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Skills 2 final
Skills 2 final review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which of the following can cause a pressure area? A cast that is too thick A wet cast A cast that rubs against the skin Resting a dry cast against a hard surface | A cast that rubs against the skin |
| Which of the following is an advantage of forearm crutches? The patient can use his or her hands. They make it easier to move around in a crowd. They are inexpensive. They fold up when not in use. | The patient can use his or her hands. |
| Redness of skin caused by dilation of superficial blood vessels in the skin is known as Hypoxia. Erythema. Suppuration. Inflammation. | Erythema. |
| The purpose of stockinette is to Prevent pressure areas. Provide patient comfort. Reduce edema. Facilitate healing. All of these. | Provide patient comfort. |
| Local application of cold results in Dilation of blood vessels in the area. Increased blood supply to the area. Increased tissue metabolism. Constriction of blood vessels in the area. | Constriction of blood vessels in the area. |
| When explaining the use of a heating pad, the medical assistant should instruct a patient to Lie on the pad. Use pins to secure the pad in place. Adjust the pad to a higher setting if it no longer feels warm. Place a protective covering over the pad. | Place a protective covering over the pad. |
| If axillary crutches have been properly fitted | Two fingers can be inserted between the top of the crutch and the axilla. |
| Crutches that are too long may cause Carpal tunnel syndrome. Sciatic nerve damage. Crutch palsy. Tendinitis. | Crutch palsy. |
| The time that is usually recommended for the application of heat or cold is 10–15 minutes. 15–30 minutes. 30–45 minutes. 1 hour. | 15–30 minutes. |
| Walkers are used primarily by Pediatric patients. Prenatal patients Geriatric patients. Psychiatric patients. | Geriatric patients. |
| Which of the following gaits is the slowest and most stable crutch gait? Two-point Four-point Three-point Swing-through | Four-point |
| What is the name of the crutch stance that is used before crutch walking? Two-point position Quad position Four-point position Tripod position | Tripod position |
| The most frequent reason for applying a cast is to Support and stabilize a dislocated joint. Align a fracture until proper healing occurs. Promote healing after a surgical correction. Aid in the nonsurgical correction of a deformity. | Align a fracture until proper healing occurs. |
| Heat is often prescribed by the physician for Black eyes. Osteoporosis. Fractures. Arthritis. All of these. | Arthritis. |
| Which of the following is not a function of the local application of cold? To prevent swelling To control bleeding To relieve pain and inflammation To relieve muscle spasms | To relieve muscle spasms |
| Extra layers of cast padding should be applied over bony prominences to Prevent pressure areas. Prevent itching. Reduce edema. Facilitate healing. All of these. | Prevent pressure areas. |
| All of the following help prevent low back pain except: Sitting in a chair with a firm back Maintaining correct posture Maintaining a healthy body weight Bending from the waist when lifting an object | Bending from the waist when lifting an object |
| Which of the following can be used to support and immobilize a fractured wrist? Splint Brace Ace bandage Sling | Splint |
| Forearm crutches are often used by patients with Cerebral palsy. A fracture of a lower extremity. An amputated leg. Paralysis on one side of the body. | Cerebral palsy. |
| Which of the following should not be relayed to the patient regarding crutch use? | Look down at your feet when walking. |
| Which of the following individuals would have a more than usual sensitivity to the local application of heat? Elderly individual Preschool child Patient with diabetes mellitus Patient with an open wound All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following factors is taken into consideration before an ambulatory assistive device is prescribed? The age of the patient The patient’s muscular coordination The type of disability The amount of support required All of these | All of these |
| An ice bag should be filled with small pieces of ice to Prevent the application from becoming too cold. Allow the bag to mold better to a body area. Prevent adverse secondary effects. Avoid irritation to the patient’s skin. | Allow the bag to mold better to a body area. |
| All of the following should be relayed to the patient regarding cast care except: | Apply a heating pad to the cast to relieve pain. |
| All of the following indicates that a cast is too tight or that an infection is developing except: Itching under the cast Chills or fever Foul odor or drainage coming from the cast Numbness or tingling of the fingers or toes | Itching under the cast |
| The best way to dry a wet cast is to use a Fan set on high. Heating pad on a medium setting. Sun lamp. Hair dryer on a cool or lowest heat setting. | Hair dryer on a cool or lowest heat setting. |
| Excessive heat or cold can result in Tissue damage. Infection. Pressure ulcers. Dermatitis. | Tissue damage. |
| Chemical cold packs should be stored At body temperature. At room temperature. In the refrigerator. In an airtight container. | At room temperature. |
| Synthetic casts are usually made of Plaster. Cotton. Fiberglass. Titanium. | Fiberglass. |
| A cane should be adjusted so that it is Level with the greater trochanter. At a 30-degree angle to the body. Level with the waist. Comfortable for the patient. | Level with the greater trochanter. |
| An ice bag is an example of Dry heat. Moist heat. Dry cold. Moist cold. | Dry cold. |
| After removing a cast, it is normal for the extremity to appear Thin with flabby muscles. Red and swollen. Slightly deformed. Shorter than the other extremity. | Thin with flabby muscles. |
| What might occur if a gel pack is overheated in a microwave? The heat may not be distributed evenly in the pack. It may cause a reverse secondary effect. It may swell and burst. It will not mold properly to the patient’s skin. | It may swell and burst. |
| The local application of cold may be used to Soften exudates. Relieve muscle spasms. Prevent swelling. Increase suppuration. All of these. | Prevent swelling. |
| The three-point gait is used for which of the following conditions? Leg fracture Muscular dystrophy Multiple sclerosis Paraplegia | Leg fracture |
| Before applying a cast, the area should be inspected for Redness. Bruises. Open areas. All of these. | All of these. |
| Canes are used most frequently for individuals with An amputated lower extremity. Weakness on one side of the body. Poor muscular coordination. Paralysis of the lower extremities. | Weakness on one side of the body. |
| After immersing a patient’s foot in a hot soak, the medical assistant should Ask the patient how the temperature feels. Increase the temperature of the water. Add crushed ice. Instruct the patient to wiggle his or her toes. | Ask the patient how the temperature feels. |
| All of the following are symptoms of a pressure area except: Painful rubbing Burning Fever Stinging sensation | Fever |
| If a pressure area is not corrected, it may eventually result in Infection. Paralysis. Numbness. Crutch palsy. | Infection. |
| Local application of heat results in Dilation of blood vessels in the area. Decreased blood supply to the area. Decreased tissue metabolism. Constriction of blood vessels in the area. | Dilation of blood vessels in the area. |
| A short leg walker can be used to assist in the healing of Torn ligaments in the knee. A stress fracture of the tibia. A fracture of the femur. Bursitis. All of these. | A stress fracture of the tibia. |
| A cane should be held On the strong side of the body. In front of the body. On the weak side of the body. With the elbow flexed at a 45-degree angle. | On the strong side of the body. |
| How long does it usually take for a fracture to heal? 2 to 4 weeks 4 to 6 weeks 10 to 12 weeks 6 months | 4 to 6 weeks |
| Name the medical physician who specializes in diagnose and treatment using radiation and other imaging techniques. | Radiologist |
| Name 3 characteristics of x-rays. | a. High-energy electromagnetic waves b. Invisible c. Short wavelength |
| Name 2 ways x-rays can be taken. | a. Conventional film method-film in a cassette b. Digitally with the use of a computer |
| Explain 3 precautions of x-ray safety . | a. Use radiation exposures only when necessary and justified. b. Keep maximum distance from the source of radiation. c. Reduce exposure time to the minimum required. |
| Describe the role of the medical assistant in radiology procedures. | a. Providing the patient with preparation instructions. b. Making sure the patient understands instructions. c. Scheduling patients for x-ray procedures. |
| Name the 3 most common views of patient positioning for radiology for a 3- dimensional picture. | a. Posteroanterior (PA) b. Lateral c. Oblique |
| Name the position where the x-ray is shot from back to front. | Posteroanterior (PA) |
| What is the purpose of a mammogram? | Detect breast disease such as benign breast masses, breast calcification, fibrocystic breast disease, & breast cancer. Monitor effects of surgery & radiation treatment on breast tumors. Can be used to detect a breast tumor when growth is less than 1 cm |
| A mammogram uses a high dose of x-rays True or False | False |
| Name two types of patient prep for a mammogram | a. Don't wear lotions, powders, or deodorants b. Wear a two-piece outfit |
| All of the following are used to identify a pathogen except: Sensitivity testing Microbial culture Biochemical tests DNA testing | Sensitivity testing |
| The purpose of incubating a culture is to Allow the pathogen to grow and multiply. Prevent overgrowth of the specimen with extraneous microorganisms. Produce a pure culture. Kill any pathogens present. | Allow the pathogen to grow and multiply. |
| A specimen taken for microbiologic examination must not become contaminated with extraneous microorganisms, because the extraneous microorganisms may | Prevent visualization and identification of a pathogen. |
| Why is a nasopharyngeal swab specimen preferred for an influenza test? | The influenza virus is most likely to be found in the nasopharynx. |
| What is the advantage of using a flocked swab to collect a nasopharyngeal specimen? | Allows for the removal of a greater number of epithelial cells from the nasopharynx |
| Following administration, how long does it take for the influenza vaccine to become effective? 3 days 1 week 2 weeks 4 to 6 weeks | 2 weeks |
