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CIIP STUDY GUIDE

QuestionAnswer
What is the primary purpose of the DICOM Modality Worklist (MWL)? A. To store images in PACS B. To provide scheduled exam data to modalities C. To verify DICOM connectivity D. To compress images before sending B. To provide scheduled exam data to modalities.
Which DICOM service is used to send images from a modality to PACS? A. C-FIND B. C-MOVE C. C-GET D. C-STORE D. C-STORE
Which DICOM service is used to query for patient or study information on a remote system? A. C-FIND B. C-STORE C. C-ECHO D. C-GET A. C-FIND
Which DICOM service is used to verify network connectivity between two DICOM nodes? A. C-STORE B. C-MOVE C. C-ECHO D. C-FIND C. C-ECHO
What does a DICOM Study Instance UID uniquely identify? A. A single image B. A series of images C. One imaging study for a patient D. A patient encounter C. One imaging study for a patient
Which of the following correctly represents the DICOM hierarchy? A. Patient > Study > Series > Image B. Study > Patient > Series > Image C. Series > Study > Image D. Image > Series > Study A. Patient> Study > Series > Image
The DICOM tag (0010,0010) represents: A. Patient ID B. Patient Name C. Study Description D. Modality B. Patient Name
The DICOM tag (0008,0060) represents: A. Accession Number B. Referring Physician Name C. Modality D. Study Instance UID C. Modality
Where is image pixel data typically stored in a PACS architecture? In the RIS database In an HL7 message In the PACS database only D. On the file system / image archive
What is the primary function of a DICOM router? A. Generate HL7 orders B. Route images to destinations based on rules C. Create worklists for modalities D. Sign radiology reports B. Route images to destinations based on rules
A multi-frame DICOM object is most commonly associated with: A. CR images B. Single-slice CT C. Ultrasound cine loops D. Plain film DX C. Ultrasound cine loops
What is the primary role of the PACS database? A. Store pixel data B. Store patient demo only C. Store metadata and pointers to images D. Store HL7 messages C. Store metadata and pointers to images
Which DICOM service is typically used by a workstation to request images from an archive to itself? A. C-STORE B. C-MOVE C. C-ECHO D. MPPS B. C-MOVE
Which compression type is always reversible (no loss of data)? A. JPEG baseline B. JPEG 2000 lossy C. JPEG-LS lossless D. MPEG-4 C. JPEG-LS Lossless
What is a key risk of using lossy compression for primary diagnostic images? A. Increased file size B. Inaccurate patient ID C. Potential loss of diagnostically relevant detail D. Incompatibility with DICOM C. Potential loss of diagnostically relevant detail
Which statement best describes the DICOM header? A. Contains only pixel values B. Contains study metadata and some image parameters C. Contains database schema D. Is used only for compression B. Contains study metadata and some image parameters
In IHE Scheduled Workflow, which actor is responsible for managing images and related information? A. Order Filler B. Modality C. Image Manager/Image Archive D. Performed Procedure Step Manager C. Image Manager/Image Archive
Which DICOM component describes the information model for different types of objects (e.g., CT image, SR, etc.)? A. IOD (Information Object Definition) B. UID (Unique Identifier) C. SOP Instance D. AE Title A. IOD (Information Object Definition)
A DICOM Conformance Statement is primarily used to: A. Verify HIPAA compliance B. Compare which DICOM services devices support C. Replace user manuals D. Configure RAID levels B. Compare which DICOM services devices support
Which DICOM element uniquely identifies a device on the DICOM network? IP address Port number AE Title Study UID C. AE Title
What happens in a typical MPPS final update message? A. The order is created in RIS B. Patient demographics are updated C. The modality reports the procedure is complete with status and dose info D. The PACS compresses the study C. The modality reports the procedure is complete with status and dose info
