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RPA UPGRADE
FOM FLASHCARDS
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What are the High Mins Captain Restrictions? | Increase MDA / DA by 100 feet and 1/2 SM, Exception 17347 not Applicable and no CAT 2 |
| When can a high minimums captain use CAT 1 landing minimums? | When performing a pilot monitored approach to CAT 1 minimums while using exemption 17203 |
| What is Exemption 17203? | Both CA and FO are CAT 2 qualified, autopilot is working, must use the Monitored Approach Procedure, Must not be below 4000 RVR AND the crosswind component must not exceed 15 knots, braking action less than good (see chart) |
| What visibility may a high minimums CA depart with? | RVR of 600/600/600 with a takeoff alternate when required using the 100 and 1/2SM additions to determine if a takeoff alternate is needed. |
| Can a crew be dispatched into CAT 2 weather? | Yes, when crew is qualified for CAT 2, when aircraft is CAT 2 capable and when the TAF is calling for better than 1/4SM in the main body of the TAF |
| When are CAT 2 approaches prohibited? | IOE and Line Checks |
| What are you certifying when signing for the release? | 1. Release content is correct 2. Flight can be conducted safely 3. Current Line Check 4. 3 takeoffs and landings in the past 90 days 5. Fit for Duty |
| What are the low time F.O. limitations? | 1. No contaminated Runways 2. No RVR less than 4000 3. No braking less than good (RCC less than 5s) 4. No +15 knot crosswinds 5. No windshear 6. No Special PIC Qualifications 7. No LAHSOs 8. No visibility of 3/4SM or less 9. No CAT 2 10. Can use Exemption 17203 with a low time FO |
| A pilot must be present for boarding when? | 1. It is the first flight of the day 2. International Flights |
| What are the three types of alternates? | Takeoff, destination and drift-down alternate |
| How many RVRs must be in operation for takeoff? | two (2) |
| When is an alternate required? | When within 1 hour before and one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination the ceilings are forecast to be less than 2000 feet or less than 3SM then and alternate is required. or if no approaches are available to the destination airport. |
| When is a second alternate required? | When weather at the destination AND the first alternate is marginal. So the destination would have to be below 1000 foot ceiling in AGL and Visibility of below 3 SM. The first alternate is considered marginal when the celling is below 600 feet AGL and visibility below 2 SM |
| What is Exemption 17347? | It allows flights under part 121 to be dispatched if weather reports or forecasts for the destination or the first alternate OR BOTH indicate IN THE CONDITIONAL PHRASES THAT THE WEATHER MAY BE BELOW AUTHORIZED WEATHER MINIMUMS AT THE ETA. However: -A high mins Captain cannot use this -A second alternate has to be provided |
| How low can the ceilings and visibility be at the DESTINATION when using Exemption 17347? | It can be 1/2 the lowest required visibility for the instrument approach expected to be flown |
| How low can the ceilings and visibility be at the FIRST ALTERNATE be when using Exemption 17347? | It can be 1/2 the lowest required ceiling AND visibility for the OpSpec CO55 alternate weather minimums |
| How low can the ceilings and visibility be at the SECOND ALTERNATE be when using Exemption 17347? | The METAR and the TAF, or any combination thereof must indicate that in the MAIN BODY and REMARKS that the ceiling AND visibility will be at or above the ceiling and visibility for the OpSpec CO55 alternate weather minimums. |
| What are the alternate weather minimums if we have two navigational aids to two different suitable runways? | The required forecast weather must have a CEILING of 200 feet added on the the highest MDA or DA of the two approaches available. The VISIBILITY must be 1/2 SM added on to the higher visibility of the two approaches available. |
| What are the alternate weather minimums if we have one navigational aid? | 400 feet is added on to DA(H) or MDA (H) to compute the ceiling and 1 SM is added on to the required visibility. |
| Can Cat 2 approach minimums be used for planning? | No |
| When do we need an Amended Release? (we can request a fresh release if to many amendments have been made and we don't want to make the changes manually. (on ground only) | 1. Added or change of Alternate 2. Ramp fuel of less than 300# from what was planned 3. If we havent departed and we are two hours passed when we received the release 4. Change of destination after takeoff 5. Change in Min Fuel Numbers 6. Route change or +/- 50 NM compared to the original flight plan 7. +/- 4000 feet from planned altitude 8. Actual takeoff weight exceedes planned takeoff weight by 4000# or more 9. Change of Flight Attendants 10. Change of MEL / CDL / NEF 11.Change of Remark |
| Dispatch must be notified when ramp fuel is greater than planned by how many pounds? | 300, no amendment is required |
| How is an amendment acknowledged over ACARS? | 1. Release NO. 2. Time (In ZULU) 3. PIC Initials |
| When is a new Release Required? | Never technically, if the crew can pen and ink the change, then it can be amended. However the crew can request a new release for the sake of time. |
| How many marshalers are required to taxi into the gate? | One marshaller is the minimum. |
| How is minimum fuel calculated? | Reserve + alternate = Minimum fuel OR 2660# |
| Non EOW aircraft must remain within how many miles of shoreline? | 50NM |
| What are the requirements for EOW aircraft? | 1. Cruise Min. Altitude must be FL250 or higher 2. The Aircraft must be equipped with life preservers for each passenger and crew member 3. The aircraft has to have an EOW placard 4. The company must use approved route segments (IOG) 5. IF at 35 degrees north latitude and ABOVE, do not exceed 100 NM from the nearest shoreline IF at 35 degree north latitude and BELOW, do not exceed 162 NM from shore OR no farther than 30 minutes flying time in still air with one engine inoperative. (Whichever is Less) |
| When is a takeoff alternate needed? | When the weather at the departure airport is below landing minimums. Then a takeoff alternate is required. |
| How far away can the takeoff alternate be? | 270 NM (It cannot be more than one hour away at normal cruise speed with one engine inoperative in still air, this comes out to 270NM) |
| Can we use ILS CAT 2 minimums at the departure airport as a deciding factor for a takeoff alternate. | We cannot use ILS CAT 2 minimums at the departure airport as a deciding factor for a takeoff alternate. NO, just No |
| At what fuel level are we at Emergency Fuel? | 1800# |
| When do we have to do the Originating / receiving checklist? | 1. First Flight of the Day 2. Plane Left Unattended 3. Change in PIC / SIC 4. When Maintenance was accomplished on the aircraft |
| What is the maximum blood alcohol content? (BAC) | 0.02 |
| What time should you report for duty? | 45 Minutes Prior to Departure |
| Who is responsible for the content of the F.O.M.? | The Director of Operations |
| Who does the Director of Operations Delegate Operational Control to? | PIC / Dispatcher |
| Who has the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft? | The Captain |
| What is the Captain responsible for? | 1. Passengers (Safety) 2. Crew members (Safety) 3. Cargo (Safety) 4. Aircraft (Safety) |
| Can the Captain Delay a flight? | Absolutely |
| If the aircraft isn't airworthy can it operate? | Only with a ferry permit |
| Who is responsible for the airworthiness of the aircraft? | The Captain |
| The captain must discontinue a flight when? | When the aircraft isnt airworthy |
| The captain has control of the crew and operation of the aircraft, when? | During flight time. |
| Can the Captain delegate tasks? | Yes, but the Captain must ensure the tasks were accomplished |
| Must read memos must be read, when?? | Prior to the start of a trip |
| What responsibilities do the dispatcher and the PIC have? | 1. Preflight Planning 2. Delays 3. Dispatch Release 4. Suitability of weather 5. Aggreement of flight release by e-signing via ACARS |
| What does ACARS stand for? | Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System |
| What does PACKs stand for? | Pneumatic Air Conditioning Kits |
| Who can Cancel a flight? | The dispatcher |
| How can you pass along safety concerns? | Use the Safety Hotline |
| What is the ASAP program used for? | 1. Safety issues / concerns 2. FAR violation 3. Company Proceedures Violation 4. Safety Deficiencies |
| How long do you have to file an ASAP? | 24 hours, but you can get a 72 hour extension if you call the ASAP hotline |
| How long do you have to file an incident report? | 48 hours |
| What are the mandatory incident reports? | 1. Fires during flight or false fire warning 2. Engine exhaust system, causes damage 3. Smoke Event 4. Engine shutdown in flight 5. Fuel Flow / Leak 6. Unwanted landing gear extension or retraction 7. Brake system failure on ground 8. Major structural repair 9. Cracks / Corrosion greater than tolerances 10. Aircraft components cause emergency action 11. Evacuation /defective evac equipment 12. Use of emergency authority 13. Rejected T/O 14. Birdstrike 15. Cabin Disturbance 16. Com / Nav Fail |
