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Chapter 20
Chapter 20 Medical Microbiology
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Laboratory analysis used to identify a pathogen include the following: | Biochemical test DNA testing (also known as PCR testing) Microbial culture |
| The scientific study of microorganisms and their activities | Microbiology |
| A membrane lining body passages or cavities that open to the outside | Mucous membrane |
| Harmless non-pathogenic microorganisms that normally reside in many parts of the body but do not cause disease | Normal flora |
| Bacteria that have a rod shape | Bacilli |
| Bacteria that have a round shape | Cocci |
| Capable of being transmitted directly or indirectly from one person to another | Contagious |
| The propagation of a mass of microorganisms in a laboratory culture medium | Culture |
| A mixture of nutrients on which microorganisms are grown in the laboratory | Culture medium |
| A test result denoting that a condition is absent when it is actually present | False-negative result |
| In microbiology, the act of placing a culture in a chamber (incubator) that provides optimal growth requirements for the multiplication of the organisms, such as the proper temperature, humidity, and darkness | Incubate |
| The interval of time between the invasion by a pathogenic microorganism and the appearance of the first symptoms of disease. May range from a few days to several months. During this time the pathogen is growing and multiplying. | Incubation period |
| The condition in which the body, or part of it, is invaded by a pathogen | Infection |
| A disease caused by a pathogen that produces harmful effects on its host (also known as a communicable disease) | Infectious disease |
| To introduce microorganisms into a culture medium for growth and multiplication | Inoculate |
| A small sample or part taken from the body to represent the whole | Specimen |
| Bacteria that have a spiral or curved shape | Spirilla |
| The body tries to stop the invasion with its second line of natural defense mechanisms which includes: | Inflammation, phagocytosis by the white blood cells, and the production of antibodies |
| Is a short period in which the first symptoms that indicate an approaching disease occur. Headache and a feeling of illness are common. | Prodromal period |
| Is when the disease is at its peak and symptoms are fully developed. Fever is a common symptom of many infectious disease. | Acute period |
| Is when symptoms of the disease begin to subside | Decline period |
| Is the stage in which the patient regained strength and returned to the state of good health | Convalescent period |
| Infection that is indirectly transmitted by tiny contaminated droplets of moisture expelled from the upper respiratory tract of an infected individual | Droplet infection |
| What does ubiquitous mean? | found everywhere |
| The groups of microorganisms known to contain species capable of causing human disease include: | Bacteria, viruses, protozoa, fungi, and animal parasites |
| What types of microorganisms are most frequently responsible for causing human diseases? | Bacteria and viruses |
| Normally present on the surface of the skin and the mucous membranes of the mouth, nose, throat, and intestine. Is usually nonpathogenic, however cuts, abrasions, and other breaks in the skin can allow invasion of the tissues resulting in mild infection. | Staphylococcus epidermitis |
| Is commonly associated with pathologic conditions such as boils, carbuncles, pimples, and impetigo, abscesses, food poisoning, and wound infections. | Staphylococcus aureus |
| Infections caused by staphylococci usually cause much pus formation (suppuration) and are termed? | Pyogenic infections |
| Are round bacteria that grow in chains | Streptococci |
| Are round bacteria that grow in grape like clusters | Staphylococci |
| Diseases caused by streptococcus include: | Strep throat, scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, pneumonia, peripheral sepsis, erysipelas, and skin conditions such as carbuncles and impetigo |
| Are round bacteria that grow in pairs | Diplococci |
| Diseases caused by diplococci include: | Pneumonia, gonorrhea, and meningitis |
| Are rod-shaped bacteria that are frequently found in the soil and air | Bacilli |
| Diseases caused by bacilli include: | Botulism, tetanus, gas gangrene, gastroenteritis (produced by salmonella food poisoning), typhoid fever, pertussis (whooping cough), bacillary dysentery, diphtheria, tuberculosis, leprosy, and plague |
| Is a species of bacillus that is found among the normal flora of the large intestine in enormous numbers | Escherichia coli |
| E. coli is normally a harmless bacterium however if it enters the urinary tract as a result of lowered resistance, poor hygiene practices, or both, it may cause a? | Urinary tract infection |
| The diagnosis of Syphilis is generally made using? | Serologic tests |
| Is a causative agent of syphilis | Treponema pallidum |
| Are the smallest living organisms | Viruses |
| Infectious diseases caused by viruses include: | Chicken pox, rubella (measles), rubella (German measles) mumps, poliomyelitis, smallpox, rabies, herpes simplex, herpes zoster, yellow fever, hepatitis, the common cold, influenza, and covid-19 |