| Which of the following is a poststreptococcal infection of streptococcal sore throat? Mononucleosis Rheumatic fever Pertussis Viral pneumonia | Rheumatic fever |
| Syphilis is caused by a Spirochete. Bacillus. Streptococcus. Diplococcus. | Spirochete. |
| Which of the following increases an individual’s risk of developing a serious complication from influenza? Chronic medical conditions Children under 5 years of age Pregnancy Being age 65 or older All of these | All of these |
| Influenza antiviral medications are recommended for which of the following? | Individuals who have an increased risk of developing influenza complications |
| To be most effective, when should influenza antiviral medication be started? | Within the first 48 hours of developing symptoms |
| What is the most common means of spreading influenza? Indirect contact with an infected individual Sexual intercourse Mosquito bites Droplet infection | Droplet infection |
| Which of the following microscopes has adjustment knobs that allow movement of the slide in a vertical or horizontal position? Monocular microscope Compound microscope Mechanical stage microscope Binocular microscope | Mechanical stage microscope |
| Which of the following is responsible for most annual influenza outbreaks? Influenza Type A Influenza Type B Influenza Type C Influenza Type D | Influenza Type A |
| All of the following are complications of influenza except: Viral pneumonia Acute glomerulonephritis Bronchitis Otitis media | Acute glomerulonephritis |
| What is a culture? | A mass of microorganisms growing in a laboratory culture medium |
| A mixed culture is a culture that Contains only one type of microorganism. Contains two or more types of microorganisms. Contains blood agar. Has become contaminated with extraneous microorganisms. | Contains two or more types of microorganisms. |
| If the pathogen is sensitive to an antibiotic, what is observed when using the disc diffusion method of sensitivity testing? | A clear zone without bacterial growth around the disc |
| The invasion of the body by a pathogenic microorganism is known as Inflammation. Infection. Disease. Susceptibility. | Infection. |
| The purpose of sensitivity testing is to Identify the type of pathogen present. Produce a pure culture. Determine the best antibiotic to use to treat a condition. Determine the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy. | Determine the best antibiotic to use to treat a condition. |
| The transfer of pathogens on a fine spray of moisture droplets is known as Droplet infection. Susceptibility. Indirect transfer. Inoculation. | Droplet infection. |
| What is strep throat? A viral infection of the back of the throat A bacterial infection of the nasal mucosa A yeast infection in the upper respiratory tract A bacterial infection of the back of the throat and tonsils | A bacterial infection of the back of the throat and tonsils |
| Which of the following is an advantage of using a RADT to diagnose strep throat? | It provides results in a short period of time. |
| What is the incubation period range for influenza? 12 to 24 hours 1 to 4 days 7 to 10 days 2 to 4 weeks | 1 to 4 days |
| Which of the following requires the use of the oil immersion objective? For initial focusing of a specimen WBC differential count (manual method) Examination of a vaginal discharge Examination of urine sediment | WBC differential count (manual method) |
| Harmless microorganisms that normally reside in the body but do not cause disease are known as Transient flora. Normal flora. Extraneous microorganisms. Staphylococci. | Normal flora. |
| What name is given to the interval of time between the invasion by a pathogen and the appearance of the first symptoms of the disease? Prodromal period Infectious period Inoculation Incubation period | Incubation period |
| A throat specimen should be collected from the Tonsillar area and posterior pharynx. Posterior pharynx and tongue. Nasal septum. Hard palate. | Tonsillar area and posterior pharynx. |
| Which of the following represents a violation of technique when collecting a throat specimen? | Touching the inside of the mouth with the swab |
| The period of time in which the first symptoms indicating an approaching disease occur is known as the Convalescent period. Acute period. Prodromal period. Symptomatic. | Prodromal period. |
| A microbiologic specimen may be obtained from the Throat. Nose. Wounds. Vagina. All of these. | All of these. |
| Which of the following is not a guideline for the proper care of a microscope? | Clean the lenses of the microscope with gauze or tissues |
| Which of the following parts of a microscope is used for precise focusing? Diaphragm Coarse adjustment Substage condenser Fine adjustment | Fine adjustment |
| All of the following are symptoms of strep throat except: Severe sore throat Nausea and vomiting White patches on the throat and tonsils Fever of 101° F or higher | Nausea and vomiting |
| All of the following are benefits of receiving the influenza vaccine except: It can prevent influenza. It can reduce the severity of symptoms. It can decrease the risk of complications It remains effective for 5 years | It remains effective for 5 years |
| Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus? Chickenpox Tetanus Mumps Rubella | Tetanus |
| All of the following are characteristics of influenza antiviral medication except: | Serves as a substitute for the influenza vaccine |
| How is influenza most commonly diagnosed? Rapid influenza diagnostic test Culture and sensitivity Clinical signs and symptoms Complete blood count | Clinical signs and symptoms |
| All of the following are natural defense mechanisms of the body except: Phagocytosis by white blood cells Inflammation Antibiotics Antibodies | Antibiotics |
| Strep throat most commonly affects individuals of which of the following age groups? 1 to 5 years old 5 to 15 years old 18 to 25 years old 65 years and older | 5 to 15 years old |
| Which of the following conditions is not caused by streptococci? Scarlet fever Streptococcal sore throat Rheumatic fever Tuberculosis | Tuberculosis |
| Staphylococcal infections usually result in which of the following? Gangrene Petechiae Pus formation Maculopapular vesicles | Pus formation |
| Conditions caused by Staphylococcus aureus include Boils. Wound infections. Pimples. Abscesses. All of these. | All of these. |
| Escherichia coli normally reside in the Vagina. Urinary tract. Large intestine. Stomach. | Large intestine. |
| A disease that can be spread from one person to another is known as An infectious disease. A contagious disease. An acute disease. Droplet infection. | A contagious disease. |
| Which of the following is a symptom of influenza? Sudden onset Fever and chills Muscle aches and joint pain Nasal congestion All of these | All of these |
| The purpose of using transport media is to | Preserve a specimen in its original state until it reaches its destination. |
| Which of the following helps to prevent the transmission of influenza? Frequent handwashing Avoiding close contact with infected individuals Sneezing into the crook of the elbow Staying home for 24 hours after the fever has subsided All of these | All of these |
| The high-power objective has a magnification of 10x 40x 60x 100x | 40x |
| What name is given to round bacteria growing in pairs? Bacilli Diplococci Staphylococci Streptococci | Diplococci |
| What term is used to describe the scientific study of microorganisms and their activities? Parasitology Histology Microbiology Pathology | Microbiology |
| Which of the following could result in the medical assistant becoming infected with a pathogen? Eating while testing a microbiologic specimen Applying cosmetics Having an open sore on the hand Drinking coffee in the office laboratory All of these | All of these |
| What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia? A lack of iron in the diet A lack of vitamin B12 in the body Kidney disease Bone cancer | A lack of iron in the diet |
| What is the term for the engulfing and destruction of foreign particles by certain cells in the body? Anisocytosis Infection Phagocytosis Hemolysis | Phagocytosis |
| What is the normal range for an RBC count for a woman (in cells per cubic millimeter of blood)? 3 to 4 million 4 to 5.5 million 4.5 to 6.2 million 5 to 6 million | 4 to 5.5 million |
| Which of the following RBC indices measures the average size of a single red blood cell? MCV MCH MCHC RDW | MCV |
| Pus consists of all of the following except: Dead leukocytes Erythrocytes Dead bacteria Dead tissue cells | Erythrocytes |
| Which of the following RBC indices measures the average concentration of hemoglobin within a red blood cell? MCV MCH MCHC RDW | MCHC |
| An immature form of a neutrophil is known as a Plasma cell. Mast cell. Band. Seg. | Band. |
| Mr. Mendelssohn has a platelet count of 130,000. This is considered to be Below the reference range. Within the reference range. Above the reference range. Invalid. | Below the reference range. |
| The process of blood cell formation is known as Hematopoiesis. Anisocytosis. Diapedesis. Hematocytosis. | Hematopoiesis. |
| An abnormal increase in the number of leukocytes is known as Lymphocytosis. Leukopenia. Leukocytosis. Polycythemia. | Leukocytosis. |
| Which of the following white blood cells has granules in the cytoplasm that stain bright red? Neutrophil Basophil Lymphocyte Monocyte Eosinophil | Eosinophil |
| How many pints of blood does the average adult contain? 4 to 6 pints 8 to 10 pints 10 to 12 pints 15 to 20 pints | 10 to 12 pints |
| What is the normal range for a platelet count for an adult (in platelets per cubic millimeter of blood)? 5000 to 10,000 12 to 16 180,000 to 300,000 150,000 to 400,000 | 150,000 to 400,000 |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of a mature erythrocyte? It has a convex shape. The nucleus is multilobed. It has granules in the cytoplasm. It does not contain a nucleus. | It does not contain a nucleus. |
| Which of the following individuals are at risk for iron-deficiency anemia? Children younger than 2 years of age Adolescent girls Pregnant women All of these | All of these |
| All of the following may warrant the ordering of a platelet count on a patient except: Unexplained bruising Prolonged bleeding Persistent headaches Nosebleeds | Persistent headaches |
| The buffy coat consists of Red blood cells and platelets. White blood cells. Plasma. White blood cells and platelets. | White blood cells and platelets. |