| More mandatory incident reports... | 17. Depressurization 18. Deviation from company policy 19. Unapproved HAZMAT 20. Diversion due to Mechanical Failure 21. Injury / Illness / Death of PAX or crew 22. Landing at other than the nearest suitable airport 23. Laser beamed 24. EFB Failure 25. Lighting Strike with indication 26. Minimum / Emergency fuel 27. TCAS RA 28. Significant hail disturbance causing damage to A/C 29. PED interference / battery failure with smoke / fire 30. CAT II issues requiring intervention 31. Drone Encounter |
| If laser is observed, then complete what additional form? | the FAA online form |
| When must the GE engine reporting form be completed? | 1. Go-around at TOGA power 2. Go-around as RSV power 3. Any RSV power activation (Windshear / EGPWS, engine failure, TLA MAX at TOGA |
| When would you complete a flight ops feedback form? | 1. Catering Issues 2. Aircraft Cleaning Issues 3. ATC, Crew Scheduling , dispatch issues 4. Rest Issues 5. Alternate or Fuel issues |
| What is CAMI? | Confirm, Activate, Monitor and Intervene |
| How are flight attendant positions assigned? | Seniority |
| What is included in the required flight kit? | 1. Company EFB up to date 2. Company issued backup batteries 3. Appropriate Charging cables 4. Primary vision correcting lenses and a spare set 5. Flashlight in good working order |
| When must the EFB be plugged in? | Anytime the battery falls below 20% |
| When must the EFB mount be checked? | Prior to descending below 10,000 feet and prior to pushback |
| When must the EFB and backup battery be fully charged? | When reporting fit for duty |
| What battery level is considered fully charged? | 90% or greater |
| If the EFB fails, how long do we have to complete an incident report? | 48 hours |
| Who must we notify of an EFB failure in flight or on the ground? | Dispatch |
| Within how many hours or report time should we notify dispatch if your EFB is not usable or in your possetion? | within 12 hours |
| If more than 12 hours prior to report time and EFB is not usable or missing, who do you notify? | Call the nerds at IT or send them a pretty email |
| When can you no go scuba diving? | 24 hours prior to duty |
| When is blood donation prohibited? | 72 hours prior to duty |
| When is report time? | 45 minutes prior to departure |
| The captain will notify crew scheduling if a crew member is not present at the aircraft or departure gate __minutes prior to departure. | 30 minutes |
| When do we begin boarding? | 25 minutes prior to departure? |
| when must the flight crew be on board the aircraft for boarding or deplaning. | Typically the flight crew is not required to be on board except if it is the first flight of the day to ensure the security search was accomplished OR all international flights |
| Can a pilot fly without his or her medical or pilot cert. on their person? | Yes, Op Spec A063 can provide temporary verification of medical or pilot certificate for 72 hours. This is limited to the 48 contiguous united states |
| On OE, who is the PIC? | The check airman |
| Where does the check airman have to sit during OE? | the check airman has to occupy a pilot station |
| Can company check airmen perform the the captain observation flight? | Yes |
| Recurrent ground training may be accomplished during the month before or the month after the ground training is due. T/F | Truth |
| A pilot may not serve as a crew member unless in the preceding __ days, ___ takeoffs and landings have been accomplished | 90 ; 3 |
| Line checks are required every ___ months for captains | 12 months |
| AQP distance learning must be completed by the ____ day of the ____ month of the quarter | 20th day ; middle |
| AQP volume ____ has the footprint for continuing qualification training | 4 |
| Are CAT II approaches permitted on the OE / Initial qualification training | Sadly no |
| When are CAT II approaches not permitted? | When the FO has less than 100 hours or if the Captain is high mins |
| What is a high mins Captain? | Captain has less than 100 hours as Captain, not including OE |
| Minimums for an approach for a high minimums captain must be adjusted by 100' on to the MDA or DA and 1/2 SM must be added to the visibility required for the approach. T/F | True |
| If you divert to an alternate as a high minimums captain, you can use normal minimums down to what minimum ceiling and visibility? | 300' and 1 SM |
| What does Exemption 17203 allow a high minimums captain to do? | to shoot a CAT 1 approach down to normal CAT 1 minimums as a pilot monitored approach. provided: - Autopilot works -PIC and SIC a qualified - RVR is not less than 3/4 SM visibility -crosswind is not greater than 15 knots - braking action is not less than good PIC cannot perform CAT II Cannot do this with a Low Time FO |
| How is Exemption 17203 used for departure? | May depart with less than 1600 RVR with a takeoff alternate At departure airport add 1/2 SM to visibility and approach minimums to determine if a takeoff alternate is required |
| What are the lowest landing minimums at the alternate using Exemption 17203? | 300' ceilings and 1 SM |
| Can High Mins Captains use exemption 17347? | No |
| When a Captain has less than ___ hours as Captain , the FO will have greater than ___ hours. | 75, 75 |
| Flight Duty Period is calculated based off what city? | The anchor city. |
| What is an anchor city? | The city where the crew member is based |
| How is the flight time per day calculated? | days flying + release plan flight time + 10 minutes |
| May only extend more than 30 minutes once before how many hours of rest? | 30 hours of rest |
| How many days does a new captain have to consolidate? | 100 hours of flight time must be completed within 120 days after completion of LOE. Can be extended to 150 days. |
| The captain cannot depart if any crew member will exceed a rest limitation true / false | true |
| What table is used to calculate total flight time? | Table A |
| What table is used to calculate flight duty period time? | Table B |
| Can you extend your duty prior to takeoff? | Yes, by two hours |
| Can you be extended an additional 30 minutes? | Yes, followed by 30 hours of rest |
| What are your cumulative flight duty limitations? | 100 hours in 672 hours 1000 hours in 365 days |
| What are your flight duty period limitations? | 60 FDP in 168 hours 190 FDP in 672 hours |
| What are your rest requirements? | 10 hours of rest 8 hours behind a closed door |
| When are you released from duty? | 15 minutes after completing |
| Part 91 Repo Flights Do Require a security search True / False | False, part 91 repo flights do not require a security search |
| The cabin security search must be completed with no passengers or baggage on board. T/F | True. Flight attendants have to remove their baggage from the cabin too |
| When would the aircraft search have to be re-done? | If someone without direct access authority is on the aircraft without escort, then the search must be redone |
| Full Search - Early Search when is this acoomplished? | if the flight is scheduled to depart at 11:00pm or later on the previous day |
| Full Search - Delayed Search, when is this accomplished? | If a flight terminates at 11:00pm and departs at 1 am the next day, the search may be delayed until arrival as the next destination. |
| Full Search - Search Completed on the previous calendar day. | The search may be completed on the last flight on the previous calendar day. |
| If a flight is scheduled to depart the U.S. to a non-USA location is a full search required | yes |
| If a flight is departing from a NON-US location to the united states, does a full search need to be completed? | Absolutely |
| Canada, if it is not the first flight of the day and performing a turn, does a full inspection have to be completed? | No, the station will complete a visual inspection |
| All tamper seals if found to be missing or damaged need to be written up by the captain. True / False | True |
| Does a Liquor Kit seal need to be written up if missing? | No |
| The captain of an inbound flight is reponsible to ensure the aircraft will remain attended when passengers are present, unless: | 1. If the inbound crew is present 2. If a customer service agent is present on the jet bridge 3. if the boarding door is closed. |
| If your company ID is missing what should you do? | Get a letter from the company or get a replacement |
| If a passenger is removed, who determines if their bags need to come off the aircraft? | The Ground Security Coordinator (Gate Agent) |
| What constitutes Threat Level 1 Behavior? | Disruptive behavior (suspicious / threating) (monkey loud) |
| What constitutes Threat Level 2 Behavior? | Physically abusive behavior (Monkey is touching people) |
| What constitutes Threat Level 3 Behavior? | life threatening (Monkey talks about or attempts to kill people) |
