The CPU of a computer is used for: A. Storing information B. Interfacing with peripherals. C. Calculating and processing the information. D. Connecting the device to the Internet.

C. Calculating and processing the information.

The following methods are part of encryption EXCEPT A. SSL B. IPsec C. ZIP D. Kerberos

ZIP is a file format used for data compression

All of the following are components of an organization’s strategic plan and policy except: A. Competitive analysis B. Internal organizational analysis C. Establishing long and short term objectives D. Infrastructure analysis

D. Infrastructure analysis. Infrastructure analysis is generally not considered a core component of high-level strategic planning and policy.

Which document outlines the requirements of an organization when selecting potential PACS vendors? A. RFP B. RFQ C. RFI D. RFA

The RFP provides a structured framework for comparing vendor offerings based on various criteria beyond just price, including technical capabilities, implementation strategy, and long-term support.

Which of the following is a component of needs analysis? A. Determine what the future needs are B. Identify the key people responsible for the project C. Identify what equipment needs to be purchased D. Rank the goals in order of importance

A. Determine what the future needs are.

Which of the following is not a component of a typical PACS contract? A. Interface specifications B. Service after installation C. Compliance with standards (DICOM, HL7) D. Uptime guarantee

A. Interface specifications. This is in the RFP

Which of the following would not be included in the RFP? A. Project plan B. Procedural volume analysis C. Current HIS and RIS descriptions D. Financial analysis

A. Project plan. a Project plan is typically developed after the vendor has been selected and the contract is signed.

The Procurement process includes three general steps. They are: A. Need, Selection, and Purchase B. Need, Selection, and Contract C. Need, Selection, and Negotiation D. Need, Selection, and Analysis

C. Need, Selection, and Negotiation.

A Needs Analysis is a tool that is used to determine: A. Assessment questionnaires B. Vendor needs C. The present condition of the institution D. Film needs

C. The present condition of the institution.

WADO is an acronym for: A. Web access to persistent DICOM objects B. Web address to permanent DICOM objects C. Web administration of DICOM objects D. Web server access to DICOM objects

WADO (Web Access to DICOM Persistent Objects) is a standard (defined in DICOM Part 18)

Data migration involves: A. Transferring images from one PACS to another B. Transferring both images and databases from one PACS to another C. Transferring databases from one PACS to another D. Transferring user settings from one PACS to another

B. Transferring both images and databases from one PACS to another.

All of the following apply to negotiations with vendors except: A. Obsolescence planning (upgrades, etc) B. Licensing (concurrent vs. fixed) C. Clear definition of liability D. Uptime guarantee

C. Clear definition of liability (This is contractual)

B. Describes how electronic systems’ computing power doubles every 2 yrs

A DICOM application running in promiscuous mode would require that each DICOM: A. SCU would need to be declared to it B. SCP would need to be declared to it C. SCU would not need to be declared to it D. SCP would not need to be declared to i

C. SCU would not need to be declared to it

The project management plan: A. States what work is to be done and what deliverables need to be produced. B. States how the work will be performed. C. Formally authorizes the project. D. States how changes to the project will be handled

B. States how the work will be performed.

An IP address consists of? A. 64 bits over 4 octets of numbers from 0-255 B. 32 bytes over 4 octets of numbers from 0-255 C. 32 bits over 4 octets of numbers from 0-255 D. 64 bytes over 4 octets of numbers from 0-255

C. 32 bits over 4 octets of numbers from 0-255

All of the following IP addresses fall within private ranges except: A. 72.229.177.10 B. 10.201.100.131 C. 192.168. 15.5 D. 172.16.1.1

A. 72.229.177.10 Private: Class A 10 ..Class B 172 ...Class C 192

All of the modalities are able to send to PACS and all, but the US unit are able to receive the modality worklist. What's the likely cause?

The gateway is not configured on the US unit

Which model is used to describe the logical layers used in network communication? A. ISO B. OSI C. IEEE D DNS

B. OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) specifically designed to describe the logical layers used in network communication

What is the name of the language used to manipulate information within a database? A. HTML B. COBOL C. SQL D. XML

SQL (Structured Query Language)

The schema of a database defines:

D. Is what defines the tables, the fields in each table, and the relationships between fields and tables

What is the DICOM entity called which assumes the role of a server process? A. SOP B. SCU C. SCP D. SID

SCP stands for Service Class Provider.

What best describes the function of the AE title?

The representation used to identify the DICOM nodes communicating between each other.

TCP ports are used for the following purpose: A. To distinguish which node to communicate with B. To distinguish which AE title to communicate with C. To map data to a particular process D. To map IP addresses to DICOM AE titles

C. To map data to a particular process.

A DICOM store SCP acts on which of the following: A. Master patient index B. Medical record number C. Accession number D. Study instance service object pair

D. Study instance service object pair.

What is the difference between DICOM composite commands and DICOM normalized commands?

Normalized commands refer to notifications and composite commands refer to actions.