| An increase in neutrophils occurs during An acute infection. Polycythemia. Bone marrow damage. A chronic infection. | An acute infection. |
| The results of a WBC differential count indicate there is 1 basophil. This is considered to be Below the reference range. Within the reference range. Above the reference range. Invalid. | Within the reference range. |
| Leukocytes do their work in the Circulatory system. Tissues. Lymphatic system. Central nervous system. | Tissues. |
| Which of the following is not a granular leukocyte? Neutrophil Eosinophil Basophil Monocyte | Monocyte |
| The term hematocrit means To separate blood. The breakdown of blood. A decrease in blood cells. An increase in blood cells. | To separate blood. |
| Which of the following results in leukocytosis? Appendicitis Chickenpox Appendicitis Rheumatic fever. All of these | All of these |
| Mr. Gabe has a PT test result of 16 seconds. This is considered to be Below the reference range. Within the reference range. Above the reference range. Invalid. | Above the reference range. |
| The results of a WBC differential count indicate that there are 35 neutrophils. This is considered to be Below the reference range. Within the reference range. Above the reference range. Invalid. | Below the reference range. |
| The function of hemoglobin is to Defend the body against infection. Transport oxygen to the tissues. Assist in blood clotting. Transport electrolytes in the body. | Transport oxygen to the tissues. |
| Which of the following can result in a normal elevation of the WBC count? Pregnancy Strenuous exercise Stress Treatment with corticosteroids All of these | All of these |
| An increase in lymphocytes usually occurs with An asthma attack. Iron-deficiency anemia. An invasion by parasites. Infectious mononucleosis. | Infectious mononucleosis. |
| The nucleus of a neutrophil generally contains 2 to 5 lobes. 6 to 8 lobes. Large granules. No lobes. | 2 to 5 lobes. |
| Which of the following tests is not included in a CBC? WBC differential count Hemoglobin Hematocrit Prothrombin time Red and white blood cell counts | Prothrombin time |
| Which of the following has a U-shaped nucleus with large blue granules in the cytoplasm? Neutrophil Basophil Lymphocyte Monocyte Eosinophil | Basophil |
| How often should a patient on warfarin therapy have a PT/INR test performed? Once each week Every 2 to 4 weeks Every 2 months Every 6 months | Every 2 to 4 weeks |
| Warfarin is not prescribed for which of the following conditions? Atrial fibrillation Hemophilia Heart valve replacement with a mechanical valve Thrombophlebitis | Hemophilia |
| Which of the following is a function of neutrophils? To engulf and destroy invaders through phagocytosis To act as a scavenger to clean up debris To produce antibodies To secrete heparin | To engulf and destroy invaders through phagocytosis |
| The movement of leukocytes through the pores of the capillaries is known as Leukocytosis. Phagocytosis. Flagellation. Diapedesis. | Diapedesis. |
| Mr. Peterson has a hemoglobin reading of 16. This is considered to be Below the reference range. Within the reference range. Above the reference range. An invalid result. | Within the reference range. |
| What is the function of macrophages? To make capillaries more permeable To secrete lysosome To clean up the infection site To dilate capillaries at the infection site | To clean up the infection site |
| What is the PT/INR result of a healthy individual with a normal clotting ability? 10 to 20 seconds 0.8 to 1.2 1 to 2 2.5 to 3.5 | 0.8 to 1.2 |
| Which of the following may occur if the PT/INR blood tube is not filled to the exhaustion of the vacuum? Hemolysis of the blood specimen Clotting of the blood specimen Inaccurate test results Contamination of the blood specimen | Inaccurate test results |
| An increase in eosinophils often occurs with Acute and chronic infection. Congestive heart failure. Allergic reactions and parasitic infections. Viral infections. | Allergic reactions and parasitic infections. |
| All of the following are symptoms of inflammation except: Pain Rash Redness Swelling | Rash |
| When using a microhematocrit centrifuge, the hematocrit test results should be read at the Top of the red cell column. Bottom of the red cell column. Top of the buffy coat. Top of the plasma column. | Top of the red cell column. |
| A decrease in the number of erythrocytes or the amount of hemoglobin is known as Polycythemia. Anemia. Hyperchromia. Leukopenia. | Anemia. |
| What percentage of the blood volume is made up of plasma? 45% 55% 75% 100% | 55% |
| Mr. Johnson has a hematocrit reading of 60. This is considered to be Below the reference range. Within the reference range. Above the reference range. Invalid. | Above the reference range. |
| Mrs. Nelson has a WBC count of 14,500. This is considered to be Within the reference range. Above the reference range. Below the reference range. An inaccurate test result. | Above the reference range. |
| What is the function of warfarin? To inhibit the formation of blood clots To prevent atrial fibrillation To encourage blood clotting To speed up production of red blood cells | To inhibit the formation of blood clots |
| What is the purpose of performing an INR on PT test results? To ensure accurate test results To detect the presence of anemia To allow results from different laboratories to be compared To detect the presence of an abnormal clotting disorder | To allow results from different laboratories to be compared |
| What is the average life span of a red blood cell? 1 week. 30 days. 120 days. 6 months. | 120 days. |
| A low hemoglobin reading may occur with all of the following except: Anemia Polycythemia Leukemia Severe hemorrhaging | Polycythemia |
| Which of the following is not a function of plasma? To transport oxygen to the tissues To transport nutrients to the tissues To pick up wastes from the tissues To transport antibodies, enzymes, and hormones in the body | To transport oxygen to the tissues |
| In an adult, red blood cells are formed in the red bone marrow of the Ribs. Sternum. Skull. Ends of the long bones of the limbs. All of these | All of these |
| The study of blood is known as Serology. Hematology. Blood chemistry. Blood banking. | Hematology. |
| Which of the following is the largest white blood cell? Neutrophil Basophil Lymphocyte Monocyte Eosinophil | Monocyte |
| The purpose of quality control is to: Prevent accidents in the laboratory. Protect healthcare workers from bloodborne pathogens. Ensure reliable and valid test results. Ensure that the test results fall within the reference range. All of these. | Ensure reliable and valid test results. |
| All of the following may result in elevated blood triglycerides levels except: Obesity Malnutrition Type 2 diabetes Being physically inactive | Malnutrition |
| Which of the following is a screening test for syphilis? C-reactive protein VDRL ELISA ASO | VDRL |
| Which of the following is not a symptom of hypoglycemia? Sweating Bradycardia Irritability Slurring of words | Bradycardia |
| Infectious mononucleosis is transmitted through Coughing and sneezing. Contaminated food. Sexual intercourse. Saliva by direct oral contact. All of these. | Saliva by direct oral contact. |
| Which of the following tests is used to detect a blood incompatibility problem with a mother and her unborn child? Rheumatoid factor C-reactive protein Rh antibody titer Rubella titer | Rh antibody titer |
| What type of specimen is required for most blood chemistry tests? Plasma Serum Whole blood Clotted blood | Serum |
| In vivo means in Glass. The living body. A test tube. The circulatory system. | The living body. |
| How long does it usually take for HIV antibodies to form in the blood following infection with HIV? 24 hours 7 to 10 days 2 to 12 weeks 6 to 12 months | 2 to 12 weeks |
| What blood antigens are present if an individual has type O-positive blood? A, B, Rh A and B Rh None | Rh |
| Which of the following may cause a control to fail to produce expected results? Expired test components Error in technique used to perform the procedure Improper storage of test components Improper environmental testing conditions All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of a 2-hour postprandial glucose test? | A blood specimen is collected 2 hours after the patient consumes 100 grams of a glucose solution. |
| Which of the following is not an example of a blood chemistry test? Total bilirubin test Glucose test Hepatitis test Cholesterol test | Hepatitis test |
| All of the following restrictions must be followed by the patient during an OGTT except: No food consumption No water consumption Minimize activity No smoking | No water consumption |
| What blood antibodies are present if an individual has type AB-negative blood? A, B None A, B, Rh Rh | None |
| What should be done if a control does not perform as expected? Do not perform patient testing until the problem is resolved. Perform patient testing as usual. Perform the calibration procedure. Record results as invalid. | Do not perform patient testing until the problem is resolved. |
| Which of the following test results is considered a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? LDL cholesterol: 90 mg/dL HDL cholesterol: 25 mg/dL Triglycerides: 140 mg/dL Total cholesterol: 180 mg/dL | HDL cholesterol: 25 mg/dL |
| Before meals, it is recommended that the blood glucose level for a diabetic patient fall between 60 to 80 mg/dL. 80 to 130 mg/dL. 100 to 140 mg/dL. 100 to 180 mg/dL. | 80 to 130 mg/dL. |
| Why is agglutination of blood a threat to life? It leads to hemorrhaging It can lead to severe anemia It leads to hemolysis of red blood cells It causes circulatory collapse to occur | It leads to hemolysis of red blood cells |
| Which of the following does not contain cholesterol? Black beans Whole milk Liver Egg yolk | Black beans |
| What type of patient preparation is required for a random blood glucose test? Fasting for 8 to 12 hours None Consuming 100 grams of a glucose solution Administration of an insulin injection 2 hours before the test | None |
| The recommended A1c level for an individual with diabetes is 4% to 6%. Less than 6%. Less than 7%. Greater than 8%. | Less than 7%. |
| Cholesterol is transported in the blood as a complex molecule known as a Trans fat. Triglyceride. Lipid. Lipoprotein. | Lipoprotein. |
| Which of the following is a description of blood chemistry testing? | The quantitative measurement of chemical substances dissolved in the plasma of the blood |