| The type of microscope used most often for office laboratory work is the? | Compound microscope |
| The compound microscope consists of two main components: | The support system and the optical system |
| Is the flat horizontal platform on which the microscope slide is placed, it is located directly over the condenser and beneath the objective lenses | Stage |
| Graham staining allows for the direct viewing of the? | Size, shape, and growth patterns of bacteria under a microscope |
| The symptoms of covid-19 vary among individuals and may include the following: | Fever, sore throat, cough, congestion, headache, fatigue, muscle or body aches, breathing difficulties, loss of smell and taste, nausea or vomiting, diarrhea |
| Severe symptoms of covid-19 include: | Constant trouble with breathing, blue lips or face, confusion, and persistent pain or pressure in the chest known as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) |
| Is required for good visualization of a specimen with oil immersion objective | Increased light intensity |
| The light must be diminished to produce the appropriate contrast for specimen detail and to reduce glare | Low-power objective |
| Is defined as the ratio of the apparent size of an object viewed through the microscope to the actual size of the object | Magnification |
| Microscopes that have one eyepiece are called? | Monocular microscope |
| Microscopes with two eye pieces are called? | Binocular microscope |
| The objective with the shortest shaft and has a magnification of 10x | Low-power objective |
| The objective with a mid-length shaft that has a magnification of 40x | High-power objective |
| The objective with the longest shaft and has the highest power of magnification which is 100x | Oil-immersion objective |
| Is used first to obtain an approximate focus | Course adjustment knob |
| Is used to obtain the precise focusing necessary to produce a sharp, clear image | Fine adjustment knob |
| Provides a path for the light to travel on between the slide and the lens and prevents the scattering of light rays, which permits clear viewing of very small structures | immersion oil |
| Is obtained by inserting the swab into the area of the wound that contains the most drainage and gently rotating the swab from side to side to allow it to absorb completely any microorganisms present | Wound specimens |
| What are microorganisms? | Tiny living plants and animals that cannot be seen by the naked eye but must be viewed under a microscope |
| What life processes are performed within a unicellular microbe? | Ingestion of food substances and their use for energy, growth, reproduction, and excretion |
| What is meant by the following phrase: "microorganisms are ubiquitous" ? | They are found almost everywhere, in the air, in the food and water, in the soil, and in association with plants, animals, and human life |
| Describe two examples of microorganisms making up the normal flora that are beneficial to the body | Those that inhabit the intestinal tract that feed on other potential harmful microscopic organisms. Microorganisms found in the intestinal tract that synthesize vitamin K |
| What occurs when pathogens invade the body and what is the response of the body to the invasion? | The pathogen attempts to invade tissues so that it can grow and multiply and the body tries to stop the invasion with its second line of defense |
| What defense mechanisms are used by the body to stop the invasion of a pathogen once it enters the body? | Inflammation, phagocytosis by white blood cells, and the production of antibodies |
| How might the spread of a droplet infection be prevented? | Infected individuals should cover their mouths and noses while coughing and sneezing |
| In what part of the body do E. coli bacteria normally reside? | Large intestine |
| What can occur if E. coli enters the urinary tract? | Urinary tract infection |
| Guidelines that should be followed for proper care of a microscope | Always carry the microscope with two hands. Always handle the microscope so that your fingers do not touch the lenses. When not in use keep microscope covered. After each use wipe the metal stage clean with gauze or tissue. |
| Common areas of the body from which a microbiologic specimen may be obtained | Throat, nose, wounds, cervix, vagina, urethra, and rectum |
| Why should a specimen for microbial culture be processed as soon as possible after it is collected? | Delay may cause death of the pathogens or overgrowth of the specimen by normal flora |
| Precautions a medical assistant should take to prevent infection with a microbiologic specimen | Wear gloves when working with infectious materials. Eating, drinking, and handling contact lenses is strictly forbidden when working with microorganisms |
| Ways to prevent contamination of specimen with extra enormous microorganisms | All supplies used to obtain this specimen must be sterile. The specimen should not touch microorganisms from areas surrounding the collection site |