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CIIP Study Guide 3

Question	Answer
What type of learner responds more effectively to videos, books, and diagrams?	Visual
technology utilizes algorithms to help radiologists find clinically important findings by highlighting areas of interest in a image? A. computer-assisted detection B. computer physician assistant C. clinical review system D. clinical diagnosis system	A. computer-assisted detection
Which of the following refers to a standard developed for electronic data exchange in health care environments? A. OSI B. SNMP C. ADT D. HL7	D. HL7
Policy that describes a plan for managing the technical and communication aspects of planned or unplanned periods of system unavailability is referred to as the: A. patch management policy B. upgrade policy C. usage policy D. downtime policy	D. downtime policy.
The CPU of a computer is used for: A. Storing information B. Interfacing with peripherals. C. Calculating and processing the information. D. Connecting the device to the Internet.	C. Calculating and processing the information.
Linux, Windows and UNIX are all A. Operating systems B. Driver software C. Application software D. Utilities	A. Operating systems.
When selecting multiple fields within a table, what form of punctuation is used to separate the items in the list? A. Coma B. Semicolon C. Colon D. Dash	A. Coma
https means the following: A. A simple version of http B. A secure version of http C. An xml version of http D. A special version of http	B. A secure version of http.
The following methods are part of encryption EXCEPT A. SSL B. IPsec C. ZIP D. Kerberos	ZIP is a file format used for data compression
All of the following are components of an organization’s strategic plan and policy except: A. Competitive analysis B. Internal organizational analysis C. Establishing long and short term objectives D. Infrastructure analysis	D. Infrastructure analysis. Infrastructure analysis is generally not considered a core component of high-level strategic planning and policy.
RFP is an acronym for: A. Request for price B. Requirement for policy C. Requirement for procedure D. Request for proposal	Request For Proposal
Which document outlines the requirements of an organization when selecting potential PACS vendors? A. RFP B. RFQ C. RFI D. RFA	The RFP provides a structured framework for comparing vendor offerings based on various criteria beyond just price, including technical capabilities, implementation strategy, and long-term support.
The following are key readiness factors to consider when implementing a PACS system except: A. Network infrastructure B. Conversion strategy C. Physical environment D. Training	D. Training.
Which of the following is a component of needs analysis? A. Determine what the future needs are B. Identify the key people responsible for the project C. Identify what equipment needs to be purchased D. Rank the goals in order of importance	A. Determine what the future needs are.
Which of the following is not a component of a typical PACS contract? A. Interface specifications B. Service after installation C. Compliance with standards (DICOM, HL7) D. Uptime guarantee	A. Interface specifications. This is in the RFP
Which of the following would not be included in the RFP? A. Project plan B. Procedural volume analysis C. Current HIS and RIS descriptions D. Financial analysis	A. Project plan. a Project plan is typically developed after the vendor has been selected and the contract is signed.
The Procurement process includes three general steps. They are: A. Need, Selection, and Purchase B. Need, Selection, and Contract C. Need, Selection, and Negotiation D. Need, Selection, and Analysis	C. Need, Selection, and Negotiation.
Key readiness factors to consider when preparing for a new IT system do not include which of the following? A. Network infrastructure B. Outsourced IT support for RIS or PACS C. Physical readiness D. Implementation policies	D. Implementation policies.
A Needs Analysis is a tool that is used to determine: A. Assessment questionnaires B. Vendor needs C. The present condition of the institution D. Film needs	C. The present condition of the institution.
The key person leading a PACS implementation process is called: A. Steering committee B. PACS Administrator C. Project Champion D. Chief Radiologist	PACS Administrator
WADO is an acronym for: A. Web access to persistent DICOM objects B. Web address to permanent DICOM objects C. Web administration of DICOM objects D. Web server access to DICOM objects	WADO (Web Access to DICOM Persistent Objects) is a standard (defined in DICOM Part 18)
The PACS component responsible for routing images is called: A. Broker B. DICOM print server C. DICOM web server D. DICOM gateway	D. DICOM gateway.
Data migration involves: A. Transferring images from one PACS to another B. Transferring both images and databases from one PACS to another C. Transferring databases from one PACS to another D. Transferring user settings from one PACS to another	B. Transferring both images and databases from one PACS to another.
Which PACS component is used to integrate PACS with other hospital systems? A. DICOM print server B. DICOM gateway C. Application server D. Broker (HL7 gateway)	D. Broker (HL7 gateway).
An invitation for suppliers to submit a proposal on a specific product or service. A. RFP B. RFI C. RFQ D. RP	A. RFP
All of the following apply to negotiations with vendors except: A. Obsolescence planning (upgrades, etc) B. Licensing (concurrent vs. fixed) C. Clear definition of liability D. Uptime guarantee	C. Clear definition of liability (This is contractual)
Moore’s law:	B. Describes how electronic systems’ computing power doubles every 2 yrs
What system is usually used for resource allocation in the radiology department? A. HIS B. PACS C. RIS D. EMR	C. RIS
A DICOM application running in promiscuous mode would require that each DICOM: A. SCU would need to be declared to it B. SCP would need to be declared to it C. SCU would not need to be declared to it D. SCP would not need to be declared to i	C. SCU would not need to be declared to it
The following are documents used during the course of managing a PACS implementation project except: A. Project Charter B. Project Management plan C. Project authorization plan D. Project scope	C. Project authorization plan
The project management plan: A. States what work is to be done and what deliverables need to be produced. B. States how the work will be performed. C. Formally authorizes the project. D. States how changes to the project will be handled	B. States how the work will be performed.
What is the project management stage that ensures that potential problems can be identified in a timely manner and corrective action can be taken? A. Initiation B. Planning C. Production D. Controlling	D. Controlling
What is the project management risk that involves uncontrolled changes to a project’s scope? A. Scope creep B. Scope gap C. Scope change D. Scope deviation	A. Scope creep
An IP address consists of? A. 64 bits over 4 octets of numbers from 0-255 B. 32 bytes over 4 octets of numbers from 0-255 C. 32 bits over 4 octets of numbers from 0-255 D. 64 bytes over 4 octets of numbers from 0-255	C. 32 bits over 4 octets of numbers from 0-255
Which format do computers use to process IP v4 addresses? A. Base 2 B. Base 16 C. Base 10 D. Base 8	A. Base 2
In the following example, which number identifies the host? IP address = 10.1.6.234 Subnet mask = 255.255.255.0 A. 10 B. 1 C. 6 D. 234	D. 234
All of the following IP addresses fall within private ranges except: A. 72.229.177.10 B. 10.201.100.131 C. 192.168. 15.5 D. 172.16.1.1	A. 72.229.177.10 Private: Class A 10 ..Class B 172 ...Class C 192
All of the modalities are able to send to PACS and all, but the US unit are able to receive the modality worklist. What's the likely cause?	The gateway is not configured on the US unit
Which command would be used to display the number of routers between two nodes on a computer running MS windows? A. tracert B. ipconfig C. ping D. telnet	A. tracert
Which model is used to describe the logical layers used in network communication? A. ISO B. OSI C. IEEE D DNS	B. OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) specifically designed to describe the logical layers used in network communication