| What results are produced by a high-level control? Results that fall below the reference range for the test Invalid results Results that fall above the reference range for the test Results that fall within the reference range for the test | Results that fall above the reference range for the test |
| The BUN test is used to Detect kidney disease. Assess liver functioning. Detect anemia. Assess thyroid functioning. | Detect kidney disease. |
| What is an advantage of SMBG? | To delay or prevent long-term complications of diabetes To prevent hypoglycemia To test blood glucose when a side effect common to diabetes occurs To make decisions regarding insulin dosage, meal planning, and physical activity |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of cholesterol? White, waxy substance Component of all cell membranes Used in the production of hormones Used in the production of bile All of these | All of these |
| What term is used to describe an abnormally low level of glucose in the blood? Anemia Glycosuria Hypoglycemia Acidosis | Hypoglycemia |
| All of the following are included in a lipid panel except: Total cholesterol Lipids HDL cholesterol LDL cholesterol | Lipids |
| Why should insulin-dependent diabetic patients monitor their blood glucose levels each day? To make dietary adjustments To maintain normal blood glucose levels To avoid hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia To make insulin adjustments All of these | All of these |
| What is the name of the device that measures a patient’s blood glucose levels continuously throughout the day? EEG Ambulatory ECG monitor CMD Insulin pump | CMD |
| Where are blood antibodies located? In the plasma On the surface of white blood cells In the cytoplasm of red blood cells In the lymph system | In the plasma |
| What is the term for an abnormally high level of glucose in the blood? Hypoglycemia Insulin resistance Hyperglycemia Diabetes mellitus | Hyperglycemia |
| Which of the following is a serious side effect of an OGTT? Headache Irrational speech Fainting Profuse perspiration All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following is not a symptom of infectious mononucleosis? Severe fatigue Polyuria Fever Sore throat Swollen lymph nodes | Polyuria |
| A condition in which glucose levels are higher than normal, but not high enough to be classified as diabetes is known as Prediabetes. Hyperglycemia. Ketosis. Insulin shock. | Prediabetes. |
| What is the term for a substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test? Standard Analyte Calibration Control | Analyte |
| Most of the cholesterol circulating in the blood comes from Dietary cholesterol intake. Being manufactured by the liver. Monounsaturated fat. Trans fat. | Being manufactured by the liver. |
| What hormone is required for the normal utilization of glucose in the body? Insulin Melatonin Estrogen Thyroid-stimulating hormone | Insulin |
| What is the advantage of using a glucose meter with no-code technology? | The calibration procedure does not need to be performed. |
| According to the American Diabetes Association, what is the normal range for a fasting blood glucose test result (in mg/dL)? 20–80 70–99 100–125 140–160 | 70–99 |
| When does the control procedure not need to be performed on a blood chemistry analyzer? | Before performing each patient test on an analyzer |
| Which of the following is an example of an antigen? Viruses Bacterial toxins Allergens Bacteria All of these | All of these |
| What is the name of the pathogen that causes infectious mononucleosis? Epstein-Barr virus Varicella virus Treponema pallidum bacteria Group A streptococcus bacteria | Epstein-Barr virus |
| What is the term for glucose that is stored in muscle and liver tissue for later use? Glucagon Carbohydrate Glycogen Amino acids | Glycogen |
| What is the term for a substance that is capable of combining with an antigen? Antibody Antitoxin Vaccine Antigen | Antibody |
| A comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP) provides information on which of the following? Kidneys Liver Blood glucose level Acid-base balance. All of these | All of these |
| The primary function of glucose in the body is to Maintain healthy epithelial tissue. Provide energy for the body. Prevent fatigue and weakness. Provide for fat storage in the body. | Provide energy for the body. |
| Which of the following instructions should be relayed to the patient regarding a fasting blood glucose test? | Do not consume food or fluid (except water) for 8 to 12 hours before the test. |
| Where are blood antigens (A, B, Rh) located? In the plasma On the surface of white blood cells On the surface of red blood cells In the hemoglobin molecule | On the surface of red blood cells |
| The hemoglobin A1c test measures the | Average amount of glucose in the blood over a 3-month period. |
| Prolonged high blood glucose levels can cause all of the following conditions except: Blindness Deafness Kidney damage Poor circulation | Deafness |
| What blood antibodies are present if an individual has type B-negative blood? B A A, Rh Rh | A |
| A total cholesterol test result of 250 mg/dL is considered Very high. Borderline high. High. Optimal. | High. |
| The function of LDL cholesterol is to Pick up cholesterol and carry it to the walls of arteries. Transport fat-soluble vitamins in the blood. Remove excess cholesterol from the walls of arteries. Protect against coronary artery disease | Pick up cholesterol and carry it to the walls of arteries. |
| The use of a standard to detect errors caused by laboratory equipment that is not working properly is known as Proficiency testing. Calibration. Standardization. Quality analysis. | Calibration. |
| Which of the following is not a function of an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)? To assist in the diagnosis of prediabetes To assist in the diagnosis of hypoglycemia To assist in the diagnosis of diabetes To monitor insulin dosage | To monitor insulin dosage |
| The buildup of fibrous plaques of fatty deposits and cholesterol on the walls of the arteries is known as Congestive heart failure. Atherosclerosis. Pericarditis. Thrombophlebitis. | Atherosclerosis. |
| Which of the following represents an error in technique when selecting a vein for venipuncture? Examining the antecubital veins of both arms Using the thumb to palpate the vein Determining the size and depth of the vein Tracing the path of the vein | Using the thumb to palpate the vein |
| An individual who collects blood specimens is known as a(n) Vampire. Venipuncturist. Optometrist. Phlebotomist. | Phlebotomist. |
| What may occur if an outdated evacuated tube is used to collect the blood specimen? The specimen may become hemolyzed. The tube may crack. The tube may no longer have a vacuum. The test results may be inaccurate. | The tube may no longer have a vacuum. |
| Which of the following represents an error in technique when working with evacuated tubes? | Pushing the posterior needle through the tube closure before puncturing the vein |
| What color closure tube is used to collect a blood specimen for a complete blood cell count (CBC)? Red Lavender Gray Green Light blue | Lavender |
| Whole blood is obtained by Using a tube containing an anticoagulant. Centrifuging a clotted blood specimen. Using a red-closure tube. Using a tube that does not contain an anticoagulant. | Using a tube containing an anticoagulant. |
| How is blade gauge determined for a finger puncture? By which finger is being punctured By the size of the patient’s finger By the length of time needed to run the test on the specimen By the amount of blood specimen required for the test | By the amount of blood specimen required for the test |
| When collecting a venous blood specimen to be transported to an outside laboratory for testing, which of the following should be consulted for information on collecting and handling requirements? | Laboratory test directory |
| Which of the following should not be used as a venipuncture site? Scarred skin Bruised skin An area that is painful to the patient Burned skin All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following antecubital veins is considered the best vein to use for a venipuncture? Basilic vein Cephalic vein Brachial vein Median cubital vein | Median cubital vein |
| When performing a venipuncture, which of the following techniques represents a violation of the OSHA standard? | Removing the tube holder from the needle for reuse |
| All of the following are correct techniques for applying a tourniquet except: | Leaving the tourniquet on for at least 2 minutes before drawing the specimen |
| What may occur if an angle of less than 15 degrees is used to perform the venipuncture? | The needle may enter the skin above the vein and not puncture it. |
| Why should the veins of the hands be used as a venipuncture site only as a last resort? | They have a tendency to roll. They are more difficult to stick. The procedure is more uncomfortable for the patient. The hand veins are more susceptible to collapsing. |
| Hemolysis of a blood specimen results in Collection of an insufficient quantity of blood. Inaccurate test results. A contaminated specimen. Exposure of the medical assistant to bloodborne pathogens. | Inaccurate test results. |
| Phlebotomy includes which of the following? Skin punctures Arterial punctures Venipunctures All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following results in patient discomfort during the venipuncture procedure? | Moving the needle after it has been inserted into the vein |
| The size of the evacuated collection tube you choose to obtain a venous blood specimen depends on the Size of the patient’s veins. Patient’s clinical diagnosis. Color of the evacuated tube closure. Amount of specimen required for the test | Amount of specimen required for the test. |
| On standing, a blood specimen to which an anticoagulant has not been added separates into Plasma and blood cells. Serum and blood cells. Plasma, buffy coat, and blood cells. Serum, buffy coat, and blood cells. | Serum and blood cells. |
| The purpose of applying a tourniquet when performing venipuncture is to Make the patient’s veins more prominent. Prevent hemolysis of the blood specimen. Make the procedure more comfortable for the patient. Make it easier to insert the needle | Make the patient’s veins more prominent. |
| Which of the following sites can be used to make a skin puncture on an adult? Earlobe Lateral part of the index fingertip Tip of the little finger Lateral part of the third fingertip | Lateral part of the third fingertip |
| When performing a capillary puncture, the finger should not be squeezed, to avoid | Diluting the blood sample with tissue fluid |