| What constitutes Threat Level 4 Behavior? | Attempted flight deck break (Monkey tries to break into the flight deck) |
| Are intoxicated passengers permitted on the aircraft. | Nope. |
| What do you do for a bomb risk on the ground? | Stop and communicate to ATC and Dispatch |
| What do you do for a bomb risk in the air? | 1. Go below 10,000 2. Relay details to FAA explosive specialist over the radio 3. Prepare to use the Least Risk Bomb Location within 30 minutes of landing 4. Anticipate an ATC Reroute to a less populated area |
| Where is the least risk bomb location? | Aircraft left, second from last window |
| When do you instruct Flight Attendants to move to bomb to the least risk bomb location? | When instructed to do so by an explosives specialist |
| What will a Flight Attendant say on the intercom if they are under duress? | 1. FA First and Last Name 2. Employee Number |
| If a FA is under duress, what threat level is it? | Level 3 or higher |
| How does a Captain communicate to a Flight Attendent if they are under duress? | 1. Are you under duress? 2. Is this a threat level 3? 3. Use peep hole to check the cabin 4. Squawk 7500 5. Tell ATC / Dispatch |
| Is dry ice permitted in the flight deck? | No |
| What quantity of dry ice can be transported WITHOUT dangerous goods paperwork? | 5.5 pounds |
| Above what quantity is dangerous goods paperwork REQUIRED for dry ice? | 5.5 pounds |
| Can dry ice be transported with live animals? | No |
| Is dry ice permitted in the AFT cargo compartment? | no |
| Is dry ice permitted in the FORWARD cargo compartment? | yes |
| What is the maximum amount of dry ice permitted on the Embraer 170? | 300 pounds |
| What is the maximum amount of dry ice permitted on the Embraer 175? | 440 pounds |
| When is a new release required? | 1. Change in flight number 2. Change in Aircraft 3. Change in PIC / SIC 4. Change in destination while aircraft is on the ground prior to takeoff 5. Continuation of a flight after a diversion 6. Continuation of a flight after returning to the field |
| What has to be sent over ACARS to acknowledge a new release? | 1. Release number 2. Time 3. PIC initials |
| When is an Amended release required? | 1. If actual departure will be two hours past authorized departure time. 2. Change in destination after takeoff. 3. Change in Alternate 4. Change in Fuel Numbers 5. Change in Min Fuel Number 6. Change in Ramp Fuel Number 7. Change in Ramp fuel number. 8. Route change by +/- 50 NM 9. Final Altitude change by +/- 4000 feet 10. Change in FAs 11. Change in MEL / CDL / NEF 12. Change in Remarks |
| If actual ramp fuel is ____ pounds (above / below) planned what is required? | If actual ramp is 300 pounds below planned, then an amended releasee is required |
| If actual ramp fuel is more than planned by 300 pounds is an amended release required? What do you have to do? | If we are over fueled by 300 pounds or more, then we have to notify dispatch, but we don't have to get an amended release. |
| What is the COMAT Limitation for the container size? | it must be 5 gallons or less |
| What is the COMAT Limitation for the container condition? | it must be sealed, new, and unopened |
| Where can COMAT be stored on the aircraft? | in either cargo compartment |
| Are the any total quantity restrictions for COMAT? | No |
| Are hydraulic servicing carts, tools or devices permitted? | They are not permitted |
| Are there exceptions to transportation of dangerous goods? | Yes |
| Does the company permit the use of medical grade oxygen on the aircraft? What has to be done if it is used? | It is permitted only in the case of a medical emergency. When it is used, a write up is need in the Aircraft logbook for maintenance to replace or refill the oxygen cyliner |
| What Biological shipments are unacceptable? | 1. Infectious Substances 2. Category A 3. Medical Waste 4. UN2814 (Infectious substance, affecting humans) 5. UN2900 (Infectious substance, affecting animals only) |
| Is HAZMAT permitted in the Flight Deck? | Never |
| Can Category A infectious substances be transported? | Never, because they are transported in a form capable of causing permanent disability, life-threatening, or fatal disease in otherwise healthy humans or animals if exposure occurs. |
| Can Category B (UN3373) infectious substances be transported? | Yes, They are typically human samples (blood samples, urine, plasma etc) or routine lab specimens |
| Can Category B subtances travel in the cabin? | No, it must travel in the cargo compartments with the proper packaging requirements |
| Are human organs permited in the cabin? what about the cargo bay? | Yes to both. In the cabin as long as it has an escort and the codeshare allows it. |
| Can human remains in caskets be transported? | yes |
| Can cremated remains be transported? (human or animal) | yes, as checked or carry on baggage |
| Are scuba tanks allowed on the aircraft? | Yes, ONLY if the regulator is completely disconnected from the cylinder and the cylinder is no longer sealed. The inside of the cylinder must be able to be inspected. |
| Are battery powered mobility aids allowed? | Yes |
| Can a mobility aid be transported with the battery terminals connected? | Yes, as long as it cannot be unintendedly activated. |
| If the battery is leaking on the mobility aid or shows defects, can we transport it? | no |
| If there is not a way to prevent unintential activation of a mobility aid, how can it be transported? | It can be transported as long as the battery can be removed or the circuits can be deactivated |
| Can spillable batteries be accepted in association with a mobility aid? | The battery must be disconnected and and battery cables insulated to prevent short circuits. |
| Are MREs allowed on board the aircraft? | NO |
| Are Avalanche kits allowed on aboard the aircraft? | NO |
| Are Personal Air Supply (Canned air) permitted on aboard the aircraft? | No |
| Are personal air purification devices allowed onboard the aircraft? | No |
| Are Radiation - detecting devices allowed onboard the aircraft? | no |
| Are inflated tires allowed on aboard the aircraft | Nope |
| Are chemical oxygen generators allowed | nope |
| What manual is the authoritative reference for passenger acceptance or denial? | The Station Operations Manual |
| Is a passenger who's conduct threatens the safety of other passengers permitted on board the aircraft for transportation. | No |
| Can a Conflict Resolution Officer countermand the captain? | Nope |
| Assistive devices cannot be denied and do not count toward the limit of one carry on bag or one personal item (T/F) | True |
| Do assistive devices take priority over other peoples baggage? | Yes |
| What is the process to deny boarding to a passenger? | 1. Get the gate agent involved 2. Get the CRO involved 3. It is ultimately the Captains decision if the passenger can stay on the aircraft |
| If the captain thinks there is a security concern and the gate agent and the conflict resolution officer disagree, then the captain is supposed to call the dispatcher and the chief pilot on a conferance call. (T/F) | True |
| If a passenger is denied boarding on the basis of safety, the captain has to submit what type of report? How long does the CA have to submit the report? | An incident report within 48 hours |
| What are the medical conditions that render a passenger unable to fly? | 1. Full body cast / stretcher and unable to fasten seatbelt 2. PAX with a communicable disease or infection transmissible to other persons 3. PAX requireing in flight oxygen 4. PAX requiring life support systems 5. Pregnant PAX expected to deliver within 7 days MUST have a doctors note dated within 72 hours 6. Disruptive passengers 7. PAX with no VISA / Passport 8. PAX over the age of 5 have to wear shoes. unless required for medical reasons |
| Aircraft servicing with one or both engines running is not permitted. With the exception of connecting the jet bridge power after the nosewheel is chalked, passenger boarding and deplaning using the jet bridge and loading / unloading bags only with the #1 engine running(T/F) | True |
| On repo flights up to 19 pax are permitted on board without flight attendants. (T/F) | True |
| What company document tells us the carry on baggage policies? | The Carry On Baggage Program manual |
| What does it mean when the flight attendant says "Cabin secure to taxi"? | It means all the carry on bags are secure and all cabin entry doors are closed and slides are armed |
| What does it mean when the flight attendant says "Cabin secure for takeoff"? | Carry on baggage is stowed and cabin is prepared for takeoff |
| Why do we say, "Flight attendants prepare cabin for arrival"? | It initiates a series of events including storage of all carry on bags |
| On Domestic Flights, if a passenger is not on board, do their bags have to be removed? | No |
| On International Flights, if a passenger is not on board, do their bags have to be removed? | Yes |
| Can flight crews handle checked baggage? | Nope |