What is the name of the language used to manipulate information within a database? A. HTML B. COBOL C. SQL D. XML	SQL (Structured Query Language)
The schema of a database defines:	D. Is what defines the tables, the fields in each table, and the relationships between fields and tables
What is the UID for a table in a database called? A. Primary Key B. Foreign Key C. Index D. Unique Key	A. Primary Key
Which SQL command does not alter the data in a database? A. Delete B. Insert C. Update D. Select	D. Select
What is the DICOM entity called which assumes the role of a server process? A. SOP B. SCU C. SCP D. SID	SCP stands for Service Class Provider.
What best describes the function of the AE title?	The representation used to identify the DICOM nodes communicating between each other.
TCP ports are used for the following purpose: A. To distinguish which node to communicate with B. To distinguish which AE title to communicate with C. To map data to a particular process D. To map IP addresses to DICOM AE titles	C. To map data to a particular process.
What DICOM command is used for the verification service? A. C_ECHO B. C_STORE C. C_FIND D. C_MOVE	A. C_ECHO
A DICOM store SCP acts on which of the following: A. Master patient index B. Medical record number C. Accession number D. Study instance service object pair	D. Study instance service object pair.
What is an example of an enterprise wide patient UID? A. Medical record number B. Master patient index C. Study instance service object pair D. Accession number	B. Master patient index.
What is the difference between DICOM composite commands and DICOM normalized commands?	Normalized commands refer to notifications and composite commands refer to actions.
Which DICOM service class allows patient demographic information from a RIS to be available at a modality? A. Query / retrieve B. Print C. MWL D. Storage	C. MWL
Which of the following will affect the transfer of images between DICOM nodes? A. incorrect user password B. Matching AE title C. Using the same TCP port for multiple destinations D. Mismatched network interface speeds and duplex settings	D. Mismatched network interface speeds and duplex settings.
Among other things a DICOM conformance statement will specify:	Which SOP classed the DICOM application will support
The DICOM verification service class would allow an end user to determine that the local network is ___________________ and the DICOM _______________________ is correct.	Functioning / Configuration
What is the most common complaint that an end user would give when requesting help with the PACS system?	Username / Password
What is the client-side process called in DICOM? A. SCT B. SCP C. SOP D. SCU	D. SCU
What is the server side process called in DICOM? A. SCT B. SCP C. SOP D. SCU	B. SCP
What is a connection between two nodes called in DICOM? A. Communication B. Association C. Correlation D. integration event	B. Association.
Which protocol or standard would be used to communicate a new registration from a RIS? A. DICOM B. HL7 C. IHE D. TCP/IP	B. HL7
What type of HL7 message would be used to communicate a new patient registration? A. ORU B. ORM C. ADT D. ACK	C. ADT
Which HL7 order control code signifies a new radiology order? A. XO B. NW C. CA D. RE	B. NW (New Order) XO(Change order) CA (Cancel Order) RE (Observations to follow)
Which HL7 segment would be used to convey the type of HL7 message being sent? A. MSH B. PID C. PV1 D. OBR	A. MSH
IHE is an initiative by: A. Healthcare professionals and industry to improve the way computer systems in healthcare share information. B. The US government to standardize interoperability in healthcare.	Healthcare professionals and industry to improve the way computer systems in healthcare share information.
An IHE actor is which of the following?	A system or part of a system that creates, manages or acts upon data.
Which IHE integration profile would be used to describe a means to enables single sign-on by facilitating one name per user for participating devices and software? A. PWP B. XDS-I C. CT D. EUA	D. EUA (Enterprise User Authentication)
Which of the following is not a component of the scheduled workflow integration profile? A. Order placer B. Order creator C. Image display D. Image creator	Order creator is not a component (actor) of the IHE
The PWP integration profile would likely use which of the following protocols? A. HL7 B. DICOM C. LDAP D. DNS	(Personnel White Pages) The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is an industry-standard application protocol specifically used for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services
Which encryption standard would likely be used with the EUA integration profile? A. Kerberos B. IPSec C. L2TP D. PPTP	IPSec is a robust, widely used protocol suite for providing secure, encrypted communication at the network layer (Layer 3)
Which security model safeguards against unauthorized use of a PACS application? A. Database B. Network C. Host D. Domain	Database security model is used to safeguard against the unauthorized use of a Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS) application because patient information and medical images (DICOM files) are stored in databases
HIPAA is described as? A. Health insurance provider accountability act B. Health insurance principal accountability act C. Health insurer promissory and acceptance act D. Health insurance portability and accountability act	D. Health insurance portability and accountability act
Which provision of HIPAA outlines how PHI should be transmitted electronically? A. Privacy Rule B. Transaction and code sets rule C. Security rule D. Enforcement rule	Security rule: ......when it is created, received, maintained, or transmitted electronically.
What is the maximum fine for a HIPAA violation if the offense is committed with intent to sell, transfer, or use individually identifiable health information for commercial advantage personal gain, or malicious harm?	C. $250,000, imprisoned not more than 10 years, or both
To comply with the HIPAA privacy rule, how many points of identification need to be removed to de-identify PHI? A. 4 B. 6 C. 12 D. 18	HIPAA Privacy Rule's Safe Harbor method - must remove 18 specific points of identification
Secure, encrypted remote connectivity can be achieved with which technology? A. TCP/IP B. Telnet C. VPN D. Decnet	VPN (Virtual Private Network) is specifically designed to create a secure, encrypted tunnel over an unsecure network
Which type of learning style describes people who Learn from experience, from doing things or being part of them? A. Kinesthetic B. Auditory C. Visual D. Selective	Kinesthetic learners (also known as tactile learners) learn best through physical movement, hands-on activities
What type of policy would be used to convey new procedures due to a software upgrade? A. Downtime policy B. Change management policy C. Backup procedure policy D. Upgrade policy	B. Change management policy. It specifically includes notifying users about new procedures, training, and documentation updates resulting from the change
Which type of backup only backs up files that have changed since the last full backup? A. Full backup B. Incremental backup C. Differential backup D. Transactional backup	A differential backup saves all data that has been added, updated, or altered since the most recent full backup
Between NAS and SAN, which uses a fiber channel and which operates on file data?	A SAN uses a fiber channel switch and operates on disk blocks. A NAS is directly connected and operates on file level or-data.
Where would codes and descriptions of procedures be found? A. ICD B. ACR C. JCAHO D. CPT	CPT (Current Procedural Terminology)
Where would classifications of diseases including symptoms be found? A. ICD B. ACR C. JCAHO D. CPT	The International Classification of Diseases (ICD)
Which communication protocol aids information systems in sharing structured data, via web services? A. HTTP B. SSL C. XML D. TCP	XML is the protocol that defines the structure of the data itself for sharing.
Which of the following would allow for the detection of any errors or defects in a process, design, or item? A. MQSA B. JCAHO C. EDR D. FMEA	FMEA (Failure Mode and Effects Analysis)