| Which of the following should be performed if an evacuated tube contains a clot activator? | Gently invert the tube five times after drawing it. |
| What may occur if the needle is removed from the arm before removing the tourniquet? | Bleeding may occur around the puncture site. |
| Which of the following is the proper method for identifying a patient before performing a venipuncture? | Ask the patient to state his or her full name and DOB. |
| What color closure tube is used to collect a blood specimen for a prothrombin time test? Red Lavender Gray Green Light blue | Light blue |
| How is serum obtained? From whole blood that has been centrifuged By using a tube containing an anticoagulant From clotted blood that has been centrifuged From whole blood that has been left standing | From clotted blood that has been centrifuged |
| How is venous reflex prevented when performing a venipuncture? | Placing the patient’s arm in a downward position |
| All of the following are guidelines that should be followed when assembling equipment and supplies for a venipuncture except: | Label each collection tube with one unique patient identifier. |
| Which of the following represents an error in technique when obtaining a capillary blood specimen? | Using the first drop of blood for the test |
| You are performing a venipuncture, and the patient becomes dizzy and is about to faint. Your first priority in this situation should be to | Protect the patient from injury. |
| Which of the following gauge needles is used most often to perform a venipuncture using the Vacutainer method? 16 G 18 G 21 G 25 G | 21 G |
| Which of the following may result in hemolysis of the blood specimen? | Using a needle with a small lumen to collect the specimen |
| If you think a vein selected for venipuncture may collapse, you should | Use the butterfly method to perform the venipuncture. |
| Your provider has requested an electrolyte panel on a patient. The laboratory directory indicates this test requires 4 mL of serum. Which of the following tubes should be used to collect the specimen? | 10-mL SST |
| On palpation, a scarred vein feels Elastic and pliable. Stiff and hard. Soft and pliable. Swollen. | Stiff and hard. |
| All of the following are guideline for attaching a barcode label to a blood collection tube except: | Place the label in a diagonal position on the collection tube. |
| You are getting ready to perform a venipuncture on a patient for a FBG test. Which of the following statements should you not make to the patient? | “This procedure will not hurt.” |
| An evacuated tube with a red closure contains Heparin. EDTA. Nothing. Potassium oxalate. Sodium citrate. | Nothing. |
| Which of the following techniques can be used to prevent a vein from rolling? | Applying firm pressure below and to the side of the vein |
| Which of the following are characteristics of the brachial artery (located in the antecubital space)? | Pulsates when palpated Has a more elastic and thicker wall than a vein If punctured, blood is bright red in color If punctured, patient feels more than usual amount of pain |
| Which of the following is found in the serum of blood? Glucose Hormones Chloride Antibodies All of these | All of these |
| An evacuated tube with a lavender closure contains Heparin. EDTA. Nothing. Potassium oxalate. Sodium citrate. | EDTA. |
| All of the following evacuated tubes can be used to collect serum except: Lavender-closure Red/gray-closure Gold-closure Red-closure | Lavender-closure |
| Which of the following is another name for the butterfly method of venipuncture? Winged infusion method Syringe method Luer adapter method Z-track method | Winged infusion method |
| Which of the following may occur if a tourniquet is applied too tightly? | It may be uncomfortable for the patient. Inaccurate test results may occur. The arterial blood flow may be obstructed. The venous blood flow may be obstructed. |
| If a fibrin clot formed in the serum layer of a blood specimen, it would Interfere with adequate serum collection. Result in hemolysis of the red blood cells. Cause evaporation of the serum. Lead to inaccurate test results. | Interfere with adequate serum collection. |
| What position should be used for a venipuncture if a patient appears nervous or has fainted in the past from a venipuncture? Semi-Fowler Prone Supine Sitting | Semi-Fowler |
| What may occur if a finger puncture is made that is deeper than 3.1 mm? Damage to nerves in the finger Penetration of the bone in the finger Inaccurate test results Excessive bleeding from the puncture site | Penetration of the bone in the finger |
| Which of the following veins is most likely to collapse when performing a venipuncture? Veins that roll Scarred veins Sclerosed veins Small veins | Small veins |
| During the venipuncture procedure, a sudden swelling occurs in the area around the puncture site. You should | Immediately remove the tourniquet and then the needle. |
| On standing, a blood specimen to which an anticoagulant has been added separates into Plasma and red blood cells. Serum and red blood cells. Plasma, buffy coat, and red blood cells. Serum, buffy coat, and red blood cells. | Plasma, buffy coat, and red blood cells. |
| After drawing a blood specimen for an electrolyte panel, the next step is to | Allow the specimen to stand in an upright position for 30 to 45 minutes. |
| Which of the following indicates the correct order of draw when multiple tubes of blood need to be drawn? Red, green, lavender, gray Red, lavender, gray, green Lavender, red, gray, green Red, gray, lavender, green | Red, green, lavender, gray |
| All of the following are symptoms of severe anxiety except: Hyperventilation Rapid pulse rate Loss of emotional control Loss of voluntary muscle control | Loss of voluntary muscle control |
| What is the term for a material that catches on fire easily? Flammable material Flame-retardant material Combustible material Hazardous material | Flammable material |
| According to OSHA, when is it acceptable to use direct voice communication to alert employees of an emergency situation? | When there are ten or fewer employees |
| What is stress? An event that occurs without advance warning Loss of self-worth and interest in day-to-day activities The body’s response to threat or change An event that poses a serious threat to personal safety | The body’s response to threat or change |
| What occurs during the recovery phase of the GAS? The body returns to its normal level of functioning. The immune system becomes compromised. The blood glucose level increases. Resources to combat stress become depleted. | The body returns to its normal level of functioning. |
| Which of the following are examples of Class A fuel sources? Wood, paper, plastics, rubber Wiring, circuit breakers, electrical outlets Gasoline, oil, grease, alcohol Vegetable oil and animal oil | Wood, paper, plastics, rubber |
| Which of the following is a guideline required by OSHA for exit routes? Must be unlocked from the inside Should be clearly marked and well-lit Should be at least 28 inches wide Should be unobstructed and free of clutter All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following is an example of an ignition source? Trash Drapes and rugs Faulty electrical equipment Oxygen tanks | Faulty electrical equipment |
| Which of the following determines the requirements for the number, size, location, and type of fire extinguishers in the medical office? Fire code requirements Smokey the Bear Owner of the building Medical office manager | Fire code requirements |
| What is the responsibility of an emergency evacuation coordinator? | To take charge of and manage evacuation procedures during an emergency |
| All of the following are characteristics of an emergency action plan except: Helps to prevent injuries and fatalities Helps to prevent property damage Describes the actions to take in an emergency situation Prevents disasters from occurring | Prevents disasters from occurring |
| Disasters that tend to cause the most serious psychological effects include those that Occur without warning. Pose a serious threat to personal safety. Have an uncertain duration. Result from malicious intent. All of these. | All of these. |
| Which of the following is an example of a stress-related symptom that may occur as a result of stress? Fatigue Irritability Lethargy Lapses in concentration All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following must be included in the training of employees on the emergency action plan? Emergency response procedures Location and use of emergency equipment Evacuation procedures Emergency shutdown procedures All of these | All of these |
| All of the following occur when epinephrine stimulates the sympathetic nervous system except: Decrease in blood pressure Dilation of the pupils Increased heart rate Increased respiratory rate | Decrease in blood pressure |
| What is the proper sequence of events that should occur in responding to a fire? | Rescue, activate, confine, extinguish/evacuate |
| All of the following are examples of a positive reaction to a disaster except: | Becoming angry and depressed |
| A fire extinguisher should not be used for which of the following? To extinguish a small fire that has just started To protect an evacuation route that fire may block To fight a large fire that is out of control To extinguish a fire in a waste basket | To fight a large fire that is out of control |
| Which of the following occurs during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)? | The body senses a stressor and begins to react. Epinephrine is released. The attention becomes narrowly focused on the perceived threat. The body prepares for fight or flight. |
| All of the following are examples of natural disasters except: Flood Earthquake Bomb explosion Tornado | Bomb explosion |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of the resistance phase of the GAS? The stress remains but the body adapts. It may last hours, days, or months. Cortisol is secreted. The body remains “on-guard.” All of these. | All of these. |
| An employee who performs rescue or medical duties during an evacuation is known as an Emergency responder. Emergency evacuation coordinator. Office supervisor. Evacuation warden. | Evacuation warden. |
| The first step in using a fire extinguisher is to Aim the nozzle at the base of the fire. Slowly squeeze the handle. Sweep the nozzle from side to side. Pull out the pin. | Pull out the pin. |
