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Cloud Sec - S1
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| A security architect wants to ensure the provider’s control set aligns with the organization’s compliance needs. Which CSA tool is explicitly recommended to evaluate provider controls? | CAIQ (Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire) |
| A design uses many short-lived autoscaled instances running from a central golden image. Which security requirement is most important to maintain across images? | Ensure the golden image is patched, hardened, and versioned with image provenance and CI/CD gating |
| A cloud controller places VM images on hosts and connects their storage. Which component would you inspect to verify image provenance and integrity before deployment? | Image registry and its signed hashes / image signing pipeline (CI/Cd) |
| In terms of shared responsibility, who is most likely responsible for implementing host-based firewall rules on VMs in an IaaS model? | Cloud customer |
| In a hybrid cloud design, which capability most directly enables on-premises workloads to “burst” into the public cloud? | Standardized or proprietary portability and federation technology |
| Which is the most accurate statement about RESTful cloud management APIs? | They typically run over HTTP/HTTPS and must be hardened like any public API (authentication, authorization, rate limits, logging). |
| Which of these is a primary disadvantage of using a pure SaaS solution from a security governance perspective? | Limited ability to negotiate many operational controls and visibility; responsibilities are largely with provider. |
| Which pattern is most useful to ensure least-privilege for management plane users? | Implement role-based access control (RBAc) with narrowly scoped roles and separation of duties, combined with MFA and audit logging |
| Which design choice best supports portability between different cloud providers? | Use of containerized workloads and infrastructure as code targeting standardized APIs where possible |
| A CSP documents that certain logs are not exportable due to internal format restrictions. Which governance control should a cloud customer prioritize? | Negotiate contract clauses or SLAs that ensure access to necessary audit artifacts or require export in usable formats (or choose a different provider) |
| Which approach most directly helps ensure cloud assets aren’t inadvertently left reachable after deployment? | Automate secure infrastructure provisioning and teardown (IaC with policy checks and drift detection) |
| Which is a key limitation when migrating a legacy on-premises application to a public PaaS? | Potential inability to access low-level configuration, OS tuning, or specific libraries the app requires |
| A cloud provider exposes RESTful APIs for control plane operations. Which of the following is the largest security implication? | Insecure management plane access |
| A cloud provider’s management plane exposes an API that returns unredacted metadata about tenants. Which control is most appropriate to request from the provider? | Granular access control to management APIs and strict separation of tenant metadata |
| A compliance auditor needs evidence that a provider performs logical separation between tenants. Which CSA resource is most likely to help the customer evaluate this? | Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) and CAIQ responses from the provider |
| Which is the best justification for using API keys with limited scope and short TTLs for cloud control APIs? | Minimize blast radius and reduce long-lived credential risk in the management plane |
| Which risk is specifically introduced by exposing an orchestration API with insecure default RBAC and verbose metadata? | Increased chance of unauthorized configuration changes and information leakage that reveal resource topology and tenant relationships |
| A tenant worries about another tenant “noisy neighbor” impacting its performance. Which architectural property is primarily responsible for enabling isolation to mitigate this? | Resource pooling |
| If an attacker obtains valid credentials to the management plane, what is the most accurate worst-case impact? | Full remote access to the consumer’s deployed environment (potentially extensive control) |
| Which of the following best describes “lift and shift” migration risk relative to cloud-native design? | Can reduce security and resilience because cloud-specific controls and design patterns are not used |
| Which statement best distinguishes multitenancy from resource pooling (per CSA/NIST usage)? | Multitenancy is logical separation of tenants; resource pooling is physical aggregation of resources. |
| In the CSA logical model, “infostructure” refers to: | The data and information assets (databases, objects, files) hosted in the cloud |
| Which of the following is the weakest strategy to handle provider feature changes that might affect security posture? | Ignoring provider changelogs and assuming defaults remain secure |
| Which is the strongest technical control to reduce risk when using a public IaaS provider for sensitive workloads? | Implement encryption of data in transit and at rest with keys under customer control (where feasible) |
| A cloud user requires guaranteed data residency in a specific country. Which action best enforces that requirement? | Specify location constraints in contracts and select provider features that allow region/island locking |
