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Chapter 18
Chapter 18 Hematology
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Movement used by leukocytes that permits them to propel themselves from the capillaries into the tissues | Ameboid movement |
| A condition in which there is a decrease in the number of erythrocytes or the amount of hemoglobin in the blood | Anemia |
| A variation in the size of red blood cells | Anisocytosis |
| A substance that inhibits blood clotting | Anticoagulant |
| An orange-colored bile pigment that is a by-product of heme destruction from the hemoglobin molecule | Bilirubin |
| The ameboid movement of blood cells (especially leukocytes) through the wall of a capillary and out into the tissues | Diapedesis |
| Red blood cell | Erythrocyte |
| The study of blood and blood-forming tissues | Hematology |
| The process of blood cell formation | Hamatopoiesis |
| The protein and iron containing pigment of erythrocytes that carries oxygen to the tissues of the body | Hemoglobin |
| The breakdown of erythrocytes with the release of hemoglobin into the plasma | Hemolysis |
| A red blood cell with a decreased concentration of hemoglobin | Hypochromic |
| White blood cell | Leukocyte |
| An abnormal increase in the number of leukocytes | Leukocytosis |
| An abnormal decrease in the number of leukocytes | Leukopenia |
| An abnormally large red blood cell | Macrocytic |
| An abnormally small red blood cell | Microcytic |
| The study of the size, shape, and structure of a blood cell | Morphology |
| An red blood cell with a normal concentration of hemoglobin | Normochromic |
| A normal-sized red blood cell | Normocytic |
| Hemoglobin that has combined with oxygen | Oxyhemoglobin |
| The engulfing and destruction of foreign particles such as pathogens and damaged cells by certain cells in the body | Phagocytosis |
| A disorder in which there is an increase in the number of red blood cells or the amount of hemoglobin | Polycythemia |
| Platelets | Thrombocyte |
| An abnormal decrease in the number of thrombocytes | Thrombocytopenia |
| An abnormal increase in the number of thrombocytes | Thrombocytosis |
| What is included in the study of blood (hematology)? | Morphologic appearance and function of blood cells and diseases of blood and blood-forming tissues |
| List examples of hematologic test | Red blood cell count, white blood cell count, hemoglobin, hematocrit, white blood cell differential count, platelet count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, prothrombin time |
| How many pints of blood are contained in the human body? | 10 to 12 pints |
| What is the function of plasma? | Transports nutrients to the tissues of the body. Picks up waste from the tissues, which are then eliminated through the kidneys. Transports antibodies, enzymes, and hormones to regulate normal body functioning. |
| What percentage of the total blood volume is made up of formed elements? | 45% |
| What cells make up the formed elements of blood? | Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes |
| Where are the formed elements produced? | Red bone marrow |
| What is the function of red blood cells? | Transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide in the body |
| Where are erythrocytes produced in an adult? | In red bone marrow of the ribs, sternum, skull, pelvic bone, and the ends of long bones of the limbs |
| What are the advantages of a red blood cell having a biconcave shape? | Provides the erythrocyte with a greater surface area for the exchange of gases between blood and tissues. Also provides flexibility to bend and squeeze through tiny capillaries. |
| What gives blood its red color? | Hemoglobin |
| A hemoglobin molecule can combine with how many oxygen molecules? | 4 |
| Describe the appearance of the atrial blood and venous blood | When oxygen combines with hemoglobin, a bright red color results in arterial blood. Venous blood is darker red because of its lower oxygen content. |
| What is the average lifespan of red blood cells? | 120 days |
| What happens to iron that are released from the breakdown of hemoglobin? | Is stored and then later reused to make new hemoglobin molecules |
| What happens to the bilirubin that are released from the breakdown of hemoglobin? | Transported to the liver where it is excreted as a waste product into the bile and then it eventually leaves the body in the stool. |
| What is the function of leukocytes? | To defend the body against infection and foreign materials |
| Where do leukocytes do their work? | In the tissues |
| Why do the capillaries in an infected area dilate during inflammation? | So more oxygen, nutrients, and white blood cells can be delivered to the infected area to aid in the healing process |
| What is the purpose of diapedesis? | So that the white blood cells can move towards the site of infection |
| What is the appearance of granulocytes? | Have a multi-lobed nucleus and contain distinct granules in the cytoplasm |
| What is the appearance of agranulocytes? | Have a single round nucleus and contain few or no granules in the cytoplasm |