Which of the following is an example of using DICOM Query/Retrieve (C-FIND/C-MOVE)? A. Modality checks MWL for scheduled patients B. RIS sends an order to PACS C. Rad workstation requests priors from archive D. PACS compresses old studies C. Radiologist workstation requests priors from archive
Which DICOM service class is WADO associated with? A. Storage Commitment B. Web-based access to DICOM objects C. Modality Worklist D. Structured Reporting only B. Web-based access to DICOM objects
Which of the following changes is MOST likely to break routing rules in a DICOM router? A. Changing study description B. Changing AE Titles C. Changing patient weight D. Changing image compression B. Changing AE Titles
A chest CT protocol that acquires thin-slice images but sends only thicker reformats to PACS mainly affects: A. Data security B. Storage usage C. HL7 workflow D. Patient matching B. Storage usage
A subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 (/24) allows how many usable host addresses? A. 62 B. 126 C. 254 D. 510 C. 254
Which device operates mainly at OSI Layer 3? A. Hub B. Switch (basic unmanaged) C. Router D. Repeater C. Router
Which protocol is typically used to synchronize time on PACS servers? A. DHCP B. NTP C. DNS D. SNMP B. NTP
What is the main benefit of using VLANs in a hospital network? A. Increases disk capacity B. Segments traffic for performance and security C. Compresses DICOM images D. Encrypts all traffic by default B. Segments traffic for performance and security
Which term best describes the delay between sending a packet and its receipt? A. Jitter B. Latency C. Throughput D. Bandwidth B. Latency
Which backup method saves only the data changed since the last backup of any type? A. Full B. Incremental C. Differential D. Snapshot B. Incremental
A RAID 5 array can tolerate: A. Zero disk failures B. One disk failure C. Two simultaneous disk failures D. Unlimited disk failures B. One disk failure
The primary purpose of a firewall in a PACS environment is to: A. Speed up image rendering B. Block unauthorized network traffic C. Manage RAID levels D. Route HL7 messages B. Block unauthorized network traffic
Which protocol is most commonly used to securely connect remote sites over the internet for PACS access? A. Telnet B. FTP C. VPN using IPSec or SSL D. SMTP C. VPN using IPSec or SSL
SNMP is primarily used to: A. Encrypt DICOM B. Monitor network devices and report status C. Assign IP addresses D. Query PACS worklists B. Monitor network devices and report status
Which type of storage architecture is typically used for high-performance PACS back-end storage? A. DAS (Direct Attached Storage) B. SAN (Storage Area Network) C. USB drives D. Tape-only B. SAN (Storage Area Network)
What is the main advantage of SSDs compared to HDDs in PACS servers? A. Lower cost per TB B. Faster read/write and lower latency C. Better HL7 compatibility D. Better DICOM compression B. Faster read/write and lower latency
A traceroute tool is used primarily to: A. Test RAID speed B. Determine the path packets take through the network C. Compress DICOM studies D. Check HL7 messages B. Determine the path packets take through the network
Which of the following is a common cause of intermittent PACS slowness during peak hours? A. Incorrect AE Title B. Network congestion/saturation C. Wrong DICOM tags C. Monitor miscalibration B. Network congestion/saturation
The HIPAA Security Rule is mainly concerned with: A. Image compression standards B. Protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of ePHI C. Billing codes and reimbursement D. Guaranteeing PACS uptime B. Protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of ePHI
What does “defense in depth” mean in security design? A. One very strong firewall is enough B. Multiple redundant layers of security controls C. Encrypting only the database D. Using different vendors for each device B. Multiple redundant layers of security controls
Which of the following is considered PHI in imaging? A. Pixel spacing B. Reconstruction kernel C. Patient name and date of birth D. kVp setting C. Patient name and date of birth
Which method is BEST for securing portable devices that may contain images? A. Disabling Wi-Fi B. Enforcing full-disk encryption C. Using only wired LAN D. Removing USB ports B. Enforcing full-disk encryption