| Which logical layer in the CSA logical model is primarily concerned with APIs and management plane functions? | Metastructure |
| Which scenario most clearly demonstrates a “metastructure” security failure? | An attacker leveraging stolen management API keys to reconfigure virtual networks and snapshot tenant disks |
| The cloud metastructure concept includes which of the following items? | Management and orchestration, APIs, and the management plane |
| Which architectural element is most responsible for mapping a VM image to a host and orchestrating its lifecycle? | Cloud controller / orchestration layer |
| A cloud offering advertises “broad network access” as a feature. Which test best verifies this claim from a security perspective? | Check whether resources are reachable over network interfaces and whether access control (network ACLs, security groups) and authentication are enforced appropriately |
| Which choice is not a typical benefit of using PaaS over IaaS? | Full control over hypervisor scheduling policies |
| Which control reduces risk of accidental data exposure when cloud resources are replicated across regions? | Encryption with keys restricted to specific regions and access policies that prevent key export |
| When comparing IaaS and SaaS, which statement about logging responsibility is correct? | In SaaS, the provider typically controls most application and infra logs; in IaaS the consumer must implement and manage application-level logging while the provider supplies underlying platform logs. |
| Which statement most accurately reflects the security implications of "measured service"? | Metering can provide forensic and billing evidence but must be protected since it reveals usage patterns and potential sensitive metadata. |
| Which one is a correct mapping: "Applistructure" primarily maps to which security domain? | Application security and application-level controls |
| Which deployment model gives the cloud consumer the most contractual leverage to negotiate custom SLAs? | Hosted private cloud |
| Which best practice reduces risk when using provider-managed PaaS databases? | Enforce least privilege access, strong authentication, and client-side encryption for sensitive fields if provider can't guarantee key control |
| In a PaaS offering, which consumer responsibility is still typically required? | Secure development of application code and configuration management |
| Which of these is the best description of “orchestration” in cloud architecture? | Automated coordination and management of provisioned resources and services to deliver higher-level capabilities |
| Which cloud property most enables rapid elasticity? | Orchestration + abstraction of pooled resources (automation) |
| Which characteristic from the NIST definition most directly enables a provider to bill customers for exact consumption? | Measured service |
| A provider offers a “dedicated host” option (single-tenant hardware). Which motivation is least likely? | Maximizing benefits from resource pooling for lower cost |
| Which cloud architectural pattern improves resilience against failure in a single availability zone? | Multi-AZ (availability zone) deployment with automated failover |
| When an organization uses a Database-as-a-Service (DBaaS) and is responsible for accounts and schema design while the vendor provides patching, which NIST service model best describes this? | PaaS |
| Which design decision most improves the ability to respond if a cloud provider becomes unavailable? | Architect for portability: use standard formats, exportable data, and plan for failover/multi-provider options where feasible |
| Which cloud service model typically places the most security responsibility on the consumer? | IaaS |
| When designing an IaaS tenant network, which approach most effectively reduces the management plane attack surface? | Implement strong MFA, least privilege roles, IP restrictions and central logging for management plane access |
| Which statement about virtual networks (SDN) in cloud is true? | SDNs abstract network control via software and APIs, enabling overlays and programmable network isolation. |
| Which of these is not one of the NIST five essential characteristics? | Decentralized access control |
| F2 | F2 |
| In risk assessment, “residual risk” refers to: | Risk remaining after existing controls are applied |
| Why might a public cloud’s multitenancy reduce governance flexibility? | Shared infrastructure requires uniform processes, limiting per-customer customization |
| The primary purpose of periodic provider reassessments is to: | Confirm ongoing alignment of provider controls with contractual and regulatory requirements |
| Which governance element ensures contractual clauses remain effective as laws evolve? | Periodic legal review and contract update process |
| Which governance practice mitigates risk of provider feature changes that affect compliance? | Contract clauses mandating change notification and customer impact review |
| How does the shared responsibility model affect ERM? | Divides control implementation between provider and consumer but does not transfer overall accountability from the consumer |
| What type of audit evidence gives the highest assurance for governance validation? | Independent third-party attestations scoped to the relevant services |