Which agency is responsible for overseeing inspections relating to the MQSA? A. Dept. of health B. FDA C. DEP D. NRC	FDA has ultimate responsibility
A request for solutions, compared with a traditional proposal is: a. The same as a request for information b. Is a larger document c. Contains many pages of detailed functional requirements d. Takes more time for evaluating responses	d. Takes more time for evaluating responses
When considering stakeholders, which of the following groups is least likely to be represented on a PACS selection committee? a. Radiologists b. Cardiologists c. ER physicians d. Nursing e. IT	d. Nursing
Which of the following is not a tool used to manage a project? a. Gantt chart b. project work plan c. project chart d. project status report e. operations quality dashboard	An operations quality dashboard is used for monitoring the ongoing quality and performance of existing business operations, not for managing the specific, temporary lifecycle of a project
In negotiating a PACS contract is recommended to involve:	It is recommended to involve outside legal counsel expertise
Which of the following support requirements is not required for a first time PACS buyer? a. Database conversion support b. Implementation support c. technical support d. Training support e. Workflow reengineering support	a. Database conversion support: there is no legacy database of images to convert
When doing an inventory on your modality DICOM capabilities, you would look at the following: a. User's manual b. Contact your service engineer c. DICOM conformance statement & IHE profile d. Assume all modalities support the capabilities you want	c. DICOM conformance statement & IHE profile
During vendor selection phase, goals of a site visit should include all of the following except? a. Demonstrate successful interaction with other systems b. Review clinical workflow c. Negotiation tactics d. Discuss installation	Negotiation tactics, however, are part of the separate contracting or purchasing phase, not the information-gathering and evaluation phase of a site visit.
When implementing a replacement PACS, which is the least important? a. DICOM data migration b. Reconciliation of exams after migration c. Time allowed for data migration d. Keeping your old system available for a pre-determined time frame	Reconciliation of exams after migration
When soliciting information from a vendor for a PACS project, the list of requests would go in what order? a. RFP then RFI b. RFI then RFP c. It makes no difference d. RFP then RIP	b. RFI then RFP.
Common project management charts include all of the following except? a. Gantt charts b. PERT c. RACI diagram d. Area chart	d. Area chart.
During project management the ROI calculation is done in what phase? a. Planning b. Execution c. Completion d. Assessment	Anticipated ROI is calculated during the Planning phase to help assess feasibility,
The request for proposal should a. Be part of the purchase contract b. Be signed by appropriate representatives of the institution & vendor c. Be kept as a permanent record d. All of the above	d. All of the above.
How long should you give the vendor to respond to an RFP? a. 2 weeks b. 3 months c. No more than 8 weeks d. 6 months	a. 2 weeks Best answer would be no more than 8 weeks
Negotiating the purchase contract will include all of the following except? a. System options b. Software upgrades c. Service contracts d. Job descriptions	d. Job descriptions.
When developing your ROI for a PACS purchase, you should consider the following? a. Improved workflow b. Decreased technologist productivity c. Decreased radiologist productivity d. Increased report turn around time	a. Improved workflow. When developing your ROI for a PACS purchase, you should consider improvements to efficiency and productivity, which are core benefits of PACS implementation
Physician services for an arthroscopy exam would be coded for medicare billing using a (an) a. ACR b. CPT c. ICD d. SNOMED	CPT (Current Procedural Terminology): Used for reporting procedures and services. Medicare Billing: Requires specific CPT/HCPCS codes for reimbursement
Introduction of multidetector CT has generally resulted in a (an)_________of number of images acquired and a(an)_______in image acquisition time a. increase, increase b. increase, decrease c. decrease, increase d. decrease, decrease	b. increase, decrease
An image series labeled "T1 weighted" is generated by what modality? a. computed tomography b. positron emition tomography c. computed radiography d. magnetic resonance imaging	d. magnetic resonance imaging
A framework for integrating healthcare information systems including specifications on how to implement standards. This is a definition of: a. HL7 b. IHE c. DICOM d. SOP	a. HL7
According to the IHE scheduled workflow integration profile, a radiology information system (RIS) should provide which of the following DICOM services to the modalities? a. DICOM image store b. DICOM print c. DICOM storage commitment d. DICOM worklist	d. DICOM worklist ( IHE Scheduled Workflow (SWF) Integration Profile )
This standard allows for a consistent way to organize medical terminology such as diseases, findings, procedures, and pharmaceuticals, including relationships between concept codes? a. CPT b. HCPCS c. ICD-9 d. SNOMED	d. SNOMED (Systematized Nomenclature of Medicine – Clinical Terms and Conditions
Each IHE integration profile is a representation of a real activity that is supported by a set of _________through__________.	Actors / Transactions
The combination of a (an) ___________and a (an) __________is called a service object pair (SOP). a. AET,DICOM port number b. Calling AE,called AE c. DIMSE,IOD d. Abstract syntax, transfer syntax	Service Object Pair (SOP) Class is defined in the DICOM standard as the combination of a DIMSE (DICOM Message Serv Element), which describes the service (like "Store" or "Move"), and an IOD (Information Object Definition), object defined like a CT image
In a DICOM association negotiation, which of the following are negotiated? a. AET, DICOM port number b. Calling AE, called AE c. DIMSE, IOD d. Abstract syntax, transfer syntax	During DICOM association negotiation, the two communicating Application Entities (AEs) agree on an Abstract Syntax and a Transfer Syntax
Implicit VR little endian is an example of a (an)_________? a. abstract syntax b. application entity title c. SOP instance UID d. transfer syntax	d. transfer syntax.
MQSA requires that imaging centers performing mammography be accredited__________? a. annually b. every 2 yrs c. every 3 yrs d. every 5 yrs	c. every 3 yrs
The specialty department is most likely to require software for stitching CR images is________. a. neurosurgery b. orthopedics c. endocrinology d. oncology	b. orthopedics
Patient demographics are most commonly passed between various healthcare systems using which standard? a. API b. DICOM c. HL7 d. IHE	Patient demographics are most commonly passed between various healthcare systems using HL7 (Health Level Seven) standards, specifically the HL7 version 2 (v2) Admission-Discharge-Transfer (ADT) messages.
How many transfer syntaxes can be supported in a single DICOM association negotiation? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. unlimited	d. unlimited (Up to 128)
According to IHE,SWF, the study accession number should be equated with the: a. HL7 placer order number b. HL7 filler order number c. requested procedure ID d. scheduled procedure ID	b. HL7 filler order number.
Which imaging modality routinely acquires images in multi-frame format? a. CR b. CT c. MR d. US	d. US (Ultrasound)
Display characteristics of a CRT & LCD monitor can be demonstrated with a(n)_________curve. a. exponential b. linear c. logarithmic d. sigmoid	d. sigmoid
The American Recovery & Reinvestment Act of 2009 introduced which of the following acts within its provisions? a. 210(k) b. HIPAA c. HITECH d. MQSA	c. HITECH. Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act was a key component enacted as part of the American Recovery & Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA)
