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Test Book Questions2

Test Book Questions 2

QuestionAnswer
Lying flat on your dorsal surface is considered to be in what position? Supine
If a fracture occurs from an underlying bone disease, it is termed as a Pathological Fracture
During a physical examination the initial inspection looks for? I Obvious deformities II Swelling III Ecchymosis IV Symmetry Obvious Deformities, Swelling, Ecchymosis, Symmetry
Pressure on the nerves in the low back that produce multiple nerve root irritation and commonly, loss of bowel and bladder control is called? Cauda Equina
A defect of the spine and spinal cord. The spinal cord does not form or close normally. A most serious form of spina bifida. Myelomeningocele
A chronic progressive disease in which cavities from in the cervical region of the spinal cord. Results in waste of the muscles in the hands and loss of sensation. Syringomyelia
Pain caused by lack of blood flow, usually during exercise. Condition usually affects the blood vessels in the legs but can affect the arms. Claudication
What tool is useful and an easy means of estimating a patients ROM? Goniometer
Periprosthetic fractures would refer to a fracture? Around a total joint replacement
Pediatric physeal fractures are described by what classification? Salter-Harris
Classifications for proximal femur fractures Garden
Classification of ankle fractures Weber
Classification for proximal humerus fractures Neer
Range of motion exams of extremities should be tested? I Passively II Actively III Supine III Prone ROM should be tested actively and passively.
The Commonly used methods of testing different modes of sensation include all of the following except? Proprioception Pain Temperature Symmetry Symmetry
Descriptions of fractures include all of the following except Incomplete Impacted Pathological Sclerotic Sclerotic
Obtaining a reasonable history is possible by following these simple rules: I Sit down - do not seem hurried II Listen to the patient without interruption III wash your hands in the patients presence Wash your hands in front of patient, sit down, and listen without interrupting.
Patients presenting with musculoskeletal problems report hand weakness during history. Pertinent questions should include all except A. Extent of weakness B. Is deformity getting worse C. Associated sensory abnormality D. Loss of fine motor control Is deformity getting worse
When describing a femoral neck fracture, which classification would you use Garden
Classification used in tibial plateau fractures Schatzker
Another name for a Hallus Valgus deformity is? Bunion
Jumper's knee is also known as? Sinding - Larsen's - Johansson disease
Common heel injury in children due to inflammation of the growth plate in the heel Severs Disease
An inflammation of the area just below the knee where the patellar tendon attaches to the tibia Osgood-Schlatter disease
A condition in which the normal round back in the upper spine is increased and results in hunchback Scheuermann's disease
A march fracture occurs most commonly in what bone Metatarsal
The sugar-tong forearm splint would minimize what motion? Pronation and supination.
Who decides if a patient is non-weight bearing or full weight bearing on an injured lower extremity? Orthopaedic physician
The suprapatellar pouch is found where in the knee in relationship to the patella? Proximal
The congenital deformity causing the scapula to be abnormally high and unusually small is known as? Sprengel's Shoulder
A fusion of two or more cervical spine bones Klippel-Feil Syndrome
A talus fracture is located in the... Foot
Kohler's Disease in the foot is an avascular osteochondritis of which bone? Navicular
The posterior projection of the vertebral body is called? The Spinous process
The Jones fracture is found at the bae of which metatarsal? Fifth metatarsal
Which tendon insertion is NOT part of the Pes Anserinus? Pectineus
When viewing a patient from the side, a posterior curvature in the thoracic spine is referred to as Kyphosis
The side-to-side curvature when the spine is viewed from the coronal plane is called Scoliosis
An increase swayback appearance of the lower lumbar spine Lordosis
Curvature of the spine to the left Levoscoliosis
Which of the following is NOT true for splinting A. They can be used for postoperative immobilization B. They can be used for fractures C. They can be used for sprains D. There is no concern for complications D. They is no concern for complications.