| When using cyber-insurance as a risk transfer mechanism, CSA v4.0 warns that: | It may cover only financial losses and exclude intangible impacts like reputation damage |
| Which principle best summarizes why governance cannot be outsourced when using a cloud provider? | Governance is an internal accountability function that cannot be transferred by contract |
| Which deployment model typically allows full customization of governance controls but at higher cost? | Hosted private cloud |
| Which activity most directly supports continuous risk management after initial assessment? | Scheduled reassessments and automated control monitoring |
| In CSA v4.0, supplier (provider) assessments rely most on which three inputs? | Self-attestations, third-party audit reports, and contractual commitments |
| Which of the following directly demonstrates alignment between governance and compliance functions? | Mapping organizational controls to external standards (e.g., CCM ↔ ISO 27001) and integrating results into risk reporting |
| What is the effect of moving from SaaS to IaaS in the service model continuum on risk management responsibilities? | Customer assumes more operational and security risk |
| Why might smaller SaaS providers pose additional governance risk? | They may lack mature compliance programs or resources for independent audits |
| In ERM, what determines whether a particular cloud risk is acceptable? | The organization’s risk tolerance and asset criticality |
| Which of the following is an example of a “governance gap” mitigation measure? | Customer implements additional monitoring and reporting to compensate for absent contractual oversight |
| Which governance gap is created if a concern is not covered in the contract? | Enforcement gap—no mechanism exists to compel compliance |
| What is the most significant governance issue unique to community clouds? | Coordinating and enforcing agreements among multiple member organizations |
| In cloud governance, what role do internal audit functions play? | Provide independent assurance that governance processes and controls are operating as intended |
| What governance consideration distinguishes a hosted private cloud from a self-hosted private cloud? | Hosted private clouds still require contractual governance with the vendor |
| If a cloud customer cannot negotiate custom SLAs with a public CSP, which governance mechanism should be emphasized instead? | Continuous monitoring and risk acceptance procedures |
| Wic statement best describes the role of the CSA STAR Registry in governance? | It lists provider assurance documentation based on CCM and CAIQ mappings |
| Which governance challenge arises from rapid provider innovation? | Contractual clauses and audits may lag behind new services, creating unmanaged risk |
| Which ISO standard defines general principles and guidelines for risk management? | ISO 31000:2009 |
| A provider in one jurisdiction is subpoenaed for data belonging to a customer in another. What is this scenario called? | Cross-border discovery |
| Which regulation compels Chinese organizations to store personal data of local citizens within China? | 2017 Cybersecurity Law |
| Which law introduced GDPR’s global reach principle, applying to organizations processing EU residents’ data regardless of location? | General Data Protection Regulation (EU) 2016/679 |
| Which legal framework was replaced by the EU–U.S. Privacy Shield invalidation in 2020? | Safe Harbor |
| Which of the following would not typically be a key contractual component of a cloud service agreement? | Source code compilation flags |
| Which of the following clauses is essential in a cloud service agreement for legal accountability? | Indemnification and liability limitation |
| Which factor most determines which country’s laws apply in a cross-border cloud arrangement? | Jurisdiction and choice-of-law clause in the contract |
| Which is not a common legal issue described by CSA Domain 3? | API rate limiting |
| What is a Hold Notice in e-discovery? | Instruction to suspend normal data deletion processes to preserve potential evidence |
| Why should a CSP maintain an audit trail of data access for legal compliance? | To demonstrate accountability and support investigations or e-discovery |
| What is the primary purpose of indemnification in a cloud contract? | To allocate financial responsibility if one party’s actions cause losses or legal claims |
| When a CSP claims “we comply with GDPR,” what must a cloud customer verify legally? | That compliance applies to the specific services and data-processing activities in scope |
| What is the best practice before signing a cloud service contract from a legal standpoint? | Comprehensive legal review of governing law, jurisdiction, liability, data protection, and audit clauses |
| Which of the following best mitigates exposure under data breach notification laws? | Encryption of personal data rendering it unreadable to unauthorized parties |
| In China’s 2017 Cybersecurity Law, which entity must comply with stricter rules for data handling and cross-border transfers? | Network operators and critical information infrastructure operators |
| In cloud contracts, a “Force Majeure” clause covers: | Uncontrollable external events (natural disasters, wars) excusing performance obligations |
| What is a critical legal risk when cloud data is stored across multiple jurisdictions? | Conflicting or overlapping data protection obligations from different laws |