| Are Qualified Flight Attendants AND Pilots allowed to occupy a secondary flight attendant jump seat? | Yes, only if Republic Airways employees |
| On United Express Flights can United flight attendants occupy the secondary flight attendant jumpseat? | yes |
| When is single engine taxiing prohibited? | 1. Excessive maneuvering is required in the ramp area 2. Taxiway contamination precludes its use 3. Jet blast may cause injury or damage 4. Breaking action less than good 5. RVR less than 1200' 6. Taxi time is estimated to be 3 minutes or less |
| Don't cross an open runway when starting an engine. T/F | True |
| Don't start an engine in a congested area. T/F | True |
| Use the ____ to start the second engine if the taxi time is estimated to be less than ___ minutes. | APU ; 10 minutes |
| If there are corrections needed to the cargo load report, should the captain ask the FA to open the forward boarding door? | No, the door should be opened from the outside by the gate agent. |
| When should we notify the flight attendants that a manual count is necessary? | As soon as possible |
| Concerning Weight and Balance from what age to what age is a child considered to be? | from two years old and has NOT reached his or her 13th birthday |
| Concerning Weight and Balance from what age to what age is an infant considered to be? | a person who is less than two years old |
| Is a logbook entry required if a galley cart is missing? | no |
| Is a logbook entry required if an Atlas container is missing? | no |
| Is a logbook entry required if a galley cart is inoperative? | yes, see FOM for write up details |
| Do we have to notify dispatch if a galley cart is missing? | yes |
| Who is responsible to sign the load manifest before each flight? | The captain. This is done when signing the e-release |
| Aircraft must remain within what distance of shore? | 50NM unless the aircraft is equipped for EOW operations |
| The route of flight must be within ____ hour(s) flying time of an adequate airport in ____ air at _________ speed with ______ engine inoperative. What distance is that? | 1 hour ; still air ; normal cruise speed ; with one engine inop ; 270 NM |
| What must be in operation on the aircraft to conduct class 1 navigation? | two VOR receivers |
| Are we authorized to conduct operations using Required Navigation Performance (RNP) Instrument Approach Proceedures (IAP) with Authorization Required (AR) | YES |
| What are EOW Flights? | Flights operating more than 50 NM from shoreline |
| What do EOW aircraft have to have on board? | The aircraft must be equipped with life preservers for each passenger and crew member on board |
| What altitude must we be above for EOW Operations? | At or above FL 250 |
| BELOW____ degrees north latitude how far away from shore can we go? | 35 degrees north latitude ; we can go 162NM from shore |
| ABOVE ____degrees north latitude how far away from shore can we go? | 35 degrees north latitude ; we can go 100 NM from shore |
| Can we take shortcuts on an EOW route? | Nope |
| Can we deviate for weather on an EOW route? | Yes, but we need to get back to the route ASAP |
| When can we takeoff from an off-line airport that is not in the Operation specifications? | 1. If the airport is suitable for the airplane 2. If we can comply with all aircraft weight limits 3. The weather meet the minimums of one of the following combinations: -800 / 2 -900 / 1 1/2 -1000 - 1 |
| An "R" next to the airport name and identifier in OP spec C070 means what? | Regular Airport |
| An "F" next to the airport name and identifier in OP spec C070 means what? | Fueling Airport |
| What does a Captain have to do to operate in and out of a SPECIAL PIC airport? | 1. Takeoff or land within the last 12 months at the airport while operating as a crewmember 2. Review the acceptable pictoral airport qualification pages |
| Signing the release implies the Captain has reviewed the SPECIAL PIC data (T/F) | True |
| If the airport has a curfew and we will arrive after the curfew as long as what is listed in the dispatch release? | An Alternate |
| What is in the yellow section of the Emergency Medical Kit? | IV Equipment |
| What is in the Orange / RED section of the Emergency Medical Kit? | Medication |
| What is in the Blue section of the Emergency Medical Kit? | Airway Equipment |
| What is in the outside section of the Emergency Medical Kit? | Blood Pressure cuff and stethoscope |
| Who is considered a qualified medical professional among the PAX? | Nurses, paramedics, EMTs, physicians or flight attendants |
| If unable to contact stat-MD who is allowed to used the EMK | Licensed medical professionals only |
| If the EMK is used, does a logbook entry need to be made? | YES |
| If the fire extinguisher must be used in the flight deck, what must the flight crew do? | Wear oxygen masks using 100% oxygen for at least 10 minutes following the discharge |
| Can the flight deck door can remain open when the fire extinguisher is being discharged in the cabin (T/F) | False, the flight deck door must be closed while the fire extinguisher is being discharged in the cabin |
| Are ammonia inhalants in the first air kit able to be used? | Yes, but it isn't recommended |
| Does a logbook entry have to be made if the AED is used? | Yes |
| If the AED battery is low, what do you have to do? | Make a logbook entry and notify maintenance |
| What kind of report has to be completed when a response to an RA is performed? | You have to do an Incident Report |
| What should our vertical speed be for the last 1000 feet of the climb? | no more than 1500 FPM |
| When must radar be used? | While IMC or at night |
| If radar fails while airborne what should you do? | Advise ATC and Dispatch/SOC |
| Can we continue to our destination if the radar dies? | Yes, if we can remain clear of thunderstorms or hazardous weather conditions |
| Where should the radar tilt be for takeoff? | +5degrees |
| If the PBE seal is broken or missing what should you do? | A logbook writeup is required and we have to notify maintenance |
| How long can you used the PBE hood for? | 15 minutes |
| Where can we find the list of approved airports? | Op Spec C070 |
| Can the destination or alternates be changed in route? | Yes |
| When will the dispatch release be available to the flight crew? | 60 minutes prior |
| Where / how can you get a copy of the release if you cannot get it on your iPad? | from the gate agent / he/she can print it out and give it to you |
| How are we supposed to view the release? | on adobe acrobat |
| At least one copy of the release including amendments must be retained in the adobe acrobat application until the completion of the flight. T/F | Truth |
| What is the proper way to make amendments to the release? | text box or with the pen |
| Who makes the amendments on the release PM or PF? | PM (Pilot Monitoring) in the air, both pilots on the ground |
| How do we communicate fit for duty? | ACARS or via phone is ACACRS is unavailable |
| What do you say to the dispatcher if ACARS is inop to declare fit for duty? | Signing dispatch release number ______, and load manifest, flight number _____, city pair______, crew names ______ are fit for duty. |
| A new release is required, when? | 1. Change of Flight number 2. Change of Aircraft 3. Change of PIC / SIC 4. Change of destination while aircraft is on the ground prior to takeoff 5. Continuation after diversion 6. Continuation flight after a return to field 5. |
| If the crew has already send an ACARS INIT, the flight crew must acknowledge the new release with dispatch using one of the following methods: | 1. ACARS Release Change Message (preferred) 2. ACARS free text 3. Phone 4. AIRINC |
| What must the acknowledgement of a new release include? | 1. Release number 2. Time 3. PIC Initals |
| When is an Am mended release needed? | 1. If departure time will be two hours past planned departure time 2. Change of destination after takeoff 3. Change in Alternates 4. Change in min fuel numbers 5. Change in ramp fuel numbers 6. Change of route +/- 50NM 7. +/- 4000 feet or more from filed altitude 8. Actual TOW exceeds PTOW by 6,000 lbs or more 9. Change of FAs 10. Change of MEL / CDL / NEF 11. Change of remark |
| Planned reserve fuel is based on what? | 45 minutes of fuel based on Long Range cruise at 10,000 feet |
| Planned ALT fuel is based on what? | Planned fuel from destination to the most distant alternate |
| What is MIN fuel? | Minimum fuel required to be on board at the point of brake release for takeoff roll. Min fuel does NOT include taxi or extra fuel |
| How is ramp fuel calculated? | Ramp = Fuel quantity prior to taxi + MIN + TAXI + EXTRA |
| What is FOD? | Estimated fuel on board at the time of touchdown |
| Where on the release can we find the ETA used for calculating the need for an alternate? | Field 11 |
| MEL / NEF items, if we have an MEL or NEF that expires if the ETA is later than 23:59 Indianapolis time can we block out? | NO, we cannot block out if our ETA would be later than 23:59 Indianapolis time the day the MEL expires |
| Do I have to verify the alternates are legal? | Yes |