| What is the purpose of inflammation? | Is to destroy invading pathogens and to remove damaged tissue debris from the area so that proper healing can occur |
| What are four symptoms of inflammation? | Pain, redness, swelling, and warmth |
| What is contained in pus? | Dead leukocytes, dead bacteria, and dead tissue cells |
| Why are neutrophils also known as "segs"? | Because of their segmented nucleus |
| What are ways in which neutrophils fight infection? | They send out signals to alert other WBC's to respond to the infection. They exhibit ameboid movement allowing them to move from the circulatory system to the site of infection. They engulf & destroy invaders through phagocytosis. |
| What causes an increase in eosinophils? | Allergic reactions and parasitic infestations |
| What is the function of histamine released by basophils? | Dilates capillaries in the infected area allowing more oxygen, nutrients, and white blood cells to aid in healing |
| What is the function of heparin released by basophils? | Inhibits blood clotting to facilitate the movement of white blood cells into the affected area |
| What is the function of lymphocytes? | Producing antibodies to destroy foreign invaders |
| What are viral diseases that cause an increase in lymphocytes? | Infectious mononucleosis, mumps, chickenpox, rubella, and viral hepatitis |
| What is the function of macrophages (derived from monocytes)? | Clean up the infection site through phagocytosis by engulfing dead tissues, dead neutrophils, and any remaining pathogen which eventually becomes pus |
| Describe what happens when the lining of the blood vessel breaks during the blood clotting mechanism in the body | Platelets accumulate at the site of injury and become sticky |
| Describe what happens when platelets become stickly during the blood clotting mechanism in the body | Causes them to attach to one another as well as the blood vessel wall |
| Describe what happens to the platelet plug during the blood clotting mechanism of the body | Seals the opening in the blood vessel wall and stops the flow of blood |
| Describe what happens when the fibrin network forms in the blood clotting mechanism in the body | Attaches to the platelet plug to hold it in place and trap more platelets as well as red blood cells |
| Describe what happens when blood clot formation occurs during the blood clotting mechanism of the body | Eventually becomes the scab and remains in place until the wound heals |
| What is the purpose of a CBC? | Is used as a screening test to assess the overall health of an individual and to detect a wide range of hematologic conditions such as anemia, leukemia, infection, bleeding disorders, and inflammation |
| What are the CLIA waived test included in the CBC? | Hemoglobin and hematocrit |
| What are the moderate complexity test included in the CBC? | White blood count, red blood count, platelet count, white blood cell differential count, and the red blood cell indices |
| What is the reference range for hemoglobin in an adult female? | 12 to 16 g/dL |
| What is the reference range for hemoglobin in an adult male? | 14 to 18 g/dL |
| What conditions cause a decreased hemoglobin level? | Anemia, hyperthyroidism, cirrhosis of the liver, severe hemorrhaging, hemolytic reactions, and certain systemic diseases, such as leukemia and Hodgkin's disease |
| What type of patients are at risk for developing iron deficiency anemia? | Children younger than 2 years, adolescent girls, and pregnant women |
| When is a hematocrit performed? | Screening measure for early detection of anemia and is often included as part of a general health examination |
| What makes up the buffy coat? | Platelets and white blood cells |
| What is the reference range for a hematocrit in an adult female? | 37% to 47% |
| What is the reference range for a hematocrit in an adult male? | 40% to 54% |
| What causes a decrease in red blood cell count? | Anemia |
| What causes a increase in red blood cell count? | Polycythemia |
| What is measured by the MCV in the red blood cell indices? | Measurement of the average size of a single red blood cell |
| What is measured by the MCH in the red blood cell indices? | Measures the average amount of hemoglobin within a red blood cell |
| What is measured by the MCHC in the red blood cell indices? | Measures the average concentration of hemoglobin within the red blood cells |
| What is measured by the RDW in the red blood cell indices? | Measures any variation in the size of the red blood cells in a patient's specimen |
| What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia? | Lack of iron in the diet known as iron deficiency anemia |
| What are the most common causes of macrocytic anemia? | Folic acid deficiency and a lack of vitamin B12 in the body known as pernicious anemia |
| Hypochromia occurs with what type of conditions? | Iron deficiency and thalassemia |
| What is the reference range for a white blood cell count for an adult? | 4.5 to 11 (x10^3/mm^3) or 4,500 to 11,000 (per cubic millimeter) |