| According to OSHA, which of the following must be included in an emergency action plan? | Preferred means of reporting fires and other emergencies Procedures for employees performing rescue duties Procedures to account for all employees after an evacuation Emergency evacuation plan |
| An immediate and complete evacuation of a building is usually required for which of the following? Patient diagnosed with COVID Large fire Child vomiting in the waiting room Thunderstorm All of these | Large fire |
| Which of the following are typically used to report an emergency and/or alert employees to an emergency situation? Dialing 911 Dialing an internal emergency number Activate a manual alarm All of these | All of these |
| All of the following are characteristics of man-made disasters except: | Are caused by the natural processes of the earth |
| All of the following are elements must exist in order for a fire to occur except: Fuel source Carbon dioxide Oxygen Ignition source | Carbon dioxide |
| An evacuation floor plan includes the location of all of the following except: Occupant’s current location Portable fire extinguishers Smoke detectors Fire alarms | Smoke detectors |
| Which of the following prevents the spread of fire from one area of a building to another? Fire alarm Fire resistant cabinet Smoke detector Fire door | Fire door |
| All of the following are characteristics of a sprinkler system except: | Are activated by the build-up of smoke in an area |
| A feeling of worry or uneasiness is known as Fight or flight syndrome. Post-traumatic stress disorder. Anxiety. Depression. | Anxiety. |
| In the event of an evacuation, what document can be used to account for patients after exiting the building? Patient log-in sheet Emergency action plan Employee roster Telephone book | Patient log-in sheet |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of a fire prevention plan? | Identifies flammable and combustible materials stored in the workplace Identifies ways to control workplace fire hazards Reduces the probability that a workplace fire will ignite or spread |
| Which of the following is a way in which fires start in the medical office? Improper storage of chemicals Arson Overloaded electrical outlets All of these | All of these |
| All of the following are examples of man-made disasters except: Power outage Influenza epidemic Fire Terrorism | Influenza epidemic |
| Where should a fire extinguisher be located in the medical office? Near the door of a room Near the exit of the building Along normal paths of travel All of these | All of these |
| All of the following are components of an emergency evacuation plan except: | A list of the hazardous chemicals stored in the workplace |
| The quickest and easiest way to exit a building during an evacuation is known as the Wheelchair accessible exit. Primary exit route. Secondary exit route. Fire door. | Primary exit route. |
| All of the following are examples of fuel sources that might be found in the medical office except: Patient medical records Hot surfaces Laboratory testing chemicals Furniture | Hot surfaces |
| Which of the following may result in insulin shock? Forgetting to administer an insulin injection Skipping meals Overeating Not administering enough insulin | Skipping meals |
| Which of the following is an example of a closed wound? Laceration Puncture Contusion Abrasion All of these | Contusion |
| What type of shock is caused by loss of blood or other body fluids? Neurogenic Hypovolemic Cardiogenic Hemorrhaging | Hypovolemic |
| Which of the following is not a symptom of a heart attack? Sudden weakness on one side of the body Chest pain Shortness of breath Nausea | Sudden weakness on one side of the body |
| A specially equipped cart for holding and transporting medications, equipment, and supplies needed in an emergency is known as a First-aid cart. Go-cart. Crash cart. Code blue cart. | Crash cart. |
| Which of the following animals is associated with a high incidence of rabies? Raccoons Gophers Rabbits Chipmunks | Raccoons |
| In what type of seizure is the abnormal electrical activity localized to very specific areas of the brain? Tonic-clonic Partial Generalized Status epilepticus | Partial |
| Which of the following is an example of an ingested poison? Carbon monoxide Fertilizers Insect stings Aspirin overdose All of these | Aspirin overdose |
| Which of the following body areas is most susceptible to frostbite? Arms and legs Fingers and toes Head Abdomen | Fingers and toes |
| Which of the following should not be performed when providing emergency care? Obtain information about what happened from bystanders Administer care to a conscious patient who refuses it Follow the OSHA standard Do not move the patient unnecessarily | Administer care to a conscious patient who refuses it |
| Which of the following individuals is at higher risk for heat-related or cold-related injury? An elderly man An individual who works outdoors An individual with cardiovascular disease An individual under the influence of alcohol All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following is not a symptom of hyperventilation? Rapid and deep respirations Palpitations Abdominal pain Tachycardia Light-headedness | Abdominal pain |
| Which of the following snakes is poisonous? Rattlesnake Copperhead Cottonmouth Coral snake All of these | All of these |
| What is the purpose of first aid? To save a life To reduce pain To prevent further injury To reduce the incidence of permanent disability All of these | All of these |
| In what type of fracture is the bone splintered or shattered into three or more fragments? Spiral Comminuted Open Oblique | Comminuted |
| With what type of bleeding is there is a slow and steady flow of dark red blood? Capillary Venous Arterial Profuse | Venous |
| Which of the following is not a symptom of an asthmatic attack? Wheezing Hives Coughing Dyspnea | Hives |
| What is another name for a stroke? Paraplegia Transient ischemia Coronary artery disease Cerebrovascular accident | Cerebrovascular accident |
| What term describes a progressive lung disorder in which there is a loss of elasticity of the alveoli of the lungs? Emphysema Chronic bronchitis Asthma Cystic fibrosis | Emphysema |
| Which of the following is not a responsibility of an EMD? To answer emergency calls To obtain needed information from a caller To obtain consent for treatment from a conscious patient To send appropriate personnel and equipment | To obtain consent for treatment from a conscious patient |
| Which of the following is not a symptom of a fracture? Cyanosis Pain Deformity and swelling Loss of function | Cyanosis |
| A severe form of diabetes that usually appears in childhood is known as Type 1 diabetes. Diabetes insipidus. Type 2 diabetes. Gestational diabetes. | Type 1 diabetes. |
| Which of the following spiders can cause a serious or life-threatening reaction? Wolfe spider Daddy long legs Brown recluse spider The itsy-bitsy spider that went up the water spout | Brown recluse spider |
| What type of shock is caused by a reaction of the body to a substance to which an individual is highly allergic? Psychogenic Status asthmaticus Anaphylactic Allergenic | Anaphylactic |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of a partial-thickness burn? It extends into the dermis. The burned area appears red and mottled. There is little pain involved. Blistering occurs. | There is little pain involved. |
| What is the name of the type of fracture in which the broken ends of the bone are forcefully jammed together? Transverse Greenstick Impacted Closed | Impacted |
| What is the name of the individual who is qualified to perform advanced life support measures? EMT-Basic EMT-Paramedic MLT EMD | EMT-Paramedic |
| Which of the following is usually found in the urine sediment of a patient with candidiasis? Parasites Yeast Bacteria Casts | Yeast |
| How should urine reagent strips be stored? In a cool area In a dark container In a dry area With the cap tightly closed All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following is an example of a quantitative test result? Trace Small 2 + 500 mg/dL Positive | 500 mg/dL |
| What is the term for the presence of ketone bodies in the urine? Acidosis Alimentary glycosuria Ketosis Ketonuria | Ketonuria |
| What does it mean if a urine specimen is light yellow in color? White blood cells are present in the urine specimen The urine specimen does not contain many dissolved substances The pH of the urine specimen is slightly acidic Bacteria present in urine | The urine specimen does not contain many dissolved substances. |
| Which of the following represents an error in technique when performing a urine pregnancy test? | The specific gravity of the specimen is 1.003 |
| Which of the following test results indicates a concentrated urine specimen? pH: 6 Red blood cells: 3/HPF Protein: trace Specific gravity: 1.025 | Specific gravity: 1.025 |
| All of the following are functions of the urinary system except: Removal of waste products from the blood Regulation of the fluid balance of the body Regulation of the temperature of the body Regulation of the electrolyte balance of the body | Regulation of the temperature of the body |
| Which of the following normally contains microorganisms? Kidneys Ureters Urinary meatus Urinary bladder | Urinary meatus |
| Most of the urine is composed of what substance? Urea Organic substances Water Inorganic substances | Water |
| What type of specimen should be used to test for the presence of nitrite in the urine? Specimen that has been left standing at room temperature for one-half hour 24-hour urine specimen Freshly voided random specimen First-voided morning specimen | First-voided morning specimen |
| When collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen, a small amount of urine is voided into the toilet before obtaining the specimen to | Flush microorganisms out of the distal urethra. |
| A 24-hour urine specimen may be collected to Detect the presence of liver disease. Diagnose a UTI. Determine the cause of kidney stone formation. Determine if a patient has diabetes mellitus. | Determine the cause of kidney stone formation. |
| What is the term for the functional unit of the kidney? Glomerulus Ureter Renal pelvis Nephron | Nephron |
| When a patient has a urinary tract infection, all of the following urine chemical tests may be positive except: Nitrite Protein Ketone bodies Leukocytes | Ketone bodies |
| When collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen, a front-to-back motion is used to cleanse the urinary meatus to | Avoid drawing microorganisms from the anal region into the area being cleansed. |