| Which principle requires that data collected for one purpose not be used for incompatible purposes? | Purpose limitation |
| Which jurisdiction introduced the concept of Personal Information Protection Law (PIPL) similar to GDPR? | China |
| Why is contract negotiation typically more constrained with large public SaaS providers? | Multitenancy requires standardized terms that can’t easily be customized per customer |
| What is the most important contractual mechanism to ensure evidence access during legal disputes? | Defined audit and e-discovery support clauses in the SLA |
| Which of the following best defines regulatory arbitrage in cloud computing? | Selecting jurisdictions to minimize or avoid compliance obligations |
| Which U.S. regulation obliges healthcare cloud providers to sign Business Associate Agreements (BAAs)? | HIPAA |
| Under GDPR, what legal concept requires that personal data be processed only for specified, legitimate purposes? | Purpose limitation principle |
| What must an organization do when served with an e-discovery request involving data stored in the cloud? | Coordinate with provider to preserve, collect, and produce responsive data without violating privacy or jurisdictional laws |
| Why is it important to consider provider financial stability during supplier assessment? | To ensure provider longevity and reduce risk of sudden service disruption or data loss |
| Which governance risk is unique to hybrid environments? | Inconsistent control enforcement across connected clouds and data centers |
| In enterprise risk management (ERM), who retains ultimate ownership of risk? | Cloud customer’s executive leadership |
| Why is transitive trust a key consideration when relying on third-party audits? | It determines whether the auditor’s credibility and scope are sufficient to substitute for direct assessment |
| Which governance principle aligns with COBIT 5? | Distinguish governance (set direction) from management (execute) |
| According to CSA v4.0, the contract between provider and customer is primarily used to: | Extend governance mechanisms and allocate responsibilities |
| Which metric best indicates effective governance of a CSP relationship? | Timely completion of reassessments and remediation of control gaps |
| Which standard provides governance guidance for information security? | ISO/IEC 27014 |
| Which governance document should specify how the private-cloud vendor keeps its platform up to date? | Contract clause or SLA requiring version updates within a defined period after release |
| Which risk-treatment option involves ceasing an activity entirely? | Avoid |
| Which document identifies what portion of risk management each party assumes in a cloud relationship? | Contract and SLA with shared responsibility matrix |
| Which term best describes risk remaining after control implementation but before insurance coverage? | Residual risk |
| What is the most direct method to align risk decisions with business strategy? | Include risk criteria in enterprise governance frameworks and steering committees |
| Which contract clause can obligate a CSP to provide evidence of third-party audits? | Audit rights clause |
| Which scenario most clearly represents a legal jurisdiction conflict? | Data stored in country A is demanded by court order from country B with conflicting privacy laws |
| What is the principal obligation of a data controller under most international privacy laws when using a cloud provider? | To ensure adequate technical and organizational measures are taken to protect personal data |
| What does the “Standard of Care” concept in legal frameworks refer to? | The level of diligence and security measures a reasonable organization should apply |
| Why does the CSA recommend seeking legal counsel in every jurisdiction involved in cloud operations? | Because laws and regulations governing data protection vary and may apply concurrently based on multiple factors (location, contract, subject, etc.) |
| Which international organization first articulated the “Fair Information Principles” forming the basis of many privacy laws? | OECD (Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development) |
| Which legislation introduced mandatory data breach notification in Australia in 2017? | Privacy Amendment (Notifiable Data Breaches) to the Privacy Act 1988 |
| In a cloud contract, a limitation of liability clause typically: | Caps the amount of damages either party can claim |
| What document should specify provider obligations for security breach notifications? | The Service Agreement or Data Processing Addendum (DPa) |
| Under the GDPR, what must organizations demonstrate to prove compliance (“accountability”)? | That they have implemented appropriate technical and organizational measures and can evidence them |
| When a CSP subcontracts a data processing function to another vendor, what must the original data controller ensure? | That the subcontractor provides equivalent data protection measures and is contractually bound to them |
| In legal discovery, what is “spoliation”? | Unauthorized alteration or destruction of evidence |
| Why is ERM broader than information security? | It includes non-technical risks such as financial, legal, and operational |
| Which action ensures continuity of governance when using multiple CSPs? | Establish a unified cloud-governance framework with consistent policies and control baselines |