| Do I have to verify the flight plan routing? | Yes |
| When do we have to keep a fuel scorecard? | for flight of 2 hours or longer |
| What do we have to record on the fuel scorecard? | Actual fuel burn every hour check FOD |
| When should the first check in for the fuel scorecard be? | The first fix after TOC (Top of Climb) |
| What are "D" Notams? | Notams that cover Navaids, landing areas, airport runway lighting, etc |
| What are "FDC" Notams? | Notams that are regulatory in nature and involve flight proceedure changes and TFRs etc... |
| What does "IS" mean on a FPL-RPAXXX-IS? | IS means IFR Scheduled flight plan |
| What do the equipment codes mean? E75L/M-SDGIRWZ/S | M=Medium category S= Standard Navigation / Equipment D=DME G=GNSS I = IRS R = PBN W = RVSM Z = other equipment S = Mode S transponder |
| What does PBN Mean? | Performance Based Navigation Cabibility NAV = Aircraft is TCAS / RNAV Equipped for dep / enr / arr proceedures |
| Do we need to check for RVSM compliance? | Yes |
| How do we check for RVSM compliance? | If the aircraft is not RVSM capabible then the NONRVSM placard will be showing also you will see it in the MELs |
| What are the two approved ways to review the weather? | WSI Get Briefing function and the weather on the release |
| RVR for takeoff 1600, minimum runway requirements RVV 1/4SM. Who can do the takeoff | CA can, low time FO is prohibited |
| RVR for takeoff 1200 TDZ / MID / RO with RCLM (DAY ONLY) ORHIRL or CL Lights. Who can perform the takeoff? | CA only. No FOs |
| RVR for takeoff 1000 TDZ / MID / RO with RCLM and HIRL OR CL | CA only. No FOs |
| RVR for takeoff 600 TDZ / MID / RO with HIRL AND CL lights | CA only. No FOs |
| For operations below RVR 1600 a minimum of _______ operative RVR reporting systems are required. All available RVRs are controlling except______ which is _____ only | TWO ; FAR END ; ADVISORY |
| For restrictions on approach lighting, sequenced flashing lights and touchdown zone / runway center line lighting where would you look to check the restrictions? | The approach chart. Both PIC and Dispatcher must agree that the flight may be conducted safely |
| If there are dry spots on the runway, is the runway considered wet? | No, the runway is considered dry |
| What RCC value should we use for light to moderate rain on a grooved or porous runway? | RCC 5 |
| What RCC value should we use for heavy rain on a grooved or porous runway? | RCC 2 |
| What RCC value should we use for light rain on a non-grooved or non-porous runway? | RCC 3 |
| What RCC value should we use for moderate to heavy rain on a non-grooved or non porous runway? | RCC 2 |
| Takeoff is prohibited on any runway when contamination exceeds level _______. | Level 3 |
| What should we do if braking action advisories are omitted by ATC? | Request a braking action report |
| We can only report our own braking action reports. (True / False) | True |
| What should we do to assess the braking action if it is deemed less than good? | Continue brake application toward full deflection and report to ATC |
| Can we operate on any surface with a NIL braking action report? | No, we cannot. |
| Can a braking report from another aircraft upgrade the braking action report? | No, only ATC can upgrade the braking action report |
| What is exemption 17347 | It allows for the dispatch of an aircraft when conditional language indicates the weather may be below miniums |
| Can we go to a destination if the alternate weather goes below the alternate weather minums? | No, we would need a new alternate. |
| Is RVR controlling for takeoff and landing? | All the time |
| What are standard IFR takeoff minimums? | 1 SM or 5000 RVR |
| How good does the destination weather have to be? | It must be at or above the lowest authorized landing minima, compatible with aircraft type at ETA |
| If the airport has no approaches, how good does the weather have to be? | The ceilings must be 1000' AGL or minimum vectoring altitude (whichever is higher) and 3SM visibility (This is on the airport 10-7 page |
| If circle to land minimums must be used to land at the destination how good does the weather have to be? | Ceiling the ETA must be 1,000 AGL or the charted circle to land minimums (whichever is higher) and 3SM visibility. (This requirement is also on the 10-7 page |
| If the approaches at the destination include a ceiling value how good does the weather have to be? | The ceiling at the ETA must be at least the minimum for the approach. (This minimum is on the approach plate chart. |
| The use of RNAV approach procedures is limited to ________ or ________. | Destination OR Alternates |
| Flights ____________be dispatched to BOTH the destination AND the alternate using only RNAV approaches. | MAY NOT. |
| When do we need a takeoff alternate? | When the weather is below the landing minimums at the departure airport. |
| A takeoff alternate is required if the captain is listed as "High Mins" and (1) Exemption 17203 _______ be applied (2) The weather at the departure airport is ________ those landing minimums specified for high minimums captains | (1) cannot be applied (2) Less than |
| When do we need a destination alternate if we are planning on going somewhere inside the 48 contiguous United States and the district of Columbia? | If the ceilings are 2000 feet above airport elevation or visibility of 3 SM at 1 hour before or 1 hour after the planned ETA, then you need one of them alternate things |
| When do we need an alternate for a destination listed in OpSpec A012 (Excluding Canada)? | If the ceilings are 2000 feet above airport elevation or visibility of 3 SM at 1 hour before or 1 hour after the planned ETA, then you need one of them alternate things AAAAAND there can be no risk of fog, clouds with 3SM vis or less, precipitation, freezing rain, , thunderstorms, freezing drizzle, sleet forecasted during the one hour before or one hour after ETA period of time |
| If we are going to Canadia, when do we need an alternate? | For the 1 hour before / after ETA period of time you need an ALT if: -Fog / Precip / or any VIS restriction would reduce VIS below 3SM -If T-Stormage is focast - you need an ALT -If freezing rain / freezing drizzle or ice pellets is forcst - you need an ALT -If ceiling would be 1000' above FAF and visibility of 3SM or ceilings of 1500' above MDA and 6 SM VIS you need an alt -1-2-3 rule applies -RWY requirement- you need to separate RWYS (the reciprocal doesnt count) less than that you need an alt) |
| For destinations outside the 48 Contiguous States, Wash DC and not listed in OP spec A012 when do you need one of them pesky alternates? | If 1 hour before or 1 hour after your eta.... If either the ceilings are less than 1500 feet above the lowest approach minium OOOORRRRR 2,000 feet above the airport elevation whichever is greater AAAAAANNNNNDDD If the visibility is less than 3 SM or 2SM more than the lowest approach visibility minimums, whichever is greater then you would need an ALTERNAAAAATTTTEEEEEE. |
| What is C055? How does it effect how to can use alternates? | CO55 is used for derived Alternate Weather Minimums. If the airport has one navaid that provides a straight in approach, we have to add 400 feet to the DA or MDA and add 1 SM to the landing miniumums For airports that have two navaids that provide straight in approaches to different suitable runways, we have to add 200 feet and 1/2 SM to the authorized landing minimums |
| When do you need an alternate for supplemental operations? | If the alternate meets the CO55 criteria for an alternate, then we need one. |
| If we are dispatched to an airport that has a curfew (KLGA) and our ETA would fall within that curfew time period, do we need an alternate? | Yes |
| When do we need a second alternate? | When the weather at the destination and the first alternate is marginal. |
| In regards to second alternate requirements what is marginal weather for the destination? What is marginal weather at the alternate? | Destination weather is considered marginal when the weather we below 1000' AGL and 3SM Alternate weather is considered marginal when the ceilings are below 600 AGL and visibility is below 2 SM |
| If Exemption 17347 is used do we need a second alternate? | Yes |
| If the weather changes after the aircraft moves under its own power and we would normally need an alternate, do we need a new release or an ammended release with an alternate? | NO, provided the PIC and the Dispatcher both believe the flight can be conducted safetly |
| Can we calculate our minimums for an alternate based on CAT II minimums? | NO |
| Can we use RNAV Apporaches at the alternate airport for planning purposes? | Yes |
| What do we need to begin an approach with visibility at the destination of less than 3/4 SM | 1) Precision (all weather) runway marking OR runway centerline lights 2) All required airborne and ground equipment are operational 3)Winds are wiithin limits |
| Can we takeoff if our landing weight would be overweight at our destination? | NO |