A network configured with link aggregation (LACP) between PACS server and switch provides: A. Encryption B. Higher bandwidth and redundancy C. Virus protection D. Compression of DICOM traffic B. Higher bandwidth and redundancy
Which protocol is typically used to securely administer servers via the command line? A. Telnet B. RDP C. SSH D. FTP C. SSH (Secure Shell)
If name resolution fails but IP connectivity works, which service is MOST likely at fault? A. DHCP B. DNS C. NTP D. SMTP B. DNS
Which technology is commonly used to isolate a hospital’s imaging VLAN from the public internet? A. IDS/IPS B. NAT and firewall rules C. DHCP D. NTP B. NAT and firewall rules
Which metric best describes how much time a system is expected to be available over a period? A. MTTR B. MTBF C. SLA uptime percentage D. TAT C. SLA uptime percentage
A high-availability cluster for PACS is mainly designed to: A. Accelerate compression B. Provide failover if one node fails C. Replace the SAN D. Balance user training B. Provide failover if one node fails
“Least privilege” in access control means: A. Everyone has admin rights B. Users get only the minimal permissions needed to do their jobs C. Only IT has access to PACS D. Radiologists get no access B. Users get only the minimal permissions needed to do their jobs
Which imaging modality uses x-rays and rotating gantry to produce cross-sectional images? A. MRI B. CT C. Ultrasound D. PET B. CT
Which modality uses non-ionizing electromagnetic signals and strong magnets? A. CT B. MRI C. Nuclear medicine D. Fluoroscopy B. MRI
The unit “Hounsfield Unit (HU)” is associated with: A. MRI B. CT C. Ultrasound D. PET B. CT
An ultrasound transducer works by: A. Emitting and receiving sound waves B. Emitting x-rays C. Detecting gamma rays D. Generating magnetic fields A. Emitting and receiving sound waves
A common cause of metal artifacts (streaks) is in: A. CT B. Ultrasound C. MRI only D. CR A. CT
Which modality most commonly uses radiopharmaceutical tracers? A. CT B. MRI C. Nuclear medicine/PET D. Ultrasound C. Nuclear medicine/PET
Which QC process is often performed DAILY on digital radiography systems? A. Magnet shimming B. CT dose calibration C. Detector uniformity / phantom test D. Gamma camera energy window calibration C. Detector uniformity / phantom test
In MRI, magnet strength is measured in: A. Gray B. Sievert C. Tesla D. Candela C. Tesla
Which imaging parameter will most directly affect radiation dose in CT? A. Matrix size B. Slice thickness C. mAs (tube current-time product) D. Window/level C. mAs (tube current-time product)
What is the primary purpose of a grid in conventional radiography? A. Reduce scatter reaching the detector B. Increase tube current C. Decrease exposure time D. Control focal spot size A. Reduce scatter reaching the detector
In DR, the analog signal from the detector is converted to digital using: A. DICOM header B. ADC (Analog-to-Digital Converter) C. RIS interface D. HV power supply B. ADC (Analog-to-Digital Converter)
Which modality is most affected by motion artifacts causing ghosting or blurring? A. CT only B. MRI and CT C. CR only D. Ultrasound only B. MRI and CT
AEC (Automatic Exposure Control) failure in mammography most directly affects: A. Pixel pitch B. Dose and image brightness C. DICOM header D. Monitor calibration B. Dose and image brightness
Which type of monitor is typically required for primary diagnostic interpretation in radiology? A. Consumer-grade office LCD B. Medical-grade, high-luminance, calibrated display C. Laptop screen D. Projector B. Medical-grade, high-luminance, calibrated display
Gamma cameras are primarily used in: A. CT B. MRI C. Nuclear medicine D. Ultrasound C. Nuclear medicine
Which department usually manages preventive maintenance contracts for imaging equipment? A. Nutrition B. Facilities C. Biomedical/Clinical Engineering D. IT Helpdesk only C. Biomedical/Clinical Engineering
A higher matrix size (e.g., 2048×2048 vs 1024×1024) primarily affects: A. Patient dose B. Spatial resolution and file size C. DICOM header size D. Monitor brightness only B. Spatial resolution and file size
Which imaging system requires regular magnet safety checks for ferromagnetic objects? A. CT B. Ultrasound C. MRI D. DX C. MRI