| What conditions result in an increase in the white blood cell count? | Acute infections such as appendicitis, chickenpox, diphtheria, infectious mononucleosis, meningitis, and rheumatic fever |
| What takes place during a white blood cell differential count? | Identify and count the five types of white blood cells in a representative blood sample |
| What are the reference ranges for neutrophils in an adult? | 40% - 75% |
| What are the reference ranges for eosinophils in an adult? | 0% - 5% |
| What are the reference ranges for basophils in an adult? | 0% - 1% |
| What are the reference ranges for lymphocytes in an adult? | 20% - 40% |
| What are the reference ranges for monocytes in an adult? | 3% - 10% |
| What are the advantages of the automatic method for performing a white blood cell differential count? | Faster and more convenient and permits the identification of many more white blood cells |
| What are the advantages of the manual method for performing a white blood cell differential count? | Allows for closer inspection of abnormal white blood cells |
| Why must the white blood cells be stained when performing a manual white blood cell differential count? | Because white blood cells are clear and colorless |
| What is the function of platelets? | Blood-clotting mechanism of the body |
| What is the reference range for a platelet count in an adult? | 150 to 400 (x10^3/mm^3) or 150,000 to 400,000 (per cubic millimeter) |
| What signs and symptoms may warrant the ordering of a platelet count on a patient? | Unexplained bruising, prolonged bleeding from a cut or wound, nosebleeds, heavy menstrual bleeding, small red spots on the skin, or small purplish spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin |
| What does the PT test measure? | The time it takes for blood to form a clot |
| What is the reference range for a PT test of an adult? | 9 to 12 seconds |
| PT result more than 12 seconds means? | the blood is clotting slower than normal |
| PT result less than 9 seconds means? | the blood is clotting faster than normal |
| What is the purpose of performing an INR on PT test results? | Is a standardized measurement of the rate at which the blood clots. Calculation performed by a automated coagulation analyzer on the PT result that adjusts for the changes in the reagents and allows results from different laboratories to be compared. |
| What is the reference range for an INR result of a healthy individual with a normal clotting ability? | 0.9 and 1.2 |
| What is the risk of a low INR? | an increase risk of blood clot formation in an artery or vein |
| What is the risk of a elevated INR? | is an increased risk of bleeding, the higher the number the longer it takes blood to clot. |
| How does warfarin work to prevent blood clotting? | Inhibits the formation of blood clots by interfering with the blood clotting mechanism in the body. Works by reducing the available vitamin K in the liver responsible for producing some of the clotting factors like prothrombin. |
| What are conditions for which Warfarin is prescribed? | Atrial fibrillation, thrombophlebities (deep vein thrombosis DVT), patients who have had heart valve replaced with a mechanical valve |
| How can atrial fibrillation cause a stroke? | Causes blood to pool in the atrium of the heart, the pooled blood may cause the formation of a blood clot which can travel to the brain resulting in a stroke |
| What is the goal of Warfarin therapy? | To increase the clotting time to a level that prevents the formation of blood clots in an individual without causing excessive bleeding or bruising |
| How often should a patient on long-term Warfarin therapy have a PT/INR test? | Every 2 to 4 weeks |
| What color closure of tube should be used to collect a specimen for a PT/INR test? | Light-blue |
| Why is it important to fill the collection tube for a PT / INR test to the exhaustion of the vacuum? | To provide for the correct anticoagulant-to-blood ratio. Failure to completely fill the tube is cause for rejection |
| What are the advantages of PT / INR home testing? | Is covered by Medicare and most private insurance companies. Provides patients with the convenience of not having to make periodic visits to a lab or medical office. Patients can check their PT/INR when conditions occur that might indicate a problem |
| Each CLIA-waived instrument is accompanied by a | Detailed operating manual that explains its operation test perimeters care and maintenance |
| Laboratory analysis in hematology is concerned with the testing of a blood specimen for the purpose of detecting | Pathologic conditions |
| Blood consists of two parts they are: | Plasma and formed elements |
| 90% of plasma is made up of | Water |
| 10% of plasma consist of | Solutes such as plasma proteins like (albumin, globulins and fibrinogen) |
| Formed elements make up approximately what percent of the total blood volume? | 45% |
| All blood cells are derived from cells that are able to differentiate into the various types of blood cells in the bone marrow they are? | Hematopoietic stem cells |