| When collecting a microbiologic specimen why is it important to indicate on the laboratory request if the patient is receiving antibiotic therapy? | Antibiotics may suppress the growth of bacteria, a factor that could cause a false-negative result |
| What is the purpose of transport medium? | Prevents the drying of the specimen and preserves it in it's original state until it reaches its destination |
| How should a collection and transport system be stored? | At room temperature |
| What is strep throat? | Bacterial infection of the back of the throat and tonsils caused by Group A Streptococcus |
| What is the age range that strep throat is most likely to affect? | 5 to 15 years old |
| What are the symptoms of strep throat? | Severe sore throat, fever of 101° f or higher, red & swollen tonsils, white patches or streaks on the throat & tonsils, severe pain and difficulty swallowing, tender swollen lymph nodes on the side of the neck, red spots at the back of throat, headache |
| How is strep throat transmitted from one person to another? | Droplet infection and by sharing personal items with the infected person |
| What is a poststreptococcal complication? | Is a morbid secondary condition that occurs as a result of a less serious primary infection |
| Poststreptococcal complications that may occur in a patient with strep throat and how can they be prevented | Rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis. Early diagnosis and treatment of strep throat with antibiotics. |
| What is the advantage of using a RADT to diagnose strep throat in the medical office? | It gives the provider immediate test results rather than requiring an overnight culture |
| Most prevalent and is responsible for most annual influenza outbreaks | Influenza Type A |
| Can cause influenza outbreaks but is usually associated with less severe infection than type A | Influenza Type B |
| Causes mild upper respiratory illness and occurs much less frequently than types A and B | Influenza Type C |
| List two ways in which influenza can be transmitted from one person to another | Primarily through droplet infection from the respiratory tract through coughing and sneezing or talking. Through indirect contact like touching an object. |
| What is the incubation period for influenza? | 2 days but it can range from 1 to 4 days |
| Strep throat is seasonal in nature with the highest prevalence occurring | During the winter and early spring |
| The incubation period for strep throat ranges from | 1 to 3 days with most patients recovering within 7 to 10 days |
| Is often used for the identification of Group A Streptococci in the medical office | RADT ( rapid antigen detection test) |
| How long do RADT test require to process? | 4 to 10 minutes |
| The advantage of the RADT is that | It gives the provider immediate test results rather than requiring an overnight culture |
| According to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) approximately how much of the US population will contract influenza each year? | 5% to 20% |
| Influenza outbreaks are more likely to occur between | The late fall and early spring |
| An infected individual with influenza is contagious approximately | 24 to 48 hours before the on set of symptoms and up to 5 to 7 days after symptoms appear |
| Symptoms of influenza vary by age but commonly include the following: | Fever and chills, muscle aches and joint pain, sore throat, runny nose, nasal congestion, dry cough, headache, fatigue, anorexia, gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting and diarrhea |
| Most individuals with healthy immune systems recover from influenza within? | 7 to 14 days with the worst symptoms lasting 3 to 4 days |
| Most, but not all, flu related deaths occur in individuals | 65 years of age or older |
| Influenza complications range in severity and can include the following: | Viral pneumonia, a worsening of a chronic medical condition, and secondary bacterial infections such as bacterial pneumonia, bronchitis, sinusitis, and otitis media |
| The primary means of preventing influenza is through an | Influenza vaccine and infection control measures |
| The influenza vaccine is recommended for all individuals ages | 6 months and older who do not have contradictations to receiving the vaccine |
| How long following an influenza vaccination does it take for antibodies to develop that provide protection against the virus strains included in the vaccine? | Approximately 2 weeks |
| Where in the community is the flu vaccine offered? | Medical offices, health departments, pharmacies, college health centers, workplaces and even schools |
| The influenza vaccine is available as | Intramuscular injection, intradermal injection, or a nasal spray |
| Infection control measures that provide reasonably effective ways to prevent the transmission of influenza include: | Practice good hand hygiene, avoid close contact with infected individuals, try not to touch your eyes, nose, or mouth, always cover your nose and mouth when you cough and sneeze, if infected stay home |
| Home care for symptoms of influenza include: | Get plenty of rest. Increase fluid intake to stay hydrated. Avoid the use of alcohol and tobacco. Take over the counter medications to relieve the symptoms of the disease. |
