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PTCB Review

PTCB Review of Federal Requirement and Patient Safety

TermDefinition
DEA Form 222 Used by pharmacists to order Schedule II drugs. Triplicate form (or electronic CSOS equivalent) Must be kept for 2 years Errors cannot be corrected; must void and redo. Used by a reverse distributor to handle the destruction of controlled substances.
DEA Form 106 Used to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances Must notify DEA and local law enforcement
DEA Form 41 Used to document the destruction of controlled substances Requires DEA authorization or reverse distributor. Must be submitted for any breakage or spillage of a controlled substances.
HIPAA Governs disclosure of Protected Health Information (PHI).
Durham Humphrey Amendment Also known as the Prescription Drug Amendment Required prescription drugs to bear the legend, “Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription.” Subsequent amendments replaced it with the legend, “Rx only.”
Kefauer- Harris Amendment -1962 Requires all medications in the United States to be pure, safe, and effective. ■ Established procedures for both drug applications and investigational drugs. ■ Drug manufacturers are required to be responsible for good manufacturing process (GMP).
Pure food and drug act of 1906 Enacted in 1906 to prohibit the interstate transportation or sale of adulterated and misbranded food or drugs.
Food, drug, and cosmetic act of 1938 (FDCA 1938) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) was created under FDCA 1938. ■ Requires that all new drug applications be filed with the FDA. ■ Clearly defined adulteration and misbranding of drugs and food products.
Poison prevention packaging act of 1970 The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 was enacted to reduce accidental poisoning in children. The act requires that most OTC and legend drugs be packaged in child-resistant containers. A child-resistant container is one that cannot be opened by 80%
Occupational safety and health act of 1970 ■ Ensures a safe and healthful workplace for all employees. ■ Requires a reporting system for job-related injuries and illness. ■ Attempts to reduce hazards in the workplace and conduct requires use of the Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
Omnibus budget reconciliation act (OBRA) of 1990 required states to establish drug use review programs consisting of three essential components: (1) prospective drug use review, (2) retrospective drug use review, and (3) educational programs.
Ethics A study of standards and moral judment; it is a moral philosophy that is influenced by a particular group, society, philosophy, region, or profession.
Which medication is within the exceptions from the Poison Prevention Packaging Act? Nitroglycerine
GMP Good Manufacturing process set by the Kefauver-Harris Amendment guidelines that pharmacy follow when compounding medication
Safety Data Sheet (SDS) Contains information about Potential Hazards of Chemicals
section of the NDC will identify the Manufacturer of the medication First section
DEA FORM 224 Pharmacy submit to the DEA to be able to dispense controlled substances. Is used to register a pharmacy with DEA in order to purchase controlled substance.
Examples of Scheduled II drugs Hydromorphone, oxycodone , Vicodin
Examples of Schedules III drugs Tylenol with Codeine
What guidelines are correct from the Good Manufacturing Practices as far as repackaging medications? Beyond use date is one year for repackaged medications or the manufacturers expiration date if its les
Which organization has stated the abbreviation "QOD" should not be used? ISMP
Depakote and Depakote ER are examples of ________ published by the ISMP. drugs with look alike/sound alike names
Who must adhere to the "Do Not Use" List? Health care facilities accredited by The Joint Commission
examples of medications contained on the ISMP high-alert medications for a community pharmacy metformin methotrexate carbamazepine
Which drug carries a black box warning ? Irbesartan
What is the purpose of using "tall man" letters? To draw attention to dissimilarities in drug names
Which organization establishes standards of care for hospitals and long-term care facilities? TJC ( The joint Commission)
Examples of high- alert medication in an acute care facility. amiodarone D20W insulin
While working in a long-term care pharmacy, one should be extremely careful when dispensing which classification? Anticoagulants
Medication errors are tracked by all of the following organizations CDC NCCMERP FDA
Nitroglycerin is an example of a ________. drug found on the "Do Not Crush"
Medications that have look-alike/sound-alike names can be distinguished using which of the following? Tall Man lettering
How many times C-II prescriptions can be transferred between pharmacies? cannot be transferred from one pharmacy to another
Who is responsible for enforcing federal laws to controlled substance? DEA
What informations are commonly included in patient profile? Name and DOB health conditions medication list
Class I recall High risk of serious health problems or death. There is a reasonable probability that use of the product will cause or lead to serious adverse events or death.
Class II recall Is one in which the probability exists that the use of the product will cause adverse health events that are temporary or medically reversible.
Class III Unlikely to cause health problems, but violates regulations.
REMS ( Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy) It is a safety program for medications with serious safety concerns . Is a strategy to manage a known or serious risk associated with a drug or biological product by the FDA.
What are the 2 forms of hazardous waste that may be found in pharmacy ? P - waste ( example: Epinephrine ) U - Waste ( Examples: cyclophosphamide , chlorambucil , selenium sulfide)
P - waste Acutely hazardous . These chemicals can cause death or serious illness in low doses . Examples : epinephrine
U - waste They are toxic and hazardous chemicals but do not carry the same immediate high-risk warnings as P - waste. Examples: cyclophosphamide , chlorambucil , selenium sulfid
Examples of dosage forms that should not be crushed. enteric-coated, film-coated, and liquid-filled dosage forms
Abbreviations found on The Joint Commission's "Do Not Use" U, IU, Q.D., QD, q.d., qd, Q.O.D., QOD, q.o.d, qod, MS, MSO4, and MgSO4.
Personal management record (PMR) Is a comprehensive medication record of the patient's prescription and nonprescription medication as well as herbal products and other dietary supplements.
Medication therapy review (MTR) Is a systemic process of collecting patient-specific information, reviewing the patient's medication and medical history, and identifying possible medication-related problems with possible plans to resolve them.
Medication-related action plan (MAP) is a patient-centered document designed to assist the patient in managing and tracking their progress toward the actions identified in an MTR.
Medication therapy management (MTM) consists of the PMR, the MTR, and the MAP.
Examples of medication/drug classifications that have been identified as high-alert medications in a long- term-care facility. Anticoagulants, parenteral and oral; chemotherapeutic agents, parenteral and oral (excluding hormonal agents); hypoglycemics, oral (including combination products with another drug); insulins, all formulations and strengths (e.g., U-100, U-200, U-300, U-5
What procedures would be used to reduce prescription errors in a pharmacy? Bar scanning of labels Being aware of look-alike names of medications Using digital imaging of the medication
According to MEDMARX, which of the following medications has been associated with a large number of medication errors? insulin, morphine, potassium chloride, albuterol, heparin, vancomycin, cefazolin, acetaminophen, warfarin, and furosemide.
Created by: mparcasio
 

 



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