Which of the following classification identifies tibial plateau fractures? Schatzker
Tendinosis of the extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon causes? Lateral epicondylitis
Compression of ulnar nerve which causes inability to separate the fingers and decreased sensation of the 4th and 5th fingers Ulnar nerve entrapment
The entrapment of the medial nerve in between the trapezium, lunate and hamate which make up the carpal tunnel Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
The muscle involvement of the flexor digitorum superficialis Medial Epicondylitis
Name the 8 carpal bones Scaphoid, Lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, Hamate
What special test is used in the evaluation for de Quervaine's tenosynovitis? Finkelstein's test
Where is the point of insertion of the infraspinatus? Greater Tuberosity
Which fossa does the brachial artery and the medial nerve pass through? Antecubital
Which one of these special tests is NOT used to diagnose an ACL injury? A. Lachman B. Anterior Drawer C. Mcmurray D. Pivot Shift McMurray
When applying a short leg cast, where should the padding begin? A. At the level of the metatarsal heads B. 1" beyond the metatarsal heads C. 1" proximal to the metatarsal heads D. 1" proximal to the tibial tubercle. B. 1" beyond the metatarsal heads
Which is NOT considered a bony prominence which should be protected when applying a short leg cast? A. Fibular head B. Talus C. Malleoli D. Tibial Tubercle B. Talus
When applying a long leg cast, where should the cast end proximally? A. 1-2" proximal to the superior pole of the patella B. 3" distal to the inguinal crease C. At the superior iliac spine D. Midshaft femur B. 3" distal to the inguinal crease
A fracture of the distal articular surface of the tibia is called a Pilon
A fracture with more than two fragments is called what type of fracture Comminuted
When applying a short leg cast with a toe plate, where should the stockinette end distally? A. At the level of the metatarsal heads B. At the level of the distal phalanx of the great toe C. 1" distal to the toes D. 2" distal to the toes D. 2" Distal to the toes
Which best describes a pediatric fracture that involves the disruption of a single cortex? Greenstick
Another name for an open fracture is called? Compound
Which is NOT a description of a patella fracture A. Non displaced B. Spiral C. Transverse D. Comminuted B. Spiral
Which term is used to describe the movement of straightening a joint? Extension
When utilizing a cast saw the MOST dangerous technique to use for the cast removal is? Dragging across in a straight line
Damage to the peroneal nerve can cause Foot drop
The length of a volar splint should be from Distal palmer crease to 2" from antecubital crease
Indications for utilizing a short arm cast include all of the following except A. Distal radius injuries B. Radial head Injuries C. Carpal injuries D. Disal ulnar injuries B. Radial Head Injuries
Which is the most common graft site in the pelvis? Iliac crest
Which is NOT a foot x-ray A. Mortise B. Anteroposterior C. Lateral D. Oblique A. Mortise
Where is the location of a "clay shoveler's" fracture? Spine
Wrist drop is a result of which nerve being affected? Radial nerve
Hallux valgus is defined as "what" deviation of the great toe? Lateral
Which of the following is not part of the ankle mortise? A. Tibial plafond B. Lateral Malleolus C. Talus D. Calcaneus D. Calcaneus
Which of the following are examples of cast complications? A Burns B Constricting Edema C Decubitus Ulcer D Drop Foot E Superior mesenteric artery syndrome All of the above
All of the following can be considered cast padding except? A. Cotton Roll B. Moleskin C. Sheet Wadding D. Synthetic Roll B. Moleskiin
A rigid or semi-rigid, non-circumferential material used to provide support or immobilization to a body part is called a Splint
Which of the following tests are for the shoulder A. O'Connel Test B. O'Brien Test C. Ortolani Test D. Obor Test B. O'Brien Test
The fixation of a fracture in the position that it presents at the time of injury is called? In Situ
Used to test for development dysplasia of the hip Ortolani Test
Used to test for tightness of the iliotibial band The Ober Test
All of the following are found in the upper extermity EXCEPT A. ECRB B. FCR C. CMC D. ITB D. ITB
The term "Bohler's Angle" would be referenced to which anatomical location? The Calcaneus
A buckle type fracture of the radius in children affecting metaphyseal bone is commonly called a Torus Fracture
A fracture of the cartilaginous surface of a bone is called Osteochondral fracture
a condition with clinical signs of a fracture but no radiographic evidence Occult fracture
an overuse injury which occurs when muscles become fatigued and are unable to absorb added shock Stress fracture
a type of stress fracture that is due to abnormal stresses on a normal bone Fatigue fracture