| What is the main contractual challenge when governing a multitenant public cloud? | Each tenant can demand unique operational controls, but standardization limits customization |
| What is the primary governance tool to extend organizational control over an external CSP? | Service contract and SLA clauses |
| Which risk management phase follows “identify control gaps” in CSA’s simple process model? | Design and implement controls to fill the gaps |
| Which factor most influences whether risk management activities can be automated? | Availability of structured provider APIs and compliance reports |
| When a CSP refuses audit access due to multitenancy concerns, what is the usual legal compromise? | Third-party independent audit reports shared under NDA |
| What is the main difference between data controller and data processor roles under privacy law? | The controller determines purposes and means of processing, while the processor acts on behalf of the controller |
| F2 | F2 |
| In risk assessment, “residual risk” refers to: | Risk remaining after existing controls are applied |
| Why might a public cloud’s multitenancy reduce governance flexibility? | Shared infrastructure requires uniform processes, limiting per-customer customization |
| The primary purpose of periodic provider reassessments is to: | Confirm ongoing alignment of provider controls with contractual and regulatory requirements |
| Which governance element ensures contractual clauses remain effective as laws evolve? | Periodic legal review and contract update process |
| Which governance practice mitigates risk of provider feature changes that affect compliance? | Contract clauses mandating change notification and customer impact review |
| How does the shared responsibility model affect ERM? | Divides control implementation between provider and consumer but does not transfer overall accountability from the consumer |
| What type of audit evidence gives the highest assurance for governance validation? | Independent third-party attestations scoped to the relevant services |
| When using cyber-insurance as a risk transfer mechanism, CSA v4.0 warns that: | It may cover only financial losses and exclude intangible impacts like reputation damage |
| Which principle best summarizes why governance cannot be outsourced when using a cloud provider? | Governance is an internal accountability function that cannot be transferred by contract |
| Which deployment model typically allows full customization of governance controls but at higher cost? | Hosted private cloud |
| Which activity most directly supports continuous risk management after initial assessment? | Scheduled reassessments and automated control monitoring |
| In CSA v4.0, supplier (provider) assessments rely most on which three inputs? | Self-attestations, third-party audit reports, and contractual commitments |
| Which of the following directly demonstrates alignment between governance and compliance functions? | Mapping organizational controls to external standards (e.g., CCM ↔ ISO 27001) and integrating results into risk reporting |
| What is the effect of moving from SaaS to IaaS in the service model continuum on risk management responsibilities? | Customer assumes more operational and security risk |
| Why might smaller SaaS providers pose additional governance risk? | They may lack mature compliance programs or resources for independent audits |
| In ERM, what determines whether a particular cloud risk is acceptable? | The organization’s risk tolerance and asset criticality |
| Which of the following is an example of a “governance gap” mitigation measure? | Customer implements additional monitoring and reporting to compensate for absent contractual oversight |
| Which governance gap is created if a concern is not covered in the contract? | Enforcement gap—no mechanism exists to compel compliance |
| What is the most significant governance issue unique to community clouds? | Coordinating and enforcing agreements among multiple member organizations |
| In cloud governance, what role do internal audit functions play? | Provide independent assurance that governance processes and controls are operating as intended |
| What governance consideration distinguishes a hosted private cloud from a self-hosted private cloud? | Hosted private clouds still require contractual governance with the vendor |
| If a cloud customer cannot negotiate custom SLAs with a public CSP, which governance mechanism should be emphasized instead? | Continuous monitoring and risk acceptance procedures |
| Wic statement best describes the role of the CSA STAR Registry in governance? | It lists provider assurance documentation based on CCM and CAIQ mappings |
| Which governance challenge arises from rapid provider innovation? | Contractual clauses and audits may lag behind new services, creating unmanaged risk |
| Which ISO standard defines general principles and guidelines for risk management? | ISO 31000:2009 |
| A provider in one jurisdiction is subpoenaed for data belonging to a customer in another. What is this scenario called? | Cross-border discovery |
| Which regulation compels Chinese organizations to store personal data of local citizens within China? | 2017 Cybersecurity Law |
| Which law introduced GDPR’s global reach principle, applying to organizations processing EU residents’ data regardless of location? | General Data Protection Regulation (EU) 2016/679 |