| Can Exemption 17347 be applied to a high minimums captain? | NO |
| If we used Exemption 17347 do we need to add a second alternate? | yes |
| If we used 17347, what are the weather requirements at the destination airport? | the weather can be 1/2 of the lowest required VISIBILITY for the instrument approach expected to be flown. |
| If we used 17347, what are the weather requirements at the First alternate airport? | the weather can be 1/2 of the lowest required CEILING AAAANNNNDDD VISIBILITY for the OpSpec CO55 Alternate weather minimums |
| If we used 17347, what are the weather requirements at the Second alternate airport? | There is no reduction from the CO55 requirements for an alternate at the second alternate. This is your escape alternate if everything goes sideways |
| Can you use RNAV approaches when determining alternates when using Exemption 17347? | Yes, but you cannot use only RNAV approaches. |
| Can enroute weather affect the use of an alternate when using Exemption 17347? | Yes, we may need to amend an alternate. |
| What are some options we have to deal with Hazardous weather? | 1) changing routing / weather 2) Delaying takeoff or landing 3) holding 4) Landing at an alternate 5) Slowing cruise speed to let weather pass |
| Can we operate toward an airport with known hazardous weather? | NO, but if you can reasonably expect the hazard to be gone at the time of arrival then you can. If needed you can use your emergency authorizy as captain |
| Do we have any company issued tools to help make decisions when operating in the vicinity of hazardous weather? | Yes, The FOM has a "Hazardous Convective Wx During Departure / Arrival" decision tree in the FOM |
| Can we takeoff or land if a microburst alert has been issued? | NO |
| Can we delay rotation when departing with suspected windshear | Yes, FOM 16-42 |
| How much does increasing touchdown speed by 20 KIAS increase stopping distance? | as much as 25% |
| What are the windshear recognition guidelines for takeoff? | 1) Airspeed +/- 15 KIAS 2) Vertical Speed +/- 500 FPM 3) Pitch Attitude +/- 5 degrees |
| What are the windshear recognition guidelines for Approach? | 1) Airspeed +/- 15 KIAS 2) Vertical Speed +/- 500 FPM 3) Pitch Attitude +/- 5 degrees 4) +/- 1 dot glideslope displacement 5) Unusual thrust setting for an extended period |
| How many miles of separation from a thunderstorm is company policy | 25NM separation is company policy |
| If we know about turbulence ahead of time what should we do? | Notify the flight attendants and make a PA to the passengers |
| What should you do if we are going to penetrate a thunderstorm? | 1. Tighten Safety Belts 2. Advise Flight Attendants as soon as possible 3. Fly through the lest intense part of the Thunderstorm 4. Do not penetrate Radar Shadows 5. Avoid altitudes near the freezing level 6. Once inside a cell expect large fluctuations of pitot-static instruments |
| Where do most lightning strikes occur? | Between altitudes of 5000 feet to 10,000 MSL between temperature ranges of -10 to +10 C, in clouds but not in precipitation |
| Where is most hail encountered below 10,000 feet? | Within five miles of the storm |
| Is turbulence required to be discussed during each crew briefing? | Yes, including the type of turbulance |
| What are some of the signs of in flight of volcanic ash? | 1. Poor radio reception 2. Smoke or dust in flight deck 3. Acrid odor similar to an electrical fire 4. Multiple engine malfunctions, such a surges, increasing EGT, torching, flameout etc 5. At night St. Elmos Fire |
| What kind of report do we have to submit if we encounter volcanic ash? | An incident report |
| What are some symptoms of high ozone levels? | 1. acrid taste or smell 2. chest constrictions 3. some disconfort on deep inhalation 4. coghing on deep inhalation 5. Headache 6. Eye irritation |
| What should the flight crew do if an ozone encounter is suspected? | 1. Use 100% oxygen 2. Descend to a lower altitude 3. Contact dispatch |
| If we have to divert to an off-line station and then require de-icing, what should the captain do? | Contact System operations Control |
| What types of precipitation can we not takeoff or land in? | 1.When moderate or heavy freezing rain or heavy freezing drizzle is falling at the airport. The aircraft cannot takeoff or land. 2. When frost, sticking snow, or ice is coating the wings or control surfaces of the airplane, or is adhering to any other part of the airplane structure which the captain believes will adversely affect its performance |
| Can we takeoff in heavy snow? | Yes, provided the heavy snow pre-contamination check flow chart is completed and followed |
| What is often the best option to escape severe icing? | Change altitude |
| Freedom of movement of the N1 fan must be checked by a flight crew member prior to engine start in cold weather )T/F | True |
| If water freezes in the lower part of the intake adjacent to the fan blades can de-ice fluid be used to melt the ice? | No, ops has to use a different method. Usually heated air. |
| When do ailerons become effected? what speed? | 60 to 100 knots |
| If ice accumulation is suspected after landing, what flap setting should we retract the flaps to? | Flap setting 3 |
| What is the best way to use the brakes when taxiing in hot weather conditions? | Let the aircraft accelerate, then slow the aircraft down and release the brake. Don't ride the brakes |
| Clear thunderstorm tops by 1000' for every 10 knots of wind at cloud top. T/F | True |
| Turn seatbelt sign on and off _____ times for imminent severe turbulance | 2 times |
| Do we have to write up the aircraft after a sever turbulence encounter? | Yes |
| Can the aircraft be refueled in a building or hangar? | No |
| No smoking within ___ feet when refuling? | 50 feet |
| Can the engines on the jet be running when refueling? | NO |
| No non-essential ground power within ____ feet of refuling? | 50 feet |
| No maintenance action that could result in an ignition source. (T/F) | True |
| No tossing or dropping metal objects on concrete (T/F) | True |
| Can the aircraft be refueled if the aircraft has hot brakes? | NO |
| What has to be done if there is a fuel spill? | It has to be reported to the station immediately |
| Can we re-fuel in an electrical storm? | Nope |
| Can the radar be operated while refuling? | Again no |
| Can the APU be started while refuling? | Yes, except after a failed start attempt or if it automatically shuts down |
| Can passengers board the aircraft while the aircraft is fueling? | YEs |
| If we are gravity re-fueling the aircraft on the left wing, can the passengers board the aircraft by a means other than the jetbridge? | No, they can board using the jet bridge only during gravity (over wing refueling) |
| Can we refuel with the boarding door closed. | Yes, if the off -gate refueling procedure is followed. We cannot refuel at the gate with the boarding door closed. |
| How much fuel must we have onboard for a domestic flight? | we have to be able to fly to the furthest alternate then continue to fly for 45 minutes at long range cruise at 10,000 feet |
| What are the fuel requirements for Flag operations? | 1. Fly to the destination 2. Fly 10% of the total time required from departure to the destination 3. Fly to the most distant alternate 4. Fly 30 minutes at hold speed at 1500 feet above alternate or destination |
| What are the supplemental operation requirements for fuel within the contiguous 48 states and the District of Columbia? | The same fuel requirements as domestic |
| What must the dispatcher and the PIC consider when computing the fuel required? | 1. Wind and weather 2. Traffic Delays 3. One instrument approach and a possible missed approach 4. NOTAM disruptions 5. MELs that require additional fuel |
| When do we have to notify dispatch when we have been over fueled? | when we receive fuel 300#s over the planned ramp fuel |
| When is fuel option 1 used? | 1. when weather at the destination is at or above 1000 feet and 3 SM 2. There are no thunderstorms forcast +/- 1 hour of the ETA at the destination 3. There are no thunderstorms along the planned route of flight 4. There are no airport configuration issues impacting the operational capacity of the destination airport 5. Forecast arrivals are not expected to exceed 110% of capacity +/- 1 hour from ETA |
| How much Hold fuel can be included in fuel option 1? | 10 minutes of Holding fuel |
| When is fuel option 2 used? | 1. The weather at DEST is below 1000 feet and 3 SM 2. There are thunderstorms forecast +/- 1 hour of the ETA at the DEST airport 3. There are thunderstorms enroute which may cause a deviation from the planned route 4. There are airport configuration issues impacting the operational capacity of the DEST airport 5. Forecast arrivals at the destination airport are expected to exceed 110% of the airports capacity +/- 1 hour from the ETA 6. The destination airport TAF indicates wind, guests above 25 kts |
| How much hold fuel can be included in fuel option 2? | 10 minutes |