Flattening filter-free (FFF) beams are associated mostly with: A. CT B. Radiotherapy C. Ultrasound D. Fluoroscopy B. Radiotherapy
In nuclear medicine, activity is commonly measured in: A. Teslas B. Hounsfield units C. Becquerels or Curies D. Gauss C. Becquerels or Curies
Which system is usually the source of truth for imaging orders? A. PACS B. RIS or EMR Order Entry C. Modality console D. QC workstation B. RIS or EMR Order Entry
HL7 ADT messages primarily communicate: A. Imaging orders B. Patient demographics and visit information C. Final reports D. Billing amounts B. Patient demographics and visit information
HL7 ORM messages are primarily used for: A. Imaging orders and scheduling B. Admissions C. Discharges D. Billing charges A. Imaging orders and scheduling
Which of the following is the MOST common source of patient misidentification in imaging? A. Incorrect compression level B. Manual re-typing of patient data at modality C. RAID rebuilds D. HL7 ACK timeouts B. Manual re-typing of patient data at modality
Radiology turnaround time (TAT) usually refers to: A. Registration to exam start B. Image acquisition to image storage C. Exam completion to final report signed time D. Exam order to billing submission C. Exam completion to final report signed time
Which step BEST reduces repeated manual entry of patient data at the modality? A. Upgrading PACS viewer B. Enabling and properly configuring MWL C. Rebuilding the archive D. Increasing storage B. Enabling and properly configuring MWL
A QC workstation is primarily used to: A. Schedule exams B. Correct demographics and manage image quality before final storage C. Code billing D. Sign reports B. Correct demographics and manage image quality before final storage
Who is typically responsible for resolving duplicate MRN issues across the enterprise? A. Radiologists B. PACS admin alone C. MPI/Registration/Health Information Management D. Vendor support only C. MPI/Registration/Health Information Management
Which is the BEST tool to visualize responsibilities and handoffs across departments in a workflow? A. Pie chart B. Swimlane diagram C. RAID log D. Histogram B. Swimlane diagram
Prefetching priors is used mainly to: A. Speed up RAID rebuilds B. Make prior relevant studies available before reading C. Delete old exams D. Improve ADT accuracy B. Make prior relevant studies available before reading
Which HL7 message is most likely sent when a patient’s demographic info is corrected (e.g., name spelling)? A. ADT A01 B. ADT A08 C. ORM O01 D. ORU R01 B. ADT A08
The FIRST step in a solid workflow/process improvement project is usually to: A. Buy new hardware B. Interview stakeholders and map current workflow C. Upgrade HL7 version D. Rewrite all SOPs B. Interview stakeholders and map current workflow
The Order Filler role in IHE Scheduled Workflow is typically implemented by: A. PACS B. RIS or EMR C. Modality D. Integration engine B. RIS or EMR
Which metric is most useful for tracking radiology service performance? A. Number of servers B. TAT by modality or exam type C. RAID rebuild time D. Number of VLANs B. TAT by modality or exam type
Which of the following is a common cause of orphaned studies (studies without orders) in PACS? A. MWL not used or misused B. Too much storage C. Over-compressed images D. Using SSDs A. MWL not used or misused
Escalation paths for critical result notifications are usually defined in: A. RAID logs B. Clinical communication policies C. Vendor marketing docs D. Firewall configs B. Clinical communication policies
Which workflow pattern spreads cases evenly among available radiologists? A. Round-robin distribution B. FIFO C. Single shared worklist, pick-any D. Manual assignment via phone A. Round-robin distribution
IHE PDI (Portable Data for Imaging) is designed primarily for: A. Teleradiology WAN transmission B. Patient-centric portable media (CD/DVD/USB) with images C. RIS scheduling D. Billing export B. Patient-centric portable media (CD/DVD/USB) with images
Which system is typically responsible for sending status updates when an exam is “completed”? A. RIS B. Modality (via MPPS) C. PACS viewer D. Billing system B. Modality (via MPPS)