| Which legal framework was replaced by the EU–U.S. Privacy Shield invalidation in 2020? | Safe Harbor |
| Which of the following would not typically be a key contractual component of a cloud service agreement? | Source code compilation flags |
| Which of the following clauses is essential in a cloud service agreement for legal accountability? | Indemnification and liability limitation |
| Which factor most determines which country’s laws apply in a cross-border cloud arrangement? | Jurisdiction and choice-of-law clause in the contract |
| Which is not a common legal issue described by CSA Domain 3? | API rate limiting |
| What is a Hold Notice in e-discovery? | Instruction to suspend normal data deletion processes to preserve potential evidence |
| Why should a CSP maintain an audit trail of data access for legal compliance? | To prevent billing errors |
| What is the primary purpose of indemnification in a cloud contract? | To allocate financial responsibility if one party’s actions cause losses or legal claims |
| When a CSP claims “we comply with GDPR,” what must a cloud customer verify legally? | That compliance applies to the specific services and data-processing activities in scope |
| What is the best practice before signing a cloud service contract from a legal standpoint? | Comprehensive legal review of governing law, jurisdiction, liability, data protection, and audit clauses |
| Which of the following best mitigates exposure under data breach notification laws? | Encryption of personal data rendering it unreadable to unauthorized parties |
| In China’s 2017 Cybersecurity Law, which entity must comply with stricter rules for data handling and cross-border transfers? | Network operators and critical information infrastructure operators |
| In cloud contracts, a “Force Majeure” clause covers: | Uncontrollable external events (natural disasters, wars) excusing performance obligations |
| What is a critical legal risk when cloud data is stored across multiple jurisdictions? | Conflicting or overlapping data protection obligations from different laws |
| Which principle requires that data collected for one purpose not be used for incompatible purposes? | Purpose limitation |
| Which jurisdiction introduced the concept of Personal Information Protection Law (PIPL) similar to GDPR? | China |
| Why is contract negotiation typically more constrained with large public SaaS providers? | Multitenancy requires standardized terms that can’t easily be customized per customer |
| What is the most important contractual mechanism to ensure evidence access during legal disputes? | Defined audit and e-discovery support clauses in the SLA |
| Which of the following best defines regulatory arbitrage in cloud computing? | Selecting jurisdictions to minimize or avoid compliance obligations |
| Which U.S. regulation obliges healthcare cloud providers to sign Business Associate Agreements (BAAs)? | HIPAA |
| Under GDPR, what legal concept requires that personal data be processed only for specified, legitimate purposes? | Purpose limitation principle |
| What must an organization do when served with an e-discovery request involving data stored in the cloud? | Coordinate with provider to preserve, collect, and produce responsive data without violating privacy or jurisdictional laws |
| Why is it important to consider provider financial stability during supplier assessment? | To ensure provider longevity and reduce risk of sudden service disruption or data loss |
| Which governance risk is unique to hybrid environments? | Inconsistent control enforcement across connected clouds and data centers |
| In enterprise risk management (ERM), who retains ultimate ownership of risk? | Cloud customer’s executive leadership |
| Why is transitive trust a key consideration when relying on third-party audits? | It determines whether the auditor’s credibility and scope are sufficient to substitute for direct assessment |
| Which governance principle aligns with COBIT 5? | Distinguish governance (set direction) from management (execute) |
| According to CSA v4.0, the contract between provider and customer is primarily used to: | Extend governance mechanisms and allocate responsibilities |
| Which metric best indicates effective governance of a CSP relationship? | Timely completion of reassessments and remediation of control gaps |
| Which standard provides governance guidance for information security? | ISO/IEC 27014 |
| Which governance document should specify how the private-cloud vendor keeps its platform up to date? | Contract clause or SLA requiring version updates within a defined period after release |
| Which risk-treatment option involves ceasing an activity entirely? | Avoid |
| Which document identifies what portion of risk management each party assumes in a cloud relationship? | Contract and SLA with shared responsibility matrix |
| Which term best describes risk remaining after control implementation but before insurance coverage? | Residual risk |
| What is the most direct method to align risk decisions with business strategy? | Include risk criteria in enterprise governance frameworks and steering committees |
| Which contract clause can obligate a CSP to provide evidence of third-party audits? | Audit rights clause |
| Which scenario most clearly represents a legal jurisdiction conflict? | Data stored in country A is demanded by court order from country B with conflicting privacy laws |