The__________view is used to generate the__________and the___________MPR views. a. axial,coronal,sagittal b. coronal,sagittal,axial c. sagittal,axial,coronal d. none of the above	a. axial, coronal, sagittal.
The HIPAA security rule requires healthcare covered entities to:	a. Ensure only those who should have access to electronic protected health information will have access.
The purpose of a healthcare quality improvement plan is to:	c. Improve healthcare quality, safety, or security outcomes.
The government agency responsible for regulating radiation-emitting devices is the: a. Joint commission b. FDA c. MQSA d. ACR	b. FDA
In quality improvement, an Ishikawa diagram is also referred to as: a. Pareto chart b. Histogram c. Fishbone diagram d. Scatter diagram	c. Fishbone diagram. (a cause-and-effect diagram)
The HIPAA privacy rule requirements are classified into which three categories: a. administrative, physical, technical b. operations, clinical, technical c. administrative, technical, security officer d. operations, training, contingency planning	a. administrative, physical, technical.
A model for process improvement includes: a. FOCUS-PDCA & six sigma b. IHE-PDI integration profile c. COBRA d. DICOM-PPS	a. FOCUS-PDCA & six sigma.
Which best describes the HIPAA security regulation?	c. Require health care providers to assess the potential risks & vulnerabilities of EPHI.
HIPAA provides instructions for implementing each security standard & each HIPAA implementation standard is designed as either:	a. responsible (R.) or addressable (A) b. required (R.) or addressable (A) c. required (R.) or avoidable (A) d. responsible (R.) or avoidable (A) b. required (R.) or addressable (A)
The opportunity to detect & correct process errors is most often found when: a. Burning CDs for release of digital images b. Scanning final radiology reports c. Performing routine QC checks d. Meeting with department administrators	c. Performing routine QC checks
HITECH refers to:	b. The law that provides CMS incentive payments for meaningful use of HER technology
Flow charts or process maps are tools used during process improvement to:	a. Identify the steps in a process.
The MQSA act of 1992 and the MQS reauthorization acts of 1998 and 2004 are directly regulated by what agency: a. American college of radiology b. American cancer society c. Department of health and human services d. Food and drug administration	d. Food and drug administration. Mammography Quality Standards Act (MQSA
An example of a HIPAA security rule technical safeguard would include: a. A hospital wide services downtime contingency plan b. Identification of a HIPAA security officer c. Performing routine security training & awareness communications d. Limiting a	d. Limiting access to applications by requiring unique user IDs.
Technical validation, inspection & reactive correction describes this quality management category: a. Total quality management b. Quality improvement c. Quality control d. Quality assessment	c. Quality control.
An example of a non-government healthcare accrediting or certifying organization is: a. DHHS b. MIPPA c. ACR d. CMS	c. ACR.
An example of a systems management policy would include: a. Employee termination policy b. Granting employee access to applications policy c. User password aging policy d. Computer/data center backup policy	d. Computer/data center backup policy.
The following government action (law) that requires accreditation for MRI, CT, NM, PET by Jan. 2012 is:	c. MIPPA-medicare improvements for patients & providers act.
All of the attributes listed below need to be protected to provide a minimal level of confidentiality from identification except: a. patient ID (0010,0020) b. accession number (0008,0050) c. study date (0008,0020) d. study description (0008,1030)	d. study description (0008,1030).
The RSNA radiology information committee's library of medical information is known as:	Medical Imaging Resource Center (MIRC)
Teaching file & clinical trial export is described in which IHE integration profile? a. KIN b. XDS-I c. TCE	c. TCE IHE Teaching File and Clinical Trial Export (TCE) integration profile
IHE radiology technical framework white paper, a worklist manager needs to be able to do all of the following tasks except: a. create worklist items b. receive output from worklist clients c. provide worklists to worklist clients d. receive PPSs (dire	b. receive output from worklist clients.
In a simple imaging phase sequencing model, the following steps are performed in what order? 1 perform reporting procedure steps 2 create scheduled procedures 3 perform modality procedure steps 4 create requested procedures	b. 2,4,3,1. Schedule, Request, Perform, Report
Integration of clinical information systems & PACS may result in: a. An increase in accurate clinical information available to radiologists b. Faster turn around times to clinicians c. Richer information by the delivery of images & their associated re	d. All of the above
The software licensing model that is based on the number of users simultaneously accessing the same application is called ______ licensing. a. fixed seat b. enterprise c. concurrent d.domain	c. concurrent
A mirrored set of disks without parity, which provides fault tolerance from disk errors, as well as allowing the array to continue operation, as long as a minimum of one drive is functioning is a. RAID 0 b. RAID 5 c. RAID 1 d. RAID 1+0	c. RAID 1. RAID 1, also known as disk mirroring, creates an identical copy of data across two or more drives without using parity,
FMEA is an acronym for: a. fiasco made easy actions b. failure mode effective analysis c. future modality error analytics d. failure mode economics application	b. failure mode effective analysis often also referred to as "Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
An effective PACS image migration includes migrating all pertinent data associated with the study including: a. DICOM header information b. presentation state c. annotations & reports d. all of the above	d. all of the above.
Which RAID level provides no redundancy? a. level 0 b. level 1 c. level 3 d. level 5	RAID level 0 (also known as disk striping) provides no redundancy or fault tolerance
Which protocol utilizes port 80 by default? a. DICOM b. HTML c. HTTP d. FTP	HTTP utilizes TCP port 80
When a digital modality transmits images to PACS, they are initialy sent to the__________. a. database server b. gateway c. integration server d. archive server	d. archive server
Which IP addressing scheme requires a dedicated server to manage assigned addresses? a. APIPA b. static c. DNS d. DHCP	d. DHCP.
DICOM study sizes are most often described in units of___________. a. KB b. MB c. GB d. TB	b. MB
Which of the following storage systems keeps storage traffic on a separate high speed network? a. DAS b. NAS c. SAN d. SCSI	Storage Area Network (SAN) is a dedicated, high-speed network
An uptime expectation of five nines (99.999%) assumes a yearly downtime of: a. 3 days b. 9 hrs c. 1 hr d. 5 min	approximately 5.26 minutes.
Which of the following parameters is not included in a study size calculation? a. number of storage bytes b. matrix c. modality d. number of images	a. number of storage bytes. result of the calculation, not an input parameter used to derive the size.
Physician services for an arthroscopy exam would be coded for Medicare billing using a ___________. a. ACR code b. CPT code c. ICD code d. SNOMED code	b. CPT code
The specialty department that is most likely to require software that supplies joint replacement templates is ____________. a. Neurosurgery b. Orthopedics c. Endocrinology d. Oncology	b. Orthopedics.
The image plane that is parallel to the floor when the patient is standing is: a. Sagittal b. Axial c. Coronal d. Parasagittal	b. Axial
Imaging appropriateness criteria guidelines are available from the: a. American College of Radiology b. DICOM Working Group c. IHE integration profiles d. Joint Commission	(ACR) publishes the ACR Appropriateness Criteria
The endocrine anatomical organs include a. Kidney, Ureters and Bladder b. Thyroid, Pancreas and Testicles c. Liver, Gall Bladder and Spleen d. Aorta, Heart and Lungs	b. Thyroid, Pancreas and Testicles.
The 2012 ACR AAPM SIIM Technical Standards addresses a. Staffing needs in a digital department b. Appropriate documentation guidelines c. Use of display standards for image review d. All of the above	d. All of the above