Minimizing “no-show” imaging appointments is usually accomplished by: A. Increasing RAID capacity B. Automated patient reminders and robust scheduling workflow C. More compression D. Disabling ADT messages B. Automated patient reminders and robust scheduling workflow
HL7 v2.x fields within segments are separated by: A. Commas B. Pipes | C. Colons D. Semi-colons B. Pipes |
Which HL7 segment usually contains patient identification info? A. MSH B. PID C. OBR D. OBX B. PID
Which HL7 message type is usually used to transmit lab or radiology results, including reports? A. ORM B. ADT C. ORU D. QRY C. ORU
Which transport mechanism is typically used for HL7 v2.x messages? A. HTTPS with SOAP B. HTTP REST C. MLLP over TCP D. Email C. MLLP over TCP
In HL7, a “Z-segment” indicates: A. Deprecated standard field B. Custom, site-specific extension C. Error message D. Encryption block B. Custom, site-specific extension
Which integration engine function is MOST critical for a CIIP to understand? A. Pixel rendering B. Message routing, mapping, and transformation C. RAID configuration D. Power management B. Message routing, mapping, and transformation
In DICOM, the SCU is typically the: A. Client (requestor of a service) B. Server C. Database D. Interface engine A. Client (requestor of a service)
Which IHE profile is focused on coordinating imaging order–acquisition–storage workflow? A. ATNA B. XDS-I C. SWF (Scheduled Workflow) D. PIR C. SWF (Scheduled Workflow)
IHE ATNA primarily addresses: A. Image compression B. Audit trails and node authentication C. Order management D. Patient ID cross-referencing B. Audit trails and node authentication
IHE XDS-I is used for: A. Cross-enterprise document-only sharing B. Cross-enterprise image sharing C. RIS-only workflow D. DICOM to PDF conversion B. Cross-enterprise image sharing
What does the HL7 MSH segment primarily define? A. Result values B. Message header (routing, type, etc.) C. Patient ID D. Order details B. Message header (routing, type, etc.)
In an HL7 ORU message carrying a radiology report, the narrative text is usually found in: A. MSH B. PID C. OBR D. OBX D. OBX
Which protocol is designed for retrieving imaging objects via web technologies? A. DICOM Storage Commitment B. WADO C. C-STORE D. SNMP B. WADO
In a DICOM association, which side chooses the proposed transfer syntaxes for presentation contexts? A. SCP only B. SCU only C. Both; SCU proposes, SCP accepts/rejects D. Neither; they are fixed by the standard C. Both; SCU proposes, SCP accepts/rejects
IHE PIR (Patient Information Reconciliation) is used to handle: A. Image compression B. Studies acquired on the “wrong patient” or with incomplete data C. VPN tunneling D. DICOM routing B. Studies acquired on the “wrong patient” or with incomplete data
Which of the following is a typical task for an interface engine in imaging informatics? A. Reformatting CT images B. Translating HL7 field codes between systems C. Calibrating monitors D. Performing RAID rebuilds B. Translating HL7 field codes between systems
A unidirectional HL7 interface from RIS to PACS means: A. Only PACS can send orders B. Only RIS sends messages to PACS C. ADT flows both ways D. No ACK messages B. Only RIS sends messages to PACS
Which DICOM operation might be replaced or supplemented by WADO-RS in a modern web viewer? A. C-STORE B. C-FIND C. C-MOVE/C-GET for retrieval D. C-ECHO C. C-MOVE/C-GET for retrieval
IHE “actors” in a profile represent: A. Specific vendors B. Types of systems or components that perform defined roles C. Individual users (e.g., radiologist) D. Only hardware devices B. Types of systems or components that perform defined roles
An ACK message in HL7 means: A. The interface engine processed the message successfully B. The patient has been discharged C. The exam is complete D. The report is finalized A. The interface engine processed the message successfully
DICOM PS3.1–PS3.18 together define: A. Only the image compression algorithms B. The entire DICOM standard (overview, info models, services, data dictionary, etc.) C. Only structured reporting D. Only Modality Worklist B. The entire DICOM standard (overview, info models, services, data dictionary, etc.)