| What is the principal obligation of a data controller under most international privacy laws when using a cloud provider? | To ensure adequate technical and organizational measures are taken to protect personal data |
| What does the “Standard of Care” concept in legal frameworks refer to? | The level of diligence and security measures a reasonable organization should apply |
| Why does the CSA recommend seeking legal counsel in every jurisdiction involved in cloud operations? | Because laws and regulations governing data protection vary and may apply concurrently based on multiple factors (location, contract, subject, etc.) |
| Which international organization first articulated the “Fair Information Principles” forming the basis of many privacy laws? | OECD (Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development) |
| Which legislation introduced mandatory data breach notification in Australia in 2017? | Privacy Amendment (Notifiable Data Breaches) to the Privacy Act 1988 |
| In a cloud contract, a limitation of liability clause typically: | Caps the amount of damages either party can claim |
| What document should specify provider obligations for security breach notifications? | The Service Agreement or Data Processing Addendum (DPa) |
| Under the GDPR, what must organizations demonstrate to prove compliance (“accountability”)? | That they have implemented appropriate technical and organizational measures and can evidence them |
| When a CSP subcontracts a data processing function to another vendor, what must the original data controller ensure? | That the subcontractor provides equivalent data protection measures and is contractually bound to them |
| In legal discovery, what is “spoliation”? | Unauthorized alteration or destruction of evidence |
| Why is ERM broader than information security? | It includes non-technical risks such as financial, legal, and operational |
| Which action ensures continuity of governance when using multiple CSPs? | Establish a unified cloud-governance framework with consistent policies and control baselines |
| What is the main contractual challenge when governing a multitenant public cloud? | Each tenant can demand unique operational controls, but standardization limits customization |
| What is the primary governance tool to extend organizational control over an external CSP? | Service contract and SLA clauses |
| Which risk management phase follows “identify control gaps” in CSA’s simple process model? | Design and implement controls to fill the gaps |
| Which factor most influences whether risk management activities can be automated? | Availability of structured provider APIs and compliance reports |
| When a CSP refuses audit access due to multitenancy concerns, what is the usual legal compromise? | Third-party independent audit reports shared under NDA |
| What is the main difference between data controller and data processor roles under privacy law? | The controller determines purposes and means of processing, while the processor acts on behalf of the controller |
| In the EU’s legal context, what must exist for a lawful international data transfer to a non-adequate country? | Written contracts using approved Standard Contractual Clauses (SCCs) or Binding Corporate Rules (BCRs) |
| In legal terms, what does chain of custody ensure during e-discovery? | Integrity and authenticity of evidence from collection to presentation |
| Which legal concept allows individuals to demand erasure of their data? | Right to be forgotten |
| Which legal principle prevents data controllers from transferring personal data to jurisdictions lacking “adequate protection”? | Cross-border transfer restriction |
| Hybrid-cloud governance must at minimum ensure: | A common baseline of controls across interconnected environments |
| According to CSA v4.0, what is the best mitigation when a provider’s audit scope excludes key security controls? | Demand expanded audit scope or implement compensating internal controls |
| Which of the following best describes data localization laws? | Mandate certain categories of data remain stored within national borders |
| Which U.S. law compels providers to disclose data to law enforcement under specific warrants, even if stored abroad? | CLOUD Act (Clarifying Lawful Overseas Use of Data Act) |
| When personal data is transferred to another jurisdiction under a legal derogation (e.g., consent), what must still be ensured? | Transparency, proportionality, and continued data subject protection |
| Which of the following is not one of the four elements in the CSA’s simplified hierarchy of governance and risk? | Financial accounting controls |
| Which document provides the most detailed mapping between cloud security controls and multiple compliance frameworks? | CSA Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) |
| What is the major risk of “data sprawl” in multi-tenant cloud environments from a legal standpoint? | Difficulty ensuring all copies are subject to proper jurisdictional and contractual protections |
| Which governance artifact is internal rather than contractual? | Internal service-level agreement within a self-hosted private cloud |
| What is the main purpose of a jurisdiction clause in a cloud contract? | To specify which country’s laws govern the contract and where disputes are resolved |
| Why does multi-jurisdictional data storage complicate e-discovery? | Conflicting preservation, privacy, and disclosure laws can restrict or compel access simultaneously |