| Antiviral medications work by limiting the | Multiplication of the influenza virus |
| Antiviral medications lessen the severity of influenza and shorten the duration of the disease by | 1 to 2 days |
| Antiviral medications are recommended primarily for | Unvaccinated individuals infected with influenza who are at risk of developing complications from influenza |
| There are three antiviral medications recommended for the treatment of influenza they are? | Oseltamivir (Tamiflu), Zanamivir (Relenza), and Peramivir (Rapivab) |
| In the medical office what test is used to assist in the diagnosis of influenza? | RIDT (rapid influenza diagnostic test) |
| Each RIDT detects the influenza virus in one of the following ways: | Detects the presence of the influenza virus w/out identifying the type. Detects only type A virus. Detects the presence of type A & B influenza virus but does not distinguish between the two. Detects & distinguishes between the presence of type A & type B |
| In order for antiviral medications to be effective they must be administered within | 48 hours following the onset symptoms |
| A patient infected with influenza is most likely to show a positive test result within the first | 3 to 4 days after the appearance of symptoms |
| The main disadvantage of RIDT's is that | There is a high rate of false-negative test results |
| The influenza virus is most likely to be found in the | Nasopharynx |
| What is considered to be the preferred specimen for a rapid influenza test | Nasopharyngeal |
| Is the part of the pharynx above the soft palate that is directly continuous with the nasal passages | Nasopharynx |
| The preferred specimen collection device for the nasopharyngeal specimen is a | Flocked swab |
| In order to reach the nasopharyngeal mucosa the swab must be inserted to the depth that usually falls between | 4 to 6 cm (approximately 1 1/2 to 2 1/2 inches) |
| Is one of the most frequently used solid culture medium | Blood agar |
| A liquid medium is often referred to as a | Broth |
| Is frequently used to hold a solid culture medium | Petri plate |
| Most specimens taken for analysis contain a mixture of organisms because of the presence of normal flora in most parts of the body when this is the case the resulting culture is known as a | Mixed culture |
| A culture that contains only one type of microorganism is a | Pure culture |
| How are viruses cultured and identified? | Cultured on living tissue or identified using serologic test |
| A common method for sensitivity testing is the | Disc-diffusion method |
| What testing enables the provider to decide which antibiotics would most likely be effective against the infectious disease in question | Sensitivity testing |
| Sensitivity testing is always performed on a | Pure culture |
| Individuals in the community can help prevent and control Infectious disease by | Practicing good techniques of medical asepsis, obtaining proper nutrition and rest, and using good hygienic measures |
| What factors can increase an individual's risk of developing serious complications from influenza? | Asthma, chronic bronchitis, emphysema, cystic fibrosis, diabetes heart disease, kidney or liver disease, blood disorders, very obese |
| Why must a new influenza vaccine be produced each year? | Because small changes continuously take place in the genetic material of the subtype viruses resulting in new strains developing that replace the older strains |
| Three benefits that are derived from the influenza vaccine | Provides protection against virus strains included in the vaccine. Even if the vaccine does not prevent the flu it can reduce symptoms. Vaccine has only mild side effects or none at all. |
| How do antiviral medications work to treat influenza? | Work by limiting the multiplication of the influenza virus |
| How is influenza typically diagnosed? | Solely on the clinical signs and symptoms exhibited by the patient because flu symptoms are self-limiting |
| When might a rapid influenza test be performed to diagnose influenza? | When a patient is at high risk for developing complications |
| Why is the nasopharyngeal specimen preferred for a rapid influenza test? | Because influenza virus is most likely to be found in the nasopharynx |
| What is the advantage of using a flock swab to collect the nasopharyngeal specimen? | It leads to the removal of a greater number of epithelial cells |
| How can the depth to insert a nasopharyngeal swab be determined? | Visually estimating the distance between the corner of the nose and the earlobe |
| What is the purpose of culturing a microbiologic specimen? | To encourage the growth of the suspected pathogen |
| What is the purpose of adding sheep's blood to an agar culture medium? | Provides nutrients that support the growth of a variety of bacteria |
| What is the purpose of performing a sensitivity test on a bacterial culture? | To determine the best antibiotic to treat the condition |
| How are the test results interpreted when performing a disc diffusion sensitivity test? | If the pathogen is susceptible or sensitive to an antibiotic a clear zone without bacterial growth surrounds the disc. This indicates that the antibiotic was effective and destroying the pathogen. |