Which DICOM part contains the data dictionary (definitions of tags)? A. PS3.2 B. PS3.4 C. PS3.6 D. PS3.10 C. PS3.6
DICOM PS3.10 focuses on: A. Media storage and file format B. Network protocol C. Structured reporting D. Security profiles A. Media storage and file format
Which DICOM element tag represents Pixel Data? A. -80,018 B. -100,020 C. (7FE0,0010) D. (0020,000D) C. (7FE0,0010)
Which DICOM object type is used to store structured measurement information (like measurements or CAD results)? A. CT Image IOD B. MR Image IOD C. SR (Structured Report) IOD D. RT Plan C. SR (Structured Report) IOD
IHE PIX (Patient Identifier Cross-Referencing) is used to: A. Map patient identifiers across multiple domains B. Route images between PACS C. Manage modality worklists D. Secure network traffic A. Map patient identifiers across multiple domains
IHE IOCM (Image Object Change Management) addresses: A. Scheduling B. Handling image corrections, deletions, and replacements C. HL7 billing codes D. Monitor calibration B. Handling image corrections, deletions, and replacements
IHE ATNA requires systems to: A. Compress images B. Provide secure node authentication and audit logging C. Use JPEG2000 D. Store images for 30 years B. Provide secure node authentication and audit logging
In IHE SWF, which actor is usually implemented by the modality? A. Acquisition Modality actor B. Image Manager C. Order Placer D. Order Filler A. Acquisition Modality actor
An IHE “transaction” describes: A. A financial charge B. A defined interaction/message exchange between actors C. A RAID write operation C. A printer job B. A defined interaction/message exchange between actors
Which DICOM Service Class is used to commit that images are safely stored? A. Storage B. Storage Commitment C. Query/Retrieve D. Verification B. Storage Commitment
Which DICOM transfer syntax is the baseline uncompressed little-endian syntax? A. 1.2.840.10008.1.2 B. 1.2.840.10008.1.2.1 C. 1.2.840.10008.1.2.2 D. 1.2.840.10008.1.2.4.90 B. 1.2.840.10008.1.2.1
HL7 FHIR is best described as: A. A replacement for DICOM B. A modern, RESTful healthcare interoperability standard using JSON/XML C. A proprietary radiology language D. A compression format B. A modern, RESTful healthcare interoperability standard using JSON/XML
IHE XCA-I extends XDS-I by enabling: A. Cross-community image exchange between federated HIEs B. Only intra-hospital exchange C. Image printing D. VPN tunneling A. Cross-community image exchange between federated HIEs
IHE PDI requires that portable media (like CDs) include: A. Only JPEG images B. DICOM images and a DICOMDIR index file C. Proprietary viewer only D. HL7 ADT data only B. DICOM images and a DICOMDIR index file
DICOM private tags: A. Are illegal to use B. Allow vendors to store non-standard information C. Are always encrypted D. Replace standard tags B. Allow vendors to store non-standard information
An IHE Technical Framework (TF) document describes: A. The hospital firewall settings B. Actors, transactions, and profiles needed to achieve interoperability C. Vendor sales pricing D. Monitor calibration methods B. Actors, transactions, and profiles needed to achieve interoperability
HL7 v2.x and DICOM are considered: A. Competing standards that cannot coexist B. Complementary standards (textual vs imaging) C. Deprecated standards D. Only for billing B. Complementary standards (textual vs imaging)
Which IHE profile is focused on providing imaging information directly into the EMR context? A. XDS-I B. SWF C. IM/IEW (Image-enabled EMR) D. ATNA C. IM/IEW (Image-enabled EMR)
DICOM data elements are identified by: A. Name only B. VR only C. Group, Element pairs (e.g., 0010,0010) D. Integer index only C. Group, Element pairs (e.g., 0010,0010)
Which document typically defines scope, deliverables, and responsibilities in a PACS project? A. RFP B. SOW (Statement of Work) C. RAID log D. UAT script B. SOW (Statement of Work)
The triple constraint in project management refers to: A. Time, money, and staffing B. Scope, time, and cost C. Scope, risk, and QA D. Users, IT, and vendors B. Scope, time, and cost