| When is fuel option 3 used? | 1. VIP Movement +/- 1 hour of ETA at destination airport 2. Any large storms 3. Route of flight parallel to a frontal boundary expected to cross within one hour of flight causing wind to change significantly 4. ATC has advised CDR / SWAP procedures are in effect 5. When requested by codeshare 6. Any other reason |
| What is the taxi fuel burn rate for estimation purposes? | 18 lbs / min |
| When do we Tanker fuel? | At the request of the codeshare |
| What is the rule of thumb for fuel calculation? | 1000# of fuel moves us 100 NM or add a zero to the distance |
| If the fuel consumption is greater than planned, what are some ways to help tilt things back towards the right direction? | 1. Change speed, route and or altitude to reduce consumption 2. Amend the dispatch release by eliminating an alternate if conditions exist 3. Ammend the release by changing the alernate to a nearer airport 4. Divert to an airport within fuel range |
| When do we declare minimum fuel? | The greater of reserve + Alternate fuel (If required) OR 2660#s whichever is higher |
| Do we have to notify dispatch if we declare minimum fuel? | Yes |
| What paperwork do we have to do if we declare minimum fuel?? | We have to submit an incident report |
| What should we do in the MCDU prior to declaring minimum fuel? | Check PERF INIT page 3 and make sure it matches the fuel gage |
| What is the correct radio phraseology when we are have declared minimum fuel? | "Chicago Approach, Brickyard 1234 minimum fuel" |
| When do we declare emergency fuel? | If the fuel on board decreases to 30 minutes duration using the consumption rates |
| What is 30 minutes of fuel in pounds? | 1800 pounds (60 pound per minute) |
| What should you do if you declare emergency fuel? | 1. Go directly to the airport 2. Request priority handling from ATC 3. Submit an incident report |
| What is the APU policy to conserve fuel? | The goal is run the APU 40 minutes |
| What temperature should we keep the cabin? | 55 F to 76 F (13C to 24 C) |
| If ice conditions would affect the safety of flight, can we continue to our destinaton? | No |
| Is a frost layer of not greater than 1/8' permitted on the underside of the wing prior to departure? | Yes |
| Type 1 or 3 de-ice fluid should be applied where on the aircraft? | The whole body |
| Who has the final say when to de-ice? | The captain |
| Who must the captain advise that we will be deicing? | The station operations frequency |
| If a fluid brand name is not provided, how do we run the HOT tables? | Just use the generic fluid type |
| When must type IV fluid be applied? | If the OAT is at or below 37 F and there is falling precipitation |
| When do we use the 76% adjusted hold over time guidlines? | When de-icing with slats or flaps extended |
| Are we authorized to depart in freezing fog? | Yes |
| Can we leave the gate if heavy freezing rain or moderate freezing rain exist? | Nope |
| What should someone do if they get de-ice fluid in their eyes? | Flush with large amounts of water for 15 minutes |
| Who initiates the transfer of control, PF or PM? | Always by PF |
| What does the "CAMI" acronym mean? | C-Confirm all auto flight and or navigation inputs with the other Pilot when airborne A-Activate the input M-Monitor mode annunciations to ensure auto flight system performs as desired I-Intervene if necessary |
| Prior to moving the flap handle or gear lever what should the pilot monitoring do? | Check the airspeed |
| At what ceiling and visibility is the autopilot required to be engaged from the FAF to the Landing callout? | 1 SM or less and ceilings of 1,000 feet or less |
| If the autopilot is required but inoperative or the approach doesn't authorize the use of autopilot, what must we use? | The flight director |
| When do we have to guard the flight controls? | 1,500 feet AFE or past the FAF whichever is higher |
| Can we deviate from SOPs during non-normal operations? | Yes |
| If we do a GRG do we have to run an Originating and Receiving checklist? | Yes |
| Can the PIC deviate from non-normal procedures when an emergency situation require him to do so in the interest of safety? | Yes |
| When the phrase "Land at the Nearest suitable airport" is used in the QRH what should the flight crew do? | Turn the aircraft toward the nearest suitable airport without delay |
| Who calls for all non-normal checklists? | The PF |
| Who is PF on the ground? | The captain |
| During non-normal situations who assigns PF/PM duties after memory items have been completed and immediate action items? | The Captain |
| All non normal checklist shall be run until when? | Until the statement "End" is reached unless a situation of higher priority exists. |
| What is the level of urgency for checklists? | 1. (Highest Priority) Emergency Evacuation 2. QRC with Memory Item 3. QRC with QRH 4. QRH 5. NCL |
| Will oxygen masks be donned if the aircraft is less than 10,000 feet? | NO |
| Will oxygen masks be donned if the aircraft is above 10,000 feet? | Yes |
| Will oxygen Masks Be donned if the fire extinguisher is to be used? | Yes |
| Will oxygen masks be used at the first indication of noxious fumes / smoke? Why? | Yes, because some fumes can cause temporary or permanent loss of vision |
| What does Emergency Oxygen setting do on the oxygen mask? | It provides positive pressure and is used to clear smoke in the mask when necessary |
| What does the 100% setting on the oxygen mask do? | It provides 100% oxygen to prevent inhalation of contaminated air |
| What does the normal setting on the oxygen mask do?` | It provides normal oxygen when the situation permits |
| What are the steps for a non-normal proceedure? | 1. Fly the Damn airplane 2. Identify Cancel 3. DO NOT RUSH 4. Accomplish Memory Items 5. Accomplish Immediate Action Items 6. Captain Assigns PF 7. Accomplish the QRH checklist 8. Navigate 9. Communicate |
| When should transfer of control occur when accomplishing a non-normal proceedure? | 1. The airplane flightpath and configuration are properly established 2. The aircraft is not in a critical state of flight. (Not takeoff or landing) 3. Immediate action items (If any) have been accomplished |
| At what age does a child have to occupy a seat? | 2 years old. Must occupy a seat |
| When may the shoulder harnesses be released? | after takeoff |
| When must the shoulder harness by worn? | Taxi, takeoff and landing. Shoulder harnesses must be worn no later than 10,000 feet in the decent |
| When is use of headsets required? | Below 18,000 feet except while parked on the ground |
| If one pilot leaves the flight deck and the remaining pilot receives a new clearance from ATC, should the pilot wait until the other pilot comes back to CAMI? | NO, The pilot in the flight deck should comply with the ATC clearance immediatly |
| If the PIC deviates from the SOP, what must be done? | An incident report must be completed |
| When is sterile cockpit initiated? | When the flight attendant says "Cabin Secure to Taxi" and closes the flight deck door. |
| What are the critical phases of flight? | Taxi, Takeoff and landing. Flight below 10,000 feet except cruise flight. |
| If an aircraft is stopped on the ground with the parking brake set is the aircraft in a critical phase of flight? | NO |
| Can we operated the aircraft with the Registration Missing? | Yes, under exemption 11498 |
| Can we operate the aircraft with the Airworthiness Certificate missing? | Yes, under exemption 11498 |
| Can the FCC radio license be missing? | Yes, sort of. A copy on COMPLY 365 is considered satisfactory |
| What exterior lights do we turn on for a line up and wait clearance? | All lights except the wing mounted Taxi and Wing mounted Landing Lights |
| When should the logo light be turned on? | All operations below 10,000 feet at night and during low visibility |
| When should the NAV lights be on? | At all times |
| When should the red beacon be on? | Prior to pushback or engine start until the engines are shut down |
| When do we turn on the strobe lights? | They should be on for all flight operations as long as they do not create a distraction to the flight crew or other aircraft |
| When does a VOR check need to be completed? | Once a day |
| What is the maximum permissible variation between bearings for a VOR check? | 4 degrees |
| What is the maximum speed in class C or D airspace below 2500 feet? | 200 knots |
| What is the max speed for a CAT C aircraft on an RF leg? | 140 knots |
| What is the max speed for a CAT D aircraft on an RF leg? | 165 knots |
| What is the minimum safe altitude in the terminal area? | The highest MSA |
| What is the minimum safe altitude on an airway? | The MOCA. (Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude) |
| What is the minimum safe altitude off of an airway? | The MORA (Minimum Off Route Altitude) |
| What is the alttude policy Anywhere? | Allowing, if an engine fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface |
| What is the altitude policy over congested areas? | 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 feet of the aircraft |