The IHE Import Reconciliation Workflow benefits patient diagnoses by:	a. Allowing ready access to prior studies for comparison
As an informatics administrator, your customers include a. Patients b. Technologists c. Clinicians d. All of the above	d. All of the above
An arthrogram is a medical image of a. A body part, used to plan a radiation therapy b. A joint during and following injection of a contrast agent c. The spinal cord and nerves from the cervical region d. Contrast enhanced heart and vascular system	b. A joint during and following injection of a contrast agent
A relative value unit (RVU) is used to	c. Measure the time and effort required by a physician to perform a procedure or diagnosis
The best example of a learning objective to assure proper use of your new informatics software by your Technologists is: After attending this course, the student________________	Will accurately verify that all images have successfully transferred to PACS
A formative course assessment is done to	Evaluate students attained skills on software deployment
Special imaging needs for an obstetrics practice would most likely include a. CT and X ray surgical planning software b. High resolution displays of skeletal images c. Storage of large Ultrasound video files d. Ability to store fluoroscopy video	c. Storage of large Ultrasound video files
A Request for Solution, compared with a traditional Request for Proposal is:	Requests a vendor to respond to the institution's unique requirements.
In negotiating a PACS contract: a. It is recommended to negotiate only with 1 vendor b. It is very similar to buying a piece of imaging equipment c. It is recommended to involve outside legal counsel expertise d. The project work plan can wait until t	c. It is recommended to involve outside legal counsel expertise
Measurable goals to include in a Mission Statement include: a. Elimination of Film Loss b. Decrease Turn Around Time c. Increase Patient Satisfaction d. All of the above	d. All of the above
Which is not one of the Process Groups of Project Management? a. Planning b. Execution c. Completion d. Assessment	c. Completion
The Request for Proposal should include: a. A Mission Statement b. Growth Potential c. List of Modalities d. All of the above	d. All of the above
Which is not one of the Triple Constraints: a. Cost b. Time c. Risk d. Scope	c. Risk.
The document that formally authorizes a project is a: a. Statement of Work b. RFP c. Charter d. Stakeholder Register	Project Charter is the official document issued by a project initiator or sponsor
Which is not a step used in Procurement: a. Need b. Planning c. Negotiation d. Selection	b. Planning
A Gantt Chart is created in what stage of the project: a. Initiation b. Monitoring and Controlling c. Planning d. Executing	c. Planning.
Which is used to identify the many possible causes for an effect or problem: a. Scatter Diagram b. Fishbone Diagram c. RACI Diagram d. PERT	b. Fishbone Diagram. Ishikawa Diagram or Cause-and-Effect Diagram
The tool used to estimate the amount of time it takes to complete a project task: a. Run Chart b. PERT c. Workflow Analysis d. Gantt Chart	Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) is a project management tool specifically designed to estimate task durations.
Negotiating the purchase contract will include all of the following except? a. Warranties b. Software Upgrades c. Payment Schedule d. Job Descriptions	d. Job Descriptions.
When developing your ROI for a PACS purchase, you should consider the following? a. Personnel Time Savings b. Decreased Technologist Productivity c. Decreased Radiologist Productivity d. Increased Report Turn Around	a. Personnel Time Savings
What best defines the purpose of a Gap Analysis Model?	c. A process to determine the difference between the current practice and a desired standard.
The goal of a quality improvement plan in imaging is to:	a. Improve the quality control procedures in health care clinical areas.
Quality Assurance is comprised of? a. Quality Control b. Quality Insurance c. Continuous Quality Improvement d. All of the above	d. All of the above
Quality Improvement Programs include the following a. Management Controls manufacturing methods. b. Worker Involvement and ownership of outcome c. QA postproduction d. Both a and c	b. Worker Involvement and ownership of outcome.
Common themes of all QI plans include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Data Collection b. Implement changes c. Sign off and move to next project d. Evaluate for results	c. Sign off and move to next project.
Quality Improvement models used in Healthcare include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Six Sigma b. FACE c. LEAN d. FMEA	b. FACE.
Charts Used in the QI process include: a. Check Sheet b. Histogram c. Fishbone d. All of the above	d. All of the above.
The Control Chart can be used for monitoring: a. Errors in reports b. Fluctuations in imaging times c. PACS Monitor Calibration d. QA of Imaging Studies	Control Chart is specifically identified as a tool for monitoring PACS Monitor Calibration.
What QI instrument is most likely to be used in developing a RIS/PACS downtime workflow: a. Fishbone Diagram b. Pareto Chart c. Check Sheet d. Flowchart	d. Flowchart.
The Role of the IIP in Quality Improvement Programs include all of the following except: a. Collecting and analyzing QC data b. Equipment purchasing c. Error exception and correction d. Troubleshooting and service support	b. Equipment purchasing
The structure content of policies and procedures should include: a. Purpose b. Revision History c. Scope d. All of the above	d. All of the above.
User Management first has to have what type of development in order to be most effective: a. Software development b. Role development c. Job Descriptions d. All of the above	b. Role development.
An example of a user management audit include: a. Failed log in attempts b. Lunch break punches c. Active logins with out activity d. Both b and c	a. Failed log in attempts.
The HIPAA Privacy Rule requirements are classified into which three categories:	Administrative, Physical, and Technical
Each HIPAA implementation Standard is designated as either: a. Responsible(R)or Addressable(A) b. Required(R)or Addressable(A) c. Required(R)or Avoidable(A) d. Responsible(R)or Avoidable(A)	b. Required(R)or Addressable(A).
HITECH refers to	The law that provides CMS incentive payments for meaningful use of HER technology
Acceptable Image storage for Mammography under MQSA is: a. DICOM Lossy format b. Lossless compressed format c. TIFF d. Lossy JPEG	b. Lossless compressed format
Under MIPPA, which of the following organization is approved by CMS as an accrediting body for advanced imaging: a. Joint Society b. IAC c. MQSA d. RSNA	b.Intersocietal Accreditation Commission (IAC) Medicare Improvements for Patients and Providers Act (MIPPA)
An example of a Systems Management policy would include: a. Employee termination policy b. Granting employee access to applications policy c. User password aging policy d. Computer/Data Center backup policy	d. Computer/Data Center backup policy.
The following government action (law) that requires accreditation for MRI, CT, NM, PET by January 2012 is:	c. MIPPA Medicare Improvements for Patients and Providers Act of 2008
What is ethernet? a. A cable b. A networking technology for wireless networks c. A networking technology for local area networks d. The predecessor to internet	c. A networking technology for local area networks.
What does multiple access in Ethernet mean? a. Anyone can initiate a network transfer process b. Many people can access your ethernet c. Collision detection d. Is any one else sending packets?	a. Anyone can initiate a network transfer process.
What is the difference between a Hub and a Switch?	c. Hub shares everyone traffic, Switch has dedicated traffic
What’s a MAC Address? a. Media Access Control b. Media Accessory Controller c. Motherboard Access Control d. Media Accessor Chip	a. Media Access Control. It is a unique 48-bit or 12-digit hexadecimal identifier