| How many new blood cells does the bone marrow produce each day? | 200 billion |
| An erythrocyte is approximately | 7 to 8 um in diameter |
| Plasma, the liquid part of the blood consists of a clear yellowish fluid that makes up approximately what percent of the total blood volume? | 55% |
| A hemoglobin molecule consist of a globin or protein in an iron containing pigment called | Heme |
| What percentage of the white blood cells are stored in bone marrow? | 80% to 90% |
| Leukocytes are transported to the site of infection by the | Circulatory system |
| Granulocytes have a multi-lobed nucleus and contain distinct granules in the cytoplasm they include | Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils |
| Agranulocytes have a single round nucleus and contain few or no granules in the cytoplasm they include | Lymphocytes and monocytes |
| Defend the body against bacterial and fungal infections and are the first type of white blood cell to respond to an invader and are the most numerous of the white blood cells | Neutrophils |
| Immature forms of neutrophils are known as | Bands |
| Normally 0% to 5% of neutrophils present are in the immature band form. When the percentage of band forms increase this condition is referred to as a | Shift to the left |
| An increase in the number of neutrophils including band forms is usually seen during an | Acute bacterial infection |
| An increase in eosinophils is often seen in | Allergic reactions and parasitic infestations |
| Are numerous in the connective tissue of the stomach and intestines. Function as part of the allergic response by counteracting the effect of histamine in an allergic reaction | Eosinophil |
| Are the least numerous of white blood cells, the granules release histamine and heparin into the tissues | Basophils |
| Which white blood cells play a role in the inflammatory response of the body? | Eosinophils |
| What does the heparin do that is released by the basophils? | Inhibits blood clotting to facilitate the movement of white blood cells into the affected area |
| Are the smallest white blood cells and function in immunity by producing antibodies to destroy foreign invaders | Lymphocytes |
| An increase in lymphocytes generally occurs with certain viral diseases including | Infectious mononucleosis, mumps, chickenpox, rubella, and viral hepatitis |
| Lymphocytes can be classified as | B cells, T cells, and natural killer cells |
| Which lymphocytes produce and secrete antibodies to help the immune system mount a response to infection? | B cells |
| Which lymphocytes search out and destroy targeted cells? | T cells |
| Which lymphocytes are responsible for attacking and killing viral cells as well as cancer cells? | Natural killer cells |
| Are the largest white blood cells and are considered the body's second line of defense against infection | Monocytes |
| Monocytes migrate from the circulatory system to the site of infection and differentiate into? | Macrophages |
| They function as "scavengers" to clean up the infection site through phagocytosis by engulfing dead tissue cells, dead neutrophils, and any remaining pathogens which eventually become pus | Macrophages |
| Are tiny irregular shaped cell fragments, they lack a nucleus and are formed in the red bone marrow from giant cells known as Megakaryocytes | Platelets also known as thrombocytes |
| After the platelet plug becomes harder and more durable it is now known as a | Thrombus or blood clot |
| The blood clot eventually becomes the | Scab and remains in place until the wound heals |
| Platelets survive in the circulatory system for approximately | 8 to 10 days |
| The most frequently performed hematologic laboratory test is the | Complete blood count (CBC) |
| Is also used to monitor patients undergoing chemotherapy or radiation therapy for cancer because these treatments suppress the production of blood cells in the bone marrow | Complete blood count (CBC) |
| What guidelines should be followed when collecting the specimen for a complete blood count (CBC)? | Collect the blood specimen in a lavender closure tube. Completely fill the collection tube to the exhaustion of the vacuum to ensure proper blood to anticoagulant ratio. Invert the tube 8 to 10 times to mix the anticoagulant with the blood. Store at RT. |
| Is used to screen for anemia, determine its severity, and monitor the response to treatment | Hemoglobin test |
| Increase levels of hemoglobin are present with | Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and congestive heart failure |
| Examples of CLIA-waived hemoglobin analyzers include | HemoPoint H2 meter, Hgb Hb 201+analyzer |
| The word hematocrit (Hct) means | "to seperate blood" |
| Between the plasma and the packed red blood cells is a small thin, yellowish gray layer which contains the platelets and white blood cells known as the | Buffy coat |
| What is the purpose of the hematocrit test? | Is to measure the percentage by volume of packed red blood cells in whole blood |
| A low hematocrit reading may indicate | Anemia |
| A high hematocrit reading may indicate | Polycythemia |