| What is included in a complete urinalysis? A physical examination of urine A chemical examination of urine Microscopic examination of urine sediment All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following represents an error in technique when testing a urine specimen with a reagent strip? | Touching the reagent areas with the fingers |
| Why is a first-voided morning specimen preferred for performing a microscopic examination of urine? It is more dilute. It contains more dissolved substances. It contains more abnormal substances. It contains fewer microorganisms. | It contains more dissolved substances. |
| The external opening of the urethra is known as the Urinary meatus. Urinary sphincter. Renal meatus. External os. | Urinary meatus. |
| All of the following are patient guidelines for the collection of a first-catch urine specimen except: | Cleanse the genital area before collection of the specimen. |
| Which of the following substances is normally present in urine? Ketones Urea Leukocytes Bilirubin All of these | Urea |
| Which of the following chemical tests on urine may be positive when a patient has hepatitis? Glucose Protein Bilirubin Ketone bodies All of these | Bilirubin |
| A urinalysis may be performed for all of the following except: Diagnose a pathological condition Treat a patient’s condition Screen a patient for the presence of disease Evaluate the effectiveness of therapy | Treat a patient’s condition |
| How much urine does the normal adult excrete each day? 250–500 mL 500–1,000 mL 750–2,000 mL 1–3 liters | 750–2,000 mL |
| What is the name of the hormone present only in the urine and blood of a pregnant woman? Estrogen Progesterone HCGH Human chorionic gonadotropin Testosterone | Human chorionic gonadotropin |
| Blood may normally be present in the urine due to Pregnancy. Cystitis. Menstruation. Vigorous physical exercise. | Menstruation. |
| The function of the urinary bladder is to Dilute toxic waste products. Store and expel urine. Reabsorb substances needed by the body. Regulate body metabolism. | Store and expel urine. |
| Where are urinary casts formed? In the ureters In the lumen of the nephron tubules In the urinary bladder In Bowman’s capsule | In the lumen of the nephron tubules |
| When performing a microscopic examination of urine, the presence of how many white blood cells/HPF is considered normal? 0–5 0–15 0–20 2–6 | 0–5 |
| What occurs if a urine specimen is allowed to stand for more than 1 hour at room temperature? It becomes cloudy. The pH becomes more acidic. The specific gravity decreases. Pathogens are destroyed. | It becomes cloudy. |
| A pH reading of 8 means that the urine specimen is Acidic. Alkaline. Neutral. Contaminated. | Alkaline. |
| Which of the following tests is performed on a first-catch urine specimen? Complete urinalysis Pregnancy test NAA test for chlamydia and gonorrhea Kidney stone evaluation | NAA test for chlamydia and gonorrhea |
| What effect does concentrated urine have on red blood cells? It causes them to swell and become rounded. It has no effect on them. It causes them to shrink and become crenated. It causes them to develop hypochromia. | It causes them to shrink and become crenated. |
| If the internal control of a urine pregnancy test does not perform as expected, the test results are interpreted as Invalid. Positive. Negative. Weakly reactive. | Invalid. |
| Which of the following urine specimens contain the greatest concentration of dissolved substances? First-voided morning specimen Random specimen Clean-catch midstream specimen First-catch urine specimens | First-voided morning specimen |
| In the female, the urethra functions in Transporting urine. Controlling urine excretion. Balancing fluids and electrolytes. Transporting urine and reproductive secretions. All of these. | Transporting urine. |
| What is the normal range for the specific gravity of urine? 1.005 to 1.030 500 to 750 1.040 to 1.060 4.6 to 8 | 1.005 to 1.030 |
| Which of the following chemical tests on urine may be positive when a patient has diabetes mellitus? Glucose Protein Nitrite Bilirubin All of these | Glucose |
| What odor does a urine specimen have if it has been allowed to stand at room temperature for long time? Ammonia Slightly aromatic Fruity Foul-smelling | Ammonia |
| If a freshly voided specimen is cloudy, it means that A urinary tract infection may be present. The specimen has remained in the bladder too long. Nitrates are present in the specimen. Improper technique was used to collect the specimen. | A urinary tract infection may be present. |
| Which of the following does not result in oliguria? Profuse perspiration Vomiting Diarrhea Edema | Edema |
| Which of the following tests requires a clean-catch midstream specimen? Urine pregnancy testing Microscopic examination of urine sediment Urine drug testing Urine culture | Urine culture |
| The pH of most urine specimens is Acidic. Alkaline. Neutral. Negative. | Acidic. |
| Polyuria may be caused by Excessive intake of fluids. Consumption of caffeine. Diabetes mellitus. Taking a diuretic. All of these. | All of these. |
| The presence of bile pigments in a urine specimen causes the specimen to be Light amber. Foul-smelling. Yellow-brown. Red. | Yellow-brown. |
| Symptoms of active tuberculosis include all of the following except: Mucopurulent sputum Chronic cough Abdominal pain Chest pain | Abdominal pain |
| When withdrawing medication from a vial, the needle must be inserted below the fluid level to | Prevent the entrance of air bubbles into the syringe. |
| Why is it important not to apply pressure to the injection site after administering an intradermal injection? | To prevent the medication from being absorbed into the tissues |
| What is the name of a drug preparation that is applied externally using friction to produce a feeling of heat or warmth? Spirit Ointment Liniment Tincture | Liniment |
| Which of the following is included in a medication record? Name and dose of the medication Date the medication is prescribed Drug allergies Route of administration All of the above | All of the above |
| Which of the following is not an example of a schedule II drug? Codeine Vicodin Xanax Adderall | Xanax |
| The vastus lateralis site is used most often to administer medication to Adults. Infants and young children. Adolescents. Elderly patients. | Infants and young children. |
| What does it mean if both tests in a two-step TB test are negative? Further diagnostic procedures must be performed The patient is considered infected w/ tuberculosis Patient must be retested within 72 hours The patient is classified as noninfected | The patient is classified as noninfected |
| The reason for enterically coating a tablet is to | Prevent the medication from irritating the stomach lining |
| What is the term for the administration of whole blood or blood products through the IV route? Transfusion Enteral nutrition Infusion Effusion | Transfusion |
| Why is it important for the patient’s age to be indicated on a prescription? | Enables the pharmacist to double-check to ensure that the proper dose is being dispensed |
| Why is medication absorbed faster through the intramuscular route as compared to the subcutaneous route? | There are more blood vessels in muscle tissue. |
| Which of the following is used to administer an intradermal injection? 26 G, 3/8 inch 23 G, 1/2 inch 21 G, 1 inch 20 G, 1 1/2 inch | 26 G, 3/8 inch |
| Erythema without induration occurring from a Mantoux test indicates A negative reaction. An invalid reaction. A positive reaction. An allergic reaction to the tuberculin solution. | A negative reaction. |
| Which of the following medications is administered through the sublingual route? Penicillin Nitroglycerin Lisinopril Heparin | Nitroglycerin |
| Which of the following is a function of the flange of a syringe? Attaches the needle to the syringe Helps in injecting the medication Assists in penetrating body tissues Measures the proper amount of medication | Helps in injecting the medication |
| All of the following are forms in which allergies may appear in an individual except: Allergic rhinitis Hay fever Warts Contact dermatitis | Warts |
| Induration measuring 16 mm resulting from a Mantoux test in an individual at low risk for developing TB indicates A negative reaction. A false-positive reaction. A positive reaction. An invalid reaction. | A positive reaction. |
| Which of the following tests is used to identify allergens causing contact dermatitis? Skin-prick test Patch test Intradermal skin test IGRA test | Patch test |
| What is the purpose of a safety-engineered syringe? | To reduce the risk of a needlestick injury |
| The inscription of a prescription consists of Information to be included on the medication label. The abbreviation Rx. The quantity of the drug to be dispensed. The name of the drug and the dose. | The name of the drug and the dose. |
| Which of the following is assigned to a drug by the USAN Council? Chemical name Official name Generic name Brand name | Generic name |
| Which of the following is administered through the subcutaneous route? Allergy skin tests Penicillin Insulin TB skin test All of the above | Insulin |
| Which of the following techniques should not be performed when an ampule is used to administer medication? | Inject air into the ampule before removing the medication. |
| A TB skin test is recommended for which of the following individuals? Health care worker Patient in a nursing home An individual who cares for a person with active tuberculosis An individual entering the military All of the above | All of the above |
| The study of drugs is known as Pharmacy. Immunology. Pharmacology. Mycology. | Pharmacology. |
| What is the abbreviation for by mouth? SL OP OTC po | po |
| When the same dose of a drug no longer produces the desired effect, it is said that the patient has developed An idiosyncratic reaction. An allergic reaction. A drug interaction. A drug tolerance. | A drug tolerance. |
| Which of the following is not a unit of weight? Gram Milligram Milliliter Kilogram | Milliliter |
| All of the following are characteristics of a latent tuberculosis infection except: Cannot be spread to others Negative reaction on a TB test No symptoms are present Normal chest radiograph | Negative reaction on a TB test |
| After administering a tuberculin skin test, it should be read within 15–20 minutes. 12–24 hours. 36–48 hours. 48–72 hours. | 48–72 hours. |
| The maximal reaction to a skin-prick test occurs between 5 and 10 minutes. 15 and 20 minutes. 1 and 2 hours. 48 and 72 hours. | 15 and 20 minutes. |