What does TCP/IP stand for? a. Transmission Control Packets/Internet Packets b. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol c. Transmission Change Protocol/Internet Protocol d. Transmission Change of Packets/Internet Packets	b. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
How do dynamic IP addresses get assigned in a network? a. DNS b. Ethernet c. NAT d. DHCP	d. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
What is DNS? a. Domain Name System b. Domain Naming Schema c. Device Name System d. Device Naming Schema	a. Domain Name System.
What is a load balancer? a. Distributes traffic to multiple servers b. Distributes load to different RAMs on your PC c. Backs up your Hard Disk d. None of the above	a. Distributes traffic to multiple servers.
A subnet is used to: a. Provide access to a network to multiple users b. Allow disaster recovery c. Change the way an IP looks to different users d. Divide a network into two or more networks	d. Divide a network into two or more networks.
What does a firewall do? a. Anti Virus b. Phishing Detector c. Allows/Deny access as add on rules d. Stops pop ups	c. Allows/Deny access as add on rules
When is DR used? a. To continue business processes on a normal day b. To continue business processes during a disaster c. To get IT systems to be fast d. None of the above	b. To continue business processes during a disaster. Disaster Recovery (DR)
How is BC different from DR? a. DR is during disaster, BC is during non􀀃disaster b. BC is during disaster, DR is during non􀀃disaster c. DR is not a type of HA ,BC is d. DR is always implemented, BC is not	a. DR is during disaster, BC is during non􀀃disaster
What does five nines mean? a. 99.5% uptime b. 99.9% uptime c. 99.999% uptime d. 9.9999% uptime	c. 99.999% uptime
VPN allows access through? a. ANAT b. A Firewall c. ADHCP d. ADNS	b. A Firewall.
10.224.20.180 is an example of: a. NAT b. DNS c. IPv6 d. IPv4	d. IPv4 Class A private IP address range (10.0.0.0
The combination of a(an)_______anda(an)_______is called a service object pair(SOP)class. a. AET, DICOM port number b. Calling AE, Called AE c. DIMSE,IOD d. Abstract Syntax, Transfer Syntax	c. DIMSE, IOD. Service-Object Pair (SOP) Class is defined as the union or combination of an Information Object Definition (IOD) and a DIMSE (DICOM Message Service Element)
In a DICOM Association Negotiation, which of the following are negotiated? a. Abstract Syntax,Transfer Syntax b. AET, DICOM port number c. Calling AE, Called AE d. DIMSE,IOD	a. Abstract Syntax, Transfer Syntax.
Implicit VR little endian is an example of a(an)___________? a. Abstract Syntax b. Application Entity Title c. SOP Instance UID d. Transfer Syntax	d. Transfer Syntax.
MQSA requires that imaging centers performing mammography be accredited__________? a. annually b. every 2 years c. every 3 years d. every 5 years	c. every 3 years
General orders are passed between various healthcare systems using which HL7 message type? a. ADT b. DFT c. ORM d. ORU	c. ORM.
Which of the following is not a valid DICOM Instance UID? a. Image Instance UID b. Series Instance UID c. SOP Instance UID d. Study Instance UID	Image Instance UID is not a standard DICOM term
Which of the following is an example of a DICOM abstract syntax? a. C_FIND b. Implicit VR Little Endian c. SOP Class UID d. US Image Storage	d. US Image Storage.
According to ACR AAPM SIIM, a display used for mammography should have a maximum luminance that is No less than: a. 171cd/m2 b. 350cd/m2 c. 420cd/m2 d. 510cd/m2	c. 420cd/m2.
The IHE___________________is designed to provide a reliable of way of specifying a level of adherence to Communications standards to achieve truly efficient interoperability. These standards could include DICOM And HL7 among others.	a. Initiative
FMEA is an acronym for: a. Fiasco Made Easy Actions b. Failure Mode Effective Analysis c. Future Modality Error Analytics d. Failure Mode Economics Application	b. Failure Mode Effective Analysis.
An effective PACS Image data migration includes migrating all pertinent data associated with the study including: a. DICOM Header Information b. Presentation State c. Annotations and Reports d. All the above	d. All the above.
Downtime procedures require planning and procedures for a. Network outages b. DICOM Modality worklist being offline c. Interruption of service from multiple systems d. All the above	d. All the above.
A SAN will allow multiple computers to attach to a single storage device a. True b. False	a. True
Image retention should be considered when calculating the PACS system_____________needs? a. Archive b. DICOM acquisition states c. Image viewing d. None of the above	a. Archive.
When adding new modalities, the impact on long term storage and estimate the effect on the SAN using? a. Image resolution b. The estimated number of images c. Is dependent on network bandwidth d. Number of images and resolution	d. Number of images and resolution.
Planning on Archive Storage, what is not part of the planning process? a. Budgetary process b. Planned growth c. Type of Network Interface Card d. Total vs. Usable disc space	c. Type of Network Interface Card.
When would Data Migration not be considered while in the planning and design phase of a new project? a. Growth b. Technology obsolescence c. Changing PACS vendor d. Upgrading network infrastructure	d. Upgrading network infrastructure.
A referring physician requests an image be sent to their cellphone, are there any considerations? Which Would be most appropriate? a. Violation of HIPPS b. Violation of IHE c. Not an issue,the doctor requested it d. Violation of HIPPA	d. Violation of HIPPA.
Virtual Machine functions in the following way? a. Uses DVD Technology b. The hardware is dedicated to a single host c. The virtual server is called a Guest d. Allows one operating system per Guest	c. The virtual server is called a Guest.
The following are ways to monitor servers a. Monitor Windows b. Network c. Services d. All the above	d. All the above.
Acceptable storage media for storing short and long term images for near real time retrieval would include The following except? a. SAN b. NAS c. Flash drive d. Linear Tape Open(LTO)	d. Linear Tape Open (LTO).
Routine backups of a PACS database are critical in maintaining____________? a. Security settings on a workstation b. Business continuity c. Study comparisons d. Sending images	b. Business continuity.
PACS, SR, and RIS make the____________less efficient. a. Institution b. Radiology Department c. Radiologist d. Radiology Technologist	c. Radiologist
The imaging modality measuring densities of tissues is: a. Ultrasound b. Positron Emission Tomography c. Magnetic Resonance Imaging d. Computed Tomography	d. Computed Tomography.
The approximate size of a single MRI image is: a. 0.5B b. 0.5KB c. 0.5MB d. 0.5GB	c. 0.5MB
The best qualities for an ideal imaging modality include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Portability b. Expensive c. Painless d. Anatomy and physiology evaluation	b. Expensive.
Which modality has the highest spatial resolution? a. Magnetic Resonance Imaging b. Computed Tomography c. Ultrasonography d. Computed Radiography	d. Computed Radiography.
Which modality uses the LEAST amount of radiation? a. Positron Emission Tomography b. Computed Tomography c. Ultrasonography d. Computed Radiography	c. Ultrasonography.
Which imaging modality is the most portable? a. Positron Emission Tomography b. Computed Tomography c. Ultrasonography d. Computed Radiography	c. Ultrasonography.
Which is NOT true of digital images compared to analog images? a. Less storage space is required b. More long term storage costs are required c. Faster retrieval times d. Less labor is required with transmission	b. More long term storage costs are required.
Which is NOT an advantage of the transition from analog data to digital data? a. Decreased film printing costs b. Increased technologists productivity c. Increased imaging report turn around time d. Decreased required fileroom personnel	c. Increased imaging report turn around time
Which of the following is NOT a bitmap type of image file format? a. Graphic Interchange Format(GIF) b. Tag(ged) Image File Format(TIFF) c. Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine(DICOM) d. Scalable Vector Graphic(SVG)	Scalable Vector Graphic (SVG) is a vector image format, not a bitmap