| What CLIA-waived method is used in the medical office to perform a hematocrit determination? | Microhematocrit method |
| When performing a hematocrit test how long does the centrifuge spin the blood? | 3 to 5 minutes |
| Neutrophils reference range is | 40% - 75% |
| Eosinophils reference range is | 0% - 5% |
| Basophils reference range is | 0% - 1% |
| Lymphocytes reference range is | 20% - 40% |
| Monocytes reference range is | 3% - 10% |
| MVC reference range is | 80 - 100 femtoliters (f/L) |
| MCH reference range is | 27 - 31 pictograms (pg) |
| MCHC reference range is | 32% - 36% |
| RDW reference range is | 11.5% - 14.5% |
| A decrease in the red blood cell count can be caused by | Blood loss, production of defective red blood cells, decrease production of red blood cells, and increase destruction of red blood cells |
| An increase in the red blood cell count can be caused by | The production of red blood cells to compensate for chronically low oxygen levels in conditions such as lung or heart disease |
| A red blood cell count (RBC) is a moderate complexity test and is performed on an | Automated (non-waived) blood cell counter |
| Blood cell counters are also able to perform | White blood cell count, platelet count, hemoglobin, hematocrit, and white blood cell differential count, as well as calculation of the red blood cell indices |
| Examples of non-waved blood cell counters include: | QBC Autoread Plus, Cell-Dyn, and the Beckman Coulter Counter |
| The red blood cell indices help to determine the cause of | Anemia |
| The red blood cell (RBC) indices include: | MCV (mean corpuscular volume), MCH (mean corpuscular hemoglobin), MCHC (mean cell hemoglobin concentration), and RDW (red cell distribution width) |
| How many types of anemia have been identified | 400 |
| How does the information used from RBC indices help the provider? | Helps to assist in the diagnosis of the type of anemia a patient has and in the determination of its cause |
| The most common cause of microcytic anemia (low MCV) is | A lack of iron in the diet known as iron deficiency anemia |
| A hereditary type of anemia and causes microcytic anemia (low MCV) is | Thalassemia |
| The most common causes of macrocytic anemia (high MCV) are a | Folic acid deficiency and a lack of vitamin B12 in the body known as pernicious anemia |
| Iron deficiency anemia is associated with both | Decreased MCV and a decreased MCH |
| The cause of MCH values outside of the reference range are the same as those for | MCV values outside of the reference range |
| An example of a type of anemia that exhibits normochromic is | Pernicious anemia, caused by the lack of B12 |
| An MCHC result below 32%, means that the patients red blood cells contain less than normal concentration of | Hemoglobin or are hypochromic |
| Because there is a physical limit to the amount of hemoglobin that can fit into a red blood cell an MCHC above 36% | Does not occur (and therefore red blood cells cannot be hyperchromic) |
| Certain anemias such as iron deficiency anemia can change the size of some of the red blood cells resulting in an increase in the | Red Cell distribution width (RDW) |
| The white blood cell count is used to assist in | The diagnosis and management of pathologic conditions that affect the defense mechanism of the body that protects against infection and foreign materials |
| The white blood cell count is a measurement of the number of white blood cells in the | Circulating blood |
| Conditions that result in an increase in leukocytes include acute infections such as | Appendicitis, chickenpox, diphtheria, infectious mononucleosis, meningitis, and rheumatic fever |
| Normal elevation of the white blood cell count can occur with | Pregnancy, strenuous exercise, stress, and treatment with corticosteroids |
| Conditions that result in a decrease in leukocytes include | Viral infections, bone marrow damage, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy |
| The purpose of a white blood cell differential count is | To identify and count the five types of white blood cells in a representative blood sample |
| The results of a differential count assist the provider in | Diagnosing conditions that affect one or more types of white blood cells and in monitoring individuals undergoing treatment for these conditions |
| An automated differential count involves the use of a sophisticated automated blood cell counter such as the | Sysmex XE2100 hematology analyzer or the Coulter cell counter |
| What percentage of specimens are flagged by the blood count analyzer for a manual review | 10% and 25% |
| How many white blood cells are identified under a microscope based on the size, color, and structure of the nucleus and the color and texture of the cytoplasm in a blood smear when performing a manual differential count | A minimum of 100 |
| What type of blood is used for preparing blood smears for a manual differential count | Fresh whole blood is preferred for blood smears, however a satisfactory smear can be made at the outside laboratory from an EDTA anticoagulant blood specimen provided that the smear is made within 24 hours after collection |