| How do allergens enter the body? By being inhaled By being swallowed By coming into contact with the skin By being injected All of the above | All of the above |
| Intradermal injections are used to administer Allergy injections. Pediatric immunizations. Insulin injections. Skin tests. All of the above. | Skin tests. |
| What is IV therapy? Administration of a liquid agent directly into a vein Removal of a blood specimen from a vein for laboratory analysis Administration of topical medication Administration of medication through inhalation | Administration of a liquid agent directly into a vein |
| The patient’s forearm should be held taut when administering the Mantoux test to | Permit easier insertion of the needle |
| What is the term for administration of fluids, medications, or nutrients through the IV route? Transfusion IV drip Infusion Chemotherapy | Infusion |
| Which of the following situations causes an oral medication to be absorbed at a slower rate? Taking the medication prn Taking the medication pc Taking the medication bid Taking the medication q3h | Taking the medication pc |
| What is done if a patient has a positive reaction to a Mantoux test? The patient is placed on drugs to combat tuberculosis Further diagnostic procedures are performed The patient is referred to a dermatologist The patient is placed in isolation | Further diagnostic procedures are performed |
| Which of the following sites is commonly used to administer a subcutaneous injection? Gluteus medius muscle Upper lateral arm Anterior forearm Deltoid muscle | Upper lateral arm |
| A subcutaneous injection is given into what type of tissue? Adipose tissue Muscle Connective tissue Dermal tissue | Adipose tissue |
| An EHR prescription program can perform all of the following functions except: | Determine the number of prescription refills |
| Which of the following is a blood test for tuberculosis? Mantoux test Tine test IGRA BCG | IGRA |
| The early symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction include | Sneezing, hives, erythema, angioedema, disorientation. |
| Which of the following guidelines should be followed when administering a medication? | Check that you have the correct medication. Check the expiration date of the medication. Identify the patient by full name and date of birth. Check that the patient is not allergic to the medication. All of the above |
| Which of the following categories includes drugs that have a high potential for abuse and accepted medical use? Schedule I Schedule II Schedule III Schedule IV | Schedule II |
| Advantages of administering IV therapy in an outpatient setting include all of the following except: Patient savings in medical costs Avoidance of hospitalization Less pain and tissue trauma Patient convenience | Less pain and tissue trauma |
| Which of the following systems is used most often to prescribe and administer medication? Apothecary Household Metric Avoirdupois | Metric |
| When administering an IM injection, the skin over the injection site must be held taut to | Permit easier insertion of the needle. |
| Which of the following blood vessels is used most often for administering IV therapy? Subclavian vein Peripheral veins of the arm and hand Brachial artery Peripheral veins of the leg and foot | Peripheral veins of the arm and hand |
| When administering an intradermal injection, the needle must be inserted with the bevel facing upward to | Allow proper wheal formation. |
| What is the term for an abnormal reaction to a substance that is normally harmless? Asthma Anaphylactic shock Allergy Idiosyncrasy | Allergy |
| Which of the following is an example of administering medication? | A medical assistant gives an IM injection to a patient. |
| All of the following are reasons for documenting the location of the injection except: | To avoid injecting the medication into a major nerve or blood vessel |
| Which of the following is a unit of volume? Inch Grain Centimeter Liter | Liter |
| All of the following is a characteristic of parenteral medication except: | The occurrence of side effects is reduced. |
| Outpatient IV therapy may be administered in which of the following facilities? Medical offices Infusion clinics Urgent care centers Patient’s home All of the above | All of the above |
| All of the following are used to treat allergies except: Avoiding the allergen Antihistamines Antibiotics Allergy injections | Antibiotics |
| An intradermal allergy skin test that is positive results in Localized itching, erythema, induration. Generalized edema. Wheezing, rash, watery eyes. Eczema. | Localized itching, erythema, induration. |
| All of the following are characteristics of controlled drugs except: They have the potential for abuse. Telephone prescription orders are not permitted. They are classified into 5 categories. There are federal and state restrictions placed on them | Telephone prescription orders are not permitted. |
| What is the name under which a pharmaceutical manufacturer markets a drug? Chemical name Official name Generic name Brand name | Brand name |
| Which of the following needles has the largest lumen? 18 G 20 G 25 G 27 G | 18 G |
| Which of the following is a form in which a prescription may be authorized? Handwritten prescription Computer-generated printed prescription Electronic transmission to a pharmacy Telephoned to a pharmacy All of the above | All of the above |
| What is the usual treatment for an anaphylactic reaction? Epinephrine injection Oral administration of antihistamines Steroid injection Antibiotic injection | Epinephrine injection |
| Which of the following is used to administer an intradermal injection? Hypodermic syringe Insulin syringe Tuberculin syringe 5 mL syringe | Tuberculin syringe |
| What is the purpose of a filter needle when withdrawing medication from an ampule? | To prevent glass particles from being drawn into the syringe |
| What may occur if an equal amount of air is not injected into a vial when withdrawing medication from the vial? | It may be difficult to remove the medication from the vial |
| Which of the following represents an equivalent value for a cubic centimeter? 1 cc – 1 drop 1 cc– 1 mg 1 cc – 1 unit 1 cc – 1 mL | 1 cc – 1 mL |
| What is an advantage of the deltoid IM injection site? It causes less patient discomfort. It is easily accessible. It can absorb a large amount of medication. It can be used to administer medication to infants and young children All of the above | It is easily accessible. |
| What is the name given to a powdered drug that has been pressed into a disc? Capsule Suspension Tablet Lozenge | Tablet |
| Where does the absorption of most oral medications take place? Mouth Stomach Small intestine Large intestine | Small intestine |
| Which of the following types of medications should be documented in a patient’s medication record? Prescription medications OTC medications Vitamin supplements Herbal products All of the above | All of the above |
| What is the abbreviation for immediately? ASA STAT NPO Prn | STAT |
| Which of the following areas of the forearm should be avoided when administering a tuberculin skin test? Bruised areas Hairy areas An area with scar tissue Red or swollen areas All of the above | All of the above |
| Which of the following must be included in a prescription for a controlled drug? Schedule category of the drug Lot number of the drug Provider’s DEA number Patient’s Social Security number | Provider’s DEA number |
| The term parenteral refers to Sites located outside the gastrointestinal tract. Intramuscular injection sites. Administration of medication po. Topical administration of medication. | Sites located outside the gastrointestinal tract. |
| The Z-track method is used to administer medications that Are poorly absorbed. Are irritating to subcutaneous tissue. Are likely to cause a drug interaction. Are thick and oily. All of the above. | Are irritating to subcutaneous tissue. |
| What is the term for the slanted edge at the top of a needle? Tip Bevel Gauge Lumen | Bevel |
| Which of the following helps to reduce the pain of an IM injection? | Allowing the antiseptic to dry completely Inserting the needle quickly into the patient’s skin Holding the needle steady after inserting it Withdrawing the needle at the same angle as that used for insertion All of the above |
| What are drug contraindications? Situations in which the drug should not be used Side effects of the drug Conditions that the drug has been approved to treat The quantity of the medication to be administered | Situations in which the drug should not be used |
| A prescription for a schedule III drug expires 7 days from the date of issue. 2 months from the date of issue. 6 months from the date of issue. 1 year from the date of issue. | 6 months from the date of issue. |
| The medical assistant should relay the following instructions to the patient regarding IV therapy: | Time to arrive for the IV therapy Amount of time required for the therapy To wear loose-fitting, comfortable clothing Whether someone needs to drive the patient to and from the appointment All of the above |
| What is the name given to an adverse reaction that is harmless and often tolerated by the patient to obtain the therapeutic effect of the drug? Idiosyncratic reaction Side effect Contraindication Toxic effect | Side effect |
| Patient preparation for allergy skin testing includes | Discontinuing antihistamines for 3 days before the test. |
| What is the maximal amount of medication that can be administered through the subcutaneous route? 1 mL 2 mL 3 mL 5 mL | 1 mL |
| What angle of needle insertion should be used to administer an IM injection? 10–15 degrees 45 degrees 90 degrees Parallel to the skin | 90 degrees |
| Which of the following needle lengths is used to administer a subcutaneous injection? 3/8 inch 5/8 inch 1 inch 1 1/2 inch | 5/8 inch |
| What is the name given to a closed glass container with a rubber stopper that holds more than one dose of medication? Ampule Prefilled disposable syringe Multiple-dose vial Single-dose vial | Multiple-dose vial |
| Which of the following is an example of an allergen? Peanuts House dust Insect stings Plant pollens All of the above | All of the above |
| Which of the following methods of examination must be used when reading a tuberculin skin test? Auscultation and palpation Inspection and percussion Inspection and palpation Inspection only | Inspection and palpation |
| Which of the following parts of a prescription indicates the information that is included on the medication label? Superscription Subscription Signatura Inscription | Signatura |
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Diamond87