The RSNA Radiology Informatics Committee’s library of medical information is known as: a. CRIM b. RIMC Radiology Image Management Center c. MIRC Medical Imaging Resource Center d. IRMC Institute for Radiology and Medical Consulting	c. MIRC Medical Imaging Resource Center
Teaching file and Clinical trial Export is described in which IHE integration profile? a. XDS I b. TCE c. KIN d. SWF	b. TCE
All of the attributes listed below need to be protected to provide a minimal level of confidentiality from Identification except: a. Patient name (0010,0010) b. Patient ID (0010,0020) c. Accession Number(0008,0050) d. Study Date(0008,0020)	d. Study Date (0008,0020).
The radiation dose metric, DLP, on the CT Protocol page represents	d. A phantom dose for the CT imaging protocol performed.
The ACR Dose Index Registry uses a standardized list of study descriptions based on a. The RadLEX Playbook b. DICOM Part 3 IOD Definitions c. ACR Technical Standard (2014) d. IAC Recommendations	The RadLEX Playbook.
Bloom’s taxonomy is useful for a. Calculating the storage needs of images in a VNA b. Creating efficient and accurate workflow diagrams c. Reviewing medical environment safety requirements d. Describing the knowledge level required by a task	d. Describing the knowledge level required by a task.
A useful tool when instructing a kinesthetic learner may be a. Colorful slide shows and demonstrations b. Demonstrations by the learner c. Ability to take notes electronically d. One on one teaching interactions	b. Demonstrations by the learner.
A train the trainer method for instruction a. Requires a selection of super users b. Is the least demanding on staff c. Requires more vendor support after go-live d. All of the above	a. Requires a selection of super users.
Of the image types below, which would have the largest pixel dimensions. a. Magnetic Resonance b. Ultrasound c. Computed Tomography d. Breast Tomosynthesis	d. Breast Tomosynthesis
A dose measure that is utilized for CT Dose reporting is _____________. a. DLP b. RDSR c. Air Kerma d. BI-RADS	DLP (Dose Length Product)
Multimedia (images and measurements) reporting is important to all imaging, particularly: a. DEXA b. Ultrasound c. Ophthalmology d. All of the above	d. All of the above
The highest numbered MRI zone that can be entered without pre-screening or being a trained staff member is: a. Zone I b. Zone II c. Zone III d. Zone IV	b. Zone II
CT images are fused with PET images to provide __________________. a. HU values for measuring PET uptake b. Bone mineral density comparative values c. The dose of the injected radiopharmaceutical d. Anatomical localization of the PET signals	d. Anatomical localization of the PET signals
The split between average yearly background and medical ionizing radiation dose as reported in NCRP 160 is: a. 25% Background, 75% Medical b. 50% Background, 50% Medical c. 75% Background, 25% Medical d. 60% Background, 40% Medical	b. 50% Background, 50% Medical.
The difference between the CTDIvol dose measure and the SSDE dose measure is: a. SSDE is corrected for patient size b. SSDE is corrected for scan length c. CTDIvol is corrected for patient volume d. CTDIvol represents the real patient dose	a. SSDE is corrected for patient size
Quality Assurance encompasses a. The entire transaction cycle b. Outcomes c. The order process d. All the above	d. All the above.
Quality Improvement is: a. An on-going process b. Should be kept at the department level c. Requires little organizational-level involvement d. None of the above	a. An on-going process
Policies can be: a. Both Internal and External b. A Management Directive c. Bent to meet the needs of the patient d. A & B Only	d. A & B Only.
Where vendors are involved a BAA: a. Is a good idea b. Should be a policy c. Not needed as they are covered by service agreements d. Only needed when no PHI is involved	b. Should be a policy.
Quality Improvement models used in Healthcare include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Six Sigma b. FACE c. LEAN d. FMEA	b. FACE.
What QI instrument is most likely to be used in developing a RIS / PACS downtime workflow: a. Fishbone Diagram b. Pareto Chart c. Check Sheet d. Flowchart	d. Flowchart.
The HIPAA Privacy Rule requirements are classified into which three categories:	Administrative, Physical, and Technical
Which of the following is a common Medical Physicist display calibration performance check? a. Modality technique chart b. Phantom skin entrance exposure c. Regulated radiation dose parameter adherence d. Luminance uniformity	d. Luminance uniformity. TG18-UNL or TG18-UNL80, and a calibrated photometer.
Which is not one of the Process Groups of Project Management? a. Planning b. Execution c. Completion d. Assessment	d. Assessment
The Request for Proposal should include: a. A Mission Statement b. Growth Potential c. List of Modalities d. All of the above	d. All of the above.
A Gantt Chart is created in what stage of the project: a. Initiation b. Monitoring and Controlling c. Planning d. Executing	c. Planning.
Which is used to identify the many possible causes for an effect or problem: a. Scatter Diagram b. Fishbone Diagram c. RACI Diagram d. PERT	b. Fishbone Diagram.
The tool used to estimate the amount of time it takes to complete a project task: a. Run Chart b. PERT c. Workflow Analysis d. Gantt Chart	b. PERT uses a statistical formula based on three time estimates to calculate the Expected Time (E):
This process best defines the purpose of a Gap Analysis Model?	A process to determine the difference between the current practice and a desired standard.
Before choosing an image viewer you must ensure that the VNA will be compatible a. True b. False	a. True
It is a good idea to have your mirrored cluster nodes be geographically distant a. True b. False	a. True Geographically separating mirrored cluster nodes is generally considered a good, and often necessary, practice for high availability and disaster recovery, as it protects against localized disasters
What is the most widely used pattern used when performing DICOM monitor evaluations? a. Briggs Pattern b. CS Pattern c. TG18 Pattern d. SMTE Pattern	c. TG18 Pattern
All of the following are disaster recovery models except for: a. Geographically dispersed cluster nodes b. ASP model c. Cloud computing d. Relational model	d. Relational model is not a disaster recovery strategy; it's a method for managing and structuring data
The IHE reconciliation profile most concerned with reconciliating patient identification information when it is incomplete is? a. CPI b. SWF c. PIR d. ARI	c. PIR. The Patient Information Reconciliation (PIR)
The Information Object Definition (IOD) component of the DICOM standard can be found in what part of the standard? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four	Part 3 (officially designated as PS3.3)
ORU messages are typically used to convey? a. Results of orders b. Placement of orders c. Scheduling protocols d. Admission orders	a. Results of orders.
DICOM data elements are stored in DICOM IODS in order by? a. Module b. Information Entity c. Element number d. Group number	d. Group number.
What HL7 standard allows for single log-on for multiple applications? a. Clinical Document Architecture b. Clinical Context Object Workgroup c. Electronic Medical Record d. Clinical Decision Support	Clinical Context Object Workgroup (CCOW) is the HL7 standard specifically designed to allow a user to log on once to a workstation
Regarding optionality of IOD modules, what letter indicates a module is optional? a. M b. U c. O d. C	b. U. DICOM standard (NEMA), M = Mandatory U = User Option (Optional) C = Conditional Access
IHE was started initially by? a. RSNA b. SIIM c. ACR d. NEMA	joint initiative by the Radiological Society of North America (RSNA) and the Healthcare Information and Management Systems Society (HIMSS) in 1998.
The IHE CDI integration profile defines how systems adhere to what part of the DICOM standard? a. 11 b. 12 c. 13 d. 14	b. 12. DICOM Part 12: Storage Functions and Media Formats for Data Interchange (used for PDI/CDI). 13: Defines Print Management Service Classes. 14: Defines Grayscale Standard Display Function.

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