The fracture pattern of a comminuted fracture is described as Having more than two fragments
Where is the largest sesamoid bone found in the human body Knee
A hangman's fracture occurs through the pars interarticularis of which cervical vertebra? Second
A fracture that involves the articular surface of a bone is called An Intra articular fracture
The depression in the humeral neck and head that transmits the long head of the biceps tendon is called Bicipital groove
A rough, triangular area on the anterolateral surface of the middle of the humerus to which the deltoid muscle attaches The Deltoid Tuberosity
The prominent area of bone at the top of the humerus and is the attachment for the supraspinatus and infraspinatus The Greater Tuberosity
The Technical term for the control of arterial and/or venous bleeding in the surgical site is what Hemostasis
A solid swelling of clotted blood within the tissue Hematoma
Bleeding into joint spaces Hemarthrosis
An escape of blood from the ruptured blood vessel Hemorrahage
Radiographic indicators of osteoarthritis include all of the following except? A. Joint space narrowing B. Osteophytes C. Subchondral sclerosis D. Complete disruption of the cortex D. Complete disruption of the cortex
The fracture pattern of a transverse fracture is described as a Being at a right angle to the axis of the shaft
The fracture pattern of an incomplete fracture is described as Only one cortex is disrupted
All of the following make up the rotator cuff EXCEPT the A. Teres Major B. Supraspinatus C. Infraspinatus D. Subscapularis A. Teres Major
Which plexus travels through the shoulder region down through the arm to the hand Brachial Plexus
The Salter-Harris classification that has an assumed fracture through the physis only is Salter-Harris 1
Which fracture listed below is described as a fracture of the radius with a dislocation of the distal ulna Galeazzi Fracture
A pathologic condition in which the blood supply to the subchondral region of a joint disruption is known as Avascular Necrsis
A progressive joint disorder that also affects the articular surface Osteoarthritis
A pathological state of the softening and erosion and the articular surface Chondromalacia
the demineralization that causes decreased bone density Osteoporosis
A fracture of the proximal third of the ulna with a dislocation of the head of the radius Monteggia Fracture
When applying a hip spica cast the parameters extend from 3" below the nipple line to the metatarsal heads
When applying a short leg cast for a stable fracture, flexing the knee at 90 degrees while sitting relaxes the Gastrocnemius
a shallow depression in the back of the knee joint Popliteal Fossa
Muscle below the Gastrocnemius Soleus
One of the three posterior thigh muscles Hamstring
Wedging a cast is done to Correct unwanted angulations
When applying a muenster cast, where should the cast padding end proximally Mid-section of the biceps
Who is responsible for aseptic technique in the operating room A. Scrub Nurse B. Surgical Technician C. Orthopedic Technologist D. Orthopaedic Surgeon All of them
Which of the following areas on a surgical gown are considered unsterile A. Neckline B. Under the arms C. Front D. Sleeve cuff The Neckline and sleeve cuffs
After Laying out the surgical instruments on a sterile field, you should do the following A Cover the instruments B. Set up the initial instruments in advance C. Leave the instruments unguarded Set up the initial instruments in advance
You are preparing yourself for surgery and researching the triangular fibrocartilage complex. Knowing this, you will be assisting in surgery on what part of the body Wrist
Which of the following is the purpose of any traction setup A. To prevent or reduce muscle spasm B. To immobilize a joint or part of the body C. To reduce a fracture or dislocation D. To treat joint pathology All of them
Maximum weight for a Balkan Frame is 450lbs
Recommended maximum weight without using the curved clamp bar 200lbs
The carpal bone that is hardest to heal when fracture because of limited supply is the Scaphoid
A patient presents to the Emergency department after suffering trauma to the forearm. X-rays show a colles' fracture. The recommended immobilization for this injury is? Sugartong Splint
An infection of the bone is called Osteomyelitis
When Bone density is lower than normal peak density Osteopenia
formation of bone spurs or osteophytes Osteophytosis
A benign noncancerous tumor that develops during childhood or adolescence Osteochondroma
What is the type of fracture that goes straight across the bone Transverse
If you have a fracture of a long bone and the s-rays demonstrate that the fracture is in varus angulation and your doctor wants you to do an open wedge on the cast. The following cut is made Cut 2/3 of the cast around the medial side of the cast
Created by: preto4973
 

 



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