | Assist and diagnosing disorders of acid base and water balance |
| What is the reference range for a chloride test? | 96-109 mmol/L |
| What can cause an increase in chloride levels? | Dehydration, Cushing syndrome, hyperventilation, preeclampsia, anemia |
| What can cause a decrease in chloride levels? | Severe vomiting, severe diarrhea, ulcerative colitis, pyloric obstruction, severe burns, heat exhaustion |
| What is the purpose of a cholesterol (Chol) test? | To screen for atherosclerosis related to CVD. To monitor the effectiveness of lipid lowering medication. |
| What is the reference range for a cholesterol test? | less than 200 mg/dL |
| What can cause an increase in cholesterol levels? | Atherosclerosis, cardiovascular disease, obstructive jaundice, hypothyroidism, nephrosis |
| What can cause a decrease in cholesterol levels? | Malabsorption, liver disease, hyperthyroidism, anemia |
| What is the purpose of a creatinine (Creat) test? | Screening test for kidney functioning |
| What is the reference range for a creatinine test? | 0.6-1.5 mg/dL |
| What can cause an increase in creatinine levels? | Impaired renal function, chronic nephritis, obstruction of urinary tract, muscle disease |
| What can cause a decrease in creatinine levels? | Muscular dystrophy |
| What is the purpose of a globulin (Glob) test? | To identify abnormalities and rate of protein synthesis and removal |
| What is the reference range for a globulin test? | 2-3.5 g/dL |
| What can cause an increase in a globulin test levels? | Brucellosis, chronic infections, rheumatoid arthritis, dehydration, hepatic carcinoma, Hodgkin disease |
| What can cause a decrease in a globulin test levels? | Agammaglobulinemia, severe burns |
| What is the purpose of a lactate dehydrogenase (LD) test? | Assist in confirming myocardial or pulmonary infarction. Differential diagnosis of muscular dystrophy and pernicious anemia. |
| What is the reference range for a lactate dehydrogenase (LD) test? | 240 U/L or less |
| What can cause a increase in lactate dehydrogenase (LD) test levels? | Acute myocardial infarction, acute leukemia, muscular dystrophy, pernicious anemia, hemolytic anemia, hepatic disease, extensive cancer |
| What is the purpose of a phosphorus (P) test? | To evaluate and interpret calcium levels. To detect disorders of endocrine system, bone diseases, and kidney dysfunction. |
| What is the reference range for a phosphorus test? | 2.5-4.5 mg/dL |
| What can cause a increase in phosphorus test levels? | Hyperphosphatemia, renal insufficiency, severe nephritis, hypoparathyroidism, hypocalcemia, Addison's disease |
| What can cause a decrease in phosphorus test levels? | Hypophosphatemia, hyperparathyroidism, rickets and osteomalacia, diabetic coma, hyperinsulinism |
| What is the purpose of a potassium (K) test? | To diagnose disorders of acid base and water balance in the body. To monitor kidney disease. To monitor treatment for high blood pressure. |
| What is the reference range for a potassium test? | 3.5-5.3 mmol/L |
| What can cause a increase in potassium test levels? | Hyperkalemia, renal failure, cell damage, acidosis, Addison disease, internal bleeding |
| What can cause a decrease in potassium test levels? | Hypokalemia, diarrhea, pyloric obstruction, starvation, malabsorption, severe vomiting, severe burns, diuretic administration, chronic stress, liver disease with ascites |
| What is the purpose of a sodium (Na) test? | To detect changes in water and salt balance in the body |
| What is the reference range for a sodium test? | 135-147 mmol/L |
| What can cause a increase in sodium test levels? | Hypernatremia, dehydration, conn syndrome, primary aldosteronism, coma, Cushing disease, diabetes insipidus |
| What can cause a decrease in sodium test levels? | Hyponatremia, severe burns, severe diarrhea, Addison disease, severe nephritis, pyloric obstruction |
| What is the purpose of a total thyroxine (Total T4) test? | To assess thyroid functioning. To evaluate thyroid replacement therapy. |
| What is the reference range for a total thyroxine test? | 4.5-12 ug/dL |
| What can cause a increase in total thyroxine test levels? | Hyperthyroidism, Graves disease, thyrotoxicosis, thyroiditis |
| What can cause a decrease in total thyroxine test levels? | Hypothyroidism, cretinism, goiter, myxedema, hypoproteinemia |
| What is the purpose of a triglycerides (Trig) test? | To evaluate patients with suspected atherosclerosis |
| What is the reference range for a triglycerides test? | less than 150 mg/dL |
| What can cause a increase in triglycerides test levels? | Liver disease, kidney disease, obesity, hypothyroidism, pancreatitis |
| What can cause a decrease in triglycerides test levels | Malnutrition, congenital lipoproteinemia, hyperthyroidism |
| Specific examples of antigens include: | bacteria and viruses, bacterial toxins, and allergen |
Created by:
Diamond87