| The blood smear is evaluated by a | Medical laboratory technologist at the outside laboratory |
| If immature or abnormal blood cells are observed on the blood smear slide it is referred to a | Hematomorphologist and or a pathologist for further evaluation and interpretation |
| Examples of coagulation test include: | Prothrombin time (PT), partial thromboplastin time (PTT), platelet count (PLT), fibrinogen level, factor V assay, and thrombin time |
| The platelet count is a measurement of the number of platelets in the | Circulating blood |
| The platelet count is used to assist in the | Diagnosis and management of conditions that affect the clotting mechanism of the body |
| A platelet count maybe ordered when a patient has signs and symptoms associated with thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets) such as | Unexplained bruising, prolonged bleeding from a cut or wound, nosebleeds, heavy menstrual bleeding, small red spots on the skin, and small purplish spots on the skin |
| Small red spots on the skin is known as | Petechiae |
| Small purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin is known as | Purpura |
| Conditions that can cause thrombocytopenia include: | Iron deficiency anemia, cancer, splenectomy, acute blood loss, and hemolytic anemia |
| Thrombocytosis (increased platelets) can be caused by the following conditions: | Viral infections (e.g., mononucleosis, hepatitis, HIV, and measles), leukemia, lymphoma, sepsis, cirrhosis, aplastic anemia, and autoimmune disorders |
| Is a protein produced by the liver and is one of many factors in the blood that help it clot appropriately | Prothrombin |
| What vitamin is needed for the production of prothrombin? | Vitamin K |
| What does a PT test measure? | The time it takes for blood to form a clot |
| If the PT result is more than 12 seconds the blood is | Clotting slower than normal which could result in excessive bleeding |
| Conditions that can cause a prolonged PT include: | Liver disease, vitamin K deficiency, or a deficiency of a clotting factor |
| If a PT result is less than 9 seconds the blood is | Is clotting faster than normal which could result in excessive clot formation in the arteries or veins |
| Symptoms of a clotting disorder that may warrant a PT test include: | Swelling, redness, tenderness, or warmth in the leg; redness or red streaks on the legs, shortness of breath, cough, and chest pain |
| The conditions causing symptoms like swelling of the legs, redness, red streaks on the legs, shortness of breath, cough, and chest pain are associated with the presence of a blood clot such as | Thrombophlebitis (usually in the leg) and a pulmonary embolism (PE) |
| What test is recommended for patients on long-term Warfarin therapy? | PT / INR test |
| Patients on Warfarin therapy have to have their blood tested every | 2 to 4 weeks |
| INR stands for | International Normalized Ratio |
| A healthy individual with a normal clotting ability (and not on warfarin therapy) should have an INR result that falls between | 0.9 and 1.2 |
| A low INR means there is an | increased risk of blood clot formation in an artery or vein |
| An elevated INR means that there is an | increased risk of bleeding; the higher the number the longer it takes for blood to clot |
| The risk of spontaneous bleeding begins to rise as the INR reaches a level of | 4.0 or higher |
| Conditions for which long-term Warfarin therapy is prescribed include the following: | Atrial fibrillation. Patients who have experienced a PE or thrombophlebitis (also known as deep vein thrombosis DVT), and patients who have had a heart valve replaced with a mechanical valve |
| Ideal INR range for a patient on moderate intensity Warfarin therapy following a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE); or a patient with reoccurring atrial fibrillation is between | 2.0 and 3.0 |
| The ideal INR range for a patient with a mechanical valve replacement is between | 2.5 and 3.5 |
| What does a specimen tube for a PT/INR contain that prevents the specimen from clotting without affecting the test results? | Sodium citrate |
| A PT/INR test can be performed in the medical office using a | CLIA-waived automated coagulation analyzer |
| Brand names of coagulation analyzers include: | HemoSense InRatio 2 and CoaguChek XS |
| Home PT/INR testing with a coagulation analyzer is covered by | Medicare and most private insurance |
| Home testing provides patient's with | Convenience of not having to make periodic visits to a lab or medical office. Patient's can check their PT/INR when conditions occur that indicate a problem. |
| Factors that can affect INR results can cause them to be outside of the patient's ideal range include the following: | A change in diet; use of prescription or over the counter medications that interact with Warfarin; vitamins and herbal preparations; a change in the level of exercise; illness; smoking and alcohol consumption |
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Diamond87