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CCA Mock Prep
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Identify the ICD-10-CM code(s) for a liveborn male infant, transferred to another hospital for care of tetralogy of Fallot: | Q21.3 |
| Per CPT guidelines, a separate procedure is ________. | Considered to be an integral part of another, larger service |
| Identify the correct ICD-10-PCS code for posterior spinal fusion of the anterior column at L2-L4 with BAK cage interbody fusion device, open. | 0SG10AJ |
| Identify the correct diagnosis code(s) for adenoma of the left adrenal cortex with Conn’s syndrome. | D35.02, E26.01 |
| Identify the ICD-10-CM diagnosis code(s) for poorly controlled Type 2 diabetes mellitus, mild malnutrition. | E11.65, E44.1 |
| ICD-10-CM codes must be a minimum length of how many characters? | Three |
| Identify the correct ICD-10-CM diagnosis code(s) for a patient with sepsis due to Staphylococcus aureus. | A41.01 |
| Discharge services provided to a normal newborn, admitted and discharged on the same day, is coded ________. | 99463 |
| Identify the ICD-10-PCS code(s) for insertion of a dual-chamber cardiac pacemaker battery via an incision in the subcutaneous tissue of the chest wall, and percutaneous transvenous insertion of right atrial and right ventricular leads. | 0JH606Z, 02H63JZ, 02HK3JZ |
| The patient has been diagnosed with acute depression, sleep-related teeth grinding and psychogenic dysmenorrhea. The appropriate code assignment is | F32.9, F45.8, G47.63 |
| Identify the correct ICD-10-CM diagnosis code(s) for a patient with seizures; epilepsy is ruled out. | R56.9 |
| Identify the correct ICD-10-CM diagnosis code(s) and sequencing for a patient with disseminated candidiasis secondary to AIDS-related complex. | B20, B37.7 |
| PCS code for thrombectomy of arteriovenous dialysis graft. The operative report indicates that the AV graft is located in the right upper arm, with the right cephalic vein being obstructed with the thrombus. An incision was performed as the approach. | 05CD0ZZ |
| Identify the correct ICD-10-CM diagnosis code(s) for a patient with an elevated glucose tolerance test. | R73.02 |
| Standard terminology used to code medical procedures and services? | CPT |
| Coronary artery bypass of two sites, one using the left internal mammary artery to the left proximal anterior descending artery, and one using the right internal mammary artery to the distal left anterior descending artery, both done via thoracotomy. PC | 02100Z8, 02100Z9 |
| The codes in the musculoskeletal section of CPT may be used by ________. | Any physician |
| Which character in an ICD-10-CM diagnosis code provides information regarding encounter of care? | Seventh |
| Notes appearing under a 3-character code apply to which of the following? | To all codes within that category |
| A 6-month-old child is scheduled for a clinic visit for a routine well-child examination. The physician documents, “well child, born premature.” | Z00.129, P07.30 |
| A 45-year-old female is admitted for blood loss anemia due to dysfunctional uterine bleeding. | D50.0, N93.8 |
| What is the best reference tool to determine how CPT codes should be assigned? | American Medical Association’s CPT Assistant newsletter |
| Assignment of benefits is a contract between a physician and Medicare in which the physician agrees to bill Medicare directly for covered services and the beneficiary for ________ and to accept the Medicare payment as payment in full. | Coinsurance or deductible |
| What is the name of the national program to detect and correct improper payments in the Medicare Fee for-Service (FFS) program? | Recovery audit contractors (RACs) |
| The Office of Inspector General’s (OIG) Compliance Program for Hospitals recommends that hospitals appoint a chief compliance officer and: | Establish a compliance committee |
| Which of the following software applications would be used to aid in the coding function in a physician’s office? | Encoder |
| What is the database used by healthcare facilities to house billing information for all services provided to patients? | Chargemaster (CDM) |
| The focus on the delivery, measurement and provision of quality patient care had led to several initiatives in the last years that link reimbursement to quality care. These initiatives are referred to as: | Value-base purchasing |
| Several key principles require appropriate physician documentation to secure payment from the insurer. Which answer (listed here) fails to impact payment based on physician responsibility? | Documenting the charges and services on the itemized bill. |
| The charge description master contains all of the following general data elements except: | DRG assignment |
| If a provider believes a service may be denied by Medicare because it could be considered unnecessary, the provider must notify the patient before the treatment begins by using a(n) ________. | Advance beneficiary notice (ABN) |
| What type of data is exemplified by the insured party’s member identification number? | Financial data |
| Corporate compliance programs were released by the OIG for hospitals to develop and implement their own compliance programs. All of the following except ________ are basic elements of a corporate compliance program. | Medical staff appointee for documentation compliance |
| Each year the OIG develops a work plan that details areas of compliance it will be investigating for that year. What is the expectation of the hospital in relation to the OIG work plan? | Hospitals should plan their compliance and auditing projects around the OIG work plan to ensure they are in compliance with the target areas in the plan. |
| A coding compliance program should contain the same components as the organization’s: | Compliance plan |
| Which of the following issues compliance program guidance? | HHS Office of Inspector General (OIG) |
| What program has been in place in hospitals for years and has been required by the Medicare and Medicaid programs and accreditation standards? | Quality improvement |
| What is the area responsible for limiting disclosure of private matters including the responsibility to use, disclose, or release such information only with the knowledge and consent of the individual? | Confidentiality |
| What is an effective compliance program should include some basic elements to comply with state and federal laws. Identified; and ________ | Penalties for non-compliance of standards |
| The protection measures and tools for safeguarding information and information systems is a definition of ________. | Data security |
| An individual designated as an inpatient coder may have access to an electronic medical record to code the record. Under what access security mechanism is the coder allowed access to the system? | Role-based |
| A system that provides alerts and reminders to clinicians is a(n) ________. | Clinical decision support system |
| The Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (FRCP) incorporated the pre-trial process through the creation of: | Depositions |
| The CIA of security includes confidentiality, data integrity, and data ________. | Availability |
| What is the legal term used to define the protection of health information in a patient–provider relationship? | Confidentiality |
| A 32-year-old woman in her 30th week of gestation is evaluated in her obstetrician’s office for her second pregnancy with pre-existing essential hypertension. Assign the correct ICD-10-CM diagnostic code(s). | O10.013 and Z3A.30. |
| Identify the correct ICD-10-CM diagnosis code(s) and proper sequencing for urinary tract infection due to E. coli. | N39.0, B96.20 |
| Physician sees a patient in his office in the morning and then again in the afternoon at which time he sends the patient to the hospital for observation status. Later that same day, he visits the patient in the hospital and admits him as a full inpatient. | Assign one code for the inpatient admission only |
| Chapter in which certain signs and symptoms of breast disease, such as mastodynia, induration of breast, and nipple discharge, are included. | Chapter 14 Diseases of the genitourinary system |
Created by:
ClingyCarrot