A Gantt chart is primarily used to: A. Show network topology B. Display project tasks over time and dependencies C. Track outage root causes D. Measure image compression B. Display project tasks over time and dependencies
LEAN methodology in healthcare aims mainly to: A. Increase capital expenses B. Reduce waste and non–value-added steps C. Increase complexity D. Add more documentation B. Reduce waste and non–value-added steps
A RAID log in project management usually tracks: A. Storage arrays B. Risks, Assumptions, Issues, and Dependencies C. DICOM routers D. Patient dose metrics B. Risks, Assumptions, Issues, and Dependencies
User Acceptance Testing (UAT) is conducted to: A. Validate the solution meets user requirements before go-live B. Tune RAID C. Configure the firewall D. Finalize budgets A. Validate the solution meets user requirements before go-live
Which role is ultimately accountable for sponsoring and funding a PACS project? A. PACS admin B. Project manager C. Executive sponsor (e.g., CIO/CMIO) D. Modality lead C. Executive sponsor (e.g., CIO/CMIO)
A post-implementation “lessons learned” meeting is an example of: A. UAT B. Retrospective/Postmortem C. RAID analysis D. ROI calculation B. Retrospective/Postmortem
Which metric measures the average time to restore a system after a failure? A. MTBF B. MTTR C. SLA D. TAT B. MTTR (Mean Time To Repair)
Which metric measures the average time between system failures? A. MTTR B. TAT C. MTBF D. RPO C. MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)
Disaster Recovery (DR) plans should prioritize systems based on: A. Hardware cost B. Clinical criticality and allowable downtime C. Vendor marketing D. IT staff preference B. Clinical criticality and allowable downtime
To prevent scope creep, the project team should: A. Accept all new requests B. Ignore stakeholder feedback C. Use a formal change control process D. Refuse all changes C. Use a formal change control process
An RFP (Request for Proposal) is used to: A. Describe current workflows B. Solicit vendor proposals and pricing for solutions C. Define internal policies D. Document test cases B. Solicit vendor proposals and pricing for solutions
An SLA of 99.9% uptime corresponds to approximately how much allowable downtime per year? A. ~8.8 hours B. ~52 minutes C. ~3.5 days D. ~30 hours A. ~8.8 hours
Operational readiness for a new PACS includes: A. Only server installation B. Training users, SOPs, support processes, and go-live planning C. Writing code only D. Just signing contracts B. Training users, SOPs, support processes, and go-live planning
Which artifact is MOST useful to capture detailed project requirements from radiologists? A. Network diagram B. Stakeholder interview notes and requirements document C. RAID log C. Billing report B. Stakeholder interview notes and requirements document
The critical path in a project is: A. The easiest set of tasks B. The sequence of tasks that determines the earliest completion date C. All tasks with slack D. The path of least resistance B. The sequence of tasks that determines the earliest completion date
What is the primary goal of a business case for a PACS upgrade? A. List DICOM tags B. Justify the project in terms of cost, benefits, and risks C. Detail firewall rules D. List every HL7 segment B. Justify the project in terms of cost, benefits, and risks
Root Cause Analysis (RCA) is done in order to: A. Identify who to blame B. Find underlying causes of incidents and prevent recurrence C. Tune compression D. Increase TAT B. Find underlying causes of incidents and prevent recurrence
Which approach is MOST effective for avoiding repeated outages after a major incident? A. Rebooting daily B. RCA plus corrective and preventive actions, with follow-up review C. Buying more servers without analysis D. Turning off all updates B. RCA plus corrective and preventive actions, with follow-up review
Created by: foster1317
 



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