| What is the altitude policy over other than congested areas? (Rural Areas) | 500 feet above the surface |
| What is the minimum altitude in mountainous areas? | 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 NM |
| When do we set the local altimeter setting? | below 18,000 feet or transition altitude |
| When do we set 29.92 on the baro? | 18,000 feet or transition level |
| When are LNAV / VNAV minimums not authorized? | We have to change the minimums of we are using temperature compensation |
| During the last 1000 feet of altitude change what should the flight crew do? | If VMC scan for traffic |
| Do we have to point to the altitude when changing altitude? | Yep |
| When does the terrain page have to be displayed? | Below 18,000 feet when in a mountainous area |
| Are CPDLC-DCL available to us at international destinations/ departure airports? | Nope |
| When is CPDLC available in CANADA? | Above FL290 |
| What are our climbs and descents limited to in RVSM airspace? | 1000FPM |
| Are we immunte to 5G notams? | Yep, we have an exemption |
| Who can conduct the exterior preflight? | Only the captain or first officer |
| After a maintenance signoff is an interior / exterior preflight required? | The captain has to consider if it is necessary and make a decision |
| Is there an NEF for a missing galley cart or atlas container? | no |
| What are the exceptions to no aircraft servicing with one or both engines running? | 1. Connecting ground power with the NLG chocked 2. Passenger Boarding / Deplaning using the jetbridge boarding door 1L 3. Loading / unloading bags only with number #1 engine running |
| When is a crew briefing required? | on all originating flights and flights where there are a crew change |
| Can the crew brief be conducted with passengers present? | NO, we can close the boarding door temporarily or have the brief in the flight deck |
| What has to be briefed each leg? | Flight conditions Cabin service Times Safety |
| What are we saying when we electronically sign the release? | 1. I am fit for duty 2. Contents of the dispatch release are correct and the flight can be conducted safely 3. PIC is current with respect to 3 takeoffs and landings in the past 90 days and has a current line check 4. If it is the first flight of the day the security inspection has been completed |
| What must the captain do prior to the release brief? | 1. Verify weather is legal for disptach 2. Verify Alternates are legal 3. Verify the Flight plan routing 4. Check the MELs / CDLs/ NEFs matches the AFML |
| When do we request a clearance via radio? | If we have not received clearance in a reasonable time. It should be available 30 minutes prior to departure |
| Which color of CLR is acceptable? | White or Yellow |
| When is the soonest we can depart from the gate? | 10 minutes prior |
| If we want to leave more than 10 minutes prior what do we have to do? | Request permission from dispatch |
| Can we release the parking brake without acknowledgement from the ground crew? | NO |
| How do we communicate to stop the pushback? | Flash the nosewheel light, or state "stop pushback over our headsets", If the taxi light is defective, flash the landing lights |
| What must the captain include in the taxi brief? | 1. Hotspots 2. Runway crossings 3. Taxi Routing |
| Do we have to have the taxi diagram displayed for taxi? | Yes |
| When should we start both engines? | If the anticipated taxi time is less than 3 minutes to the runway |
| If the taxi time is anticipated to be longer than 10 minutes, what should we do? | Shutdown the APU |
| Can we start an engine while crossing a runway? | No, except if the runway isn't operational. Then you can. |
| What is the maximum taxi speed? | 30 Knots |
| If we are repositioning an aircraft, what callsign should we use? | if the tail number is N123YX then the callsign would be RPA123 on the transponder on the radio it would be Brickyard123 |
| Are VFR flights at night permitted? | Nope |
| What are the cloud clearance and visibility requirements for class G airspace below 1200 feet? | We must remain clear of clouds |
| What are the cloud clearance and visibility requirements for class G airspace above1200 feet? | 500 feet below 2000 feet horizontal 1000 feet above (these are all in reference to cloudage) |
| When must a flight crew receive an IFR clearance if departing VFR? | Within 50 NM of the departure airport |
| Can we accept an IFR clearance with a VMC climbout? | Yes, we just have to comply with the departure procedures for that particular airport |
| Can we takeoff at night from a runway with no lighting system? | NO |
| When must the captain perform the takeoff? | RVR less than 1600 or visibility less than 1/4 SM |
| Can we takeoff from an intersection if there is no runway takeoff data is available? | No. we must have ruway takeoff data for the intersection |
| When can i transfer control to the first officer? | When the aircraft is alligned with the runway centerline |
| Does ATC assume we will be ready upon reaching the runway? | Yes, if we need time at the end, we need to tell them |
| Can we turn prior to 400 feet? | Not typically, only if operationally required by ATC or for a specific Engine Failure proceedure or missed approach |
| What altitude is acceleration altitude? | 1000 feet unless altered by a departure proceedure or EFP |
| When is an ODP used? | It is used in absence of an ATC radar vector or SID assignment |
| Do complex special departure procedures override an ODP? | YEs |
| Can we turn off the strobe lights if they create a distraction? | Yes |
| A standard holding pattern turns which way? LEft of right? | Right |
| What is the appropriate leg timing below 14,000 feet? | 1 minute |
| What is the appropriate leg timing above 14,000 feet? | 1 minute 30 seconds |
| When should we start speed reduction prior to a holding fix? | 3 minutes prior |
| What is the maximum holding airspeed below 6000 feet? | 200 KIAS |
| What is the maximum holding airspeed between 6001 and 14,000 feet? | 230 KIAS |
| What is the maximum holding airspeed above 14000 feet? | 265 KIAS |
| Holding patterns from 6,001 to 14,000 may be restricted to a maximum airspeed of 210 knots. THis non standard pattern will be depicted by an icon. (T/F) | Truth |
| Do we have to follow the minimum holding airspeed found in the APM? | YEs |
| Do we have to use the expect altitudes and speed in a lost comms situation? | NO |
| What do we have to do 200NMs out and before TOD? | Verify Waypoints, altitudes and speeds |
| What is the maximum decent rate a 3,000 AGL | 3000 FPM |
| What is the maximum decent rate a 2,000 AGL | 2000 FPM |
| What is the maximum decent rate a 1,000 AGL | 1000 FPM |
| What is the minimum ceiling and visibility to dispatch to an airport with no approached? | 3SM and 1,000' ceilings |
| What approaches are we not authorized to do? | ILS Cat 1 SA ILS Cat 2 SA ILS CAT 3 RNAV using LPV minimums |
| When do we used SMGCS charts? | When RVR is less than 1200 feet |
| Which RVR is controlling? | Touchdown Zone is controlling RVR |
| What RVR reports are advisory? | Midpoint and rollout RVR are advisory |
| RVR values are required for approaches less than ____ SM | 1/2 SM |
| When can we use a DDA? | We can use a DDA in place of a MDA on a non precision approach |
| Can a low time captain use a DDA? | NO, a low time captain has to use the MDA |
| Can a FMS be used to substitute for a VOR, DME, VOR/TACAN, VORTAC, VOR/DME, NDB or compass locator? | YEs |
| Can the FMS substitute for the last segment of an ILS approach? | NO |
| What is required to start an approach with visibility less than 3/4 SM | 1. Precision Instrument (all weather) runway markings or runway centerline lights are available 2. All required airborne and ground equipment are operational 3. Winds are within limits |
| If the visibility drops below the minimums on the approach prior to the final approach fix or final approach segment can we continue the approach? | NO |
| If the visibility drops below the minimum visibility required for the approach and we are past the final approach fix on the approach do we have to discontinue the approach? | NO, we can continue on the approach past the final approach fix if the visibility drops below the minimum required for the approach. |
| What is the lowest minimums and visibility for a CAT II approach? | DH not less than 100 feet and visibility not less than 1200 RVR |
| What is the Lowest permitted RCC for ILS CAT II? | RCC 3 |
| What ground equipment is required for a CAT II approach? | 1) Localizer 2) Glideslope 3)Outer marker or DME or FMS to identify the FAF 4) Approach light system 5) High Intensity Runway Lights 6)Touchdown Zone Lights 7) Runway Centerline Lights |
| What is acceleration altitude on a missed approach? | 1000 AGL |
| What do we need to do after a missed approach? | tell atc we conducted a missed approach and intentions. Try again, divert etc |
| When does the captain have to complete a GE Engine Reporting Form? | 1) Go-Around at Takeoff power (TOGA) 2) Go-Around with reserve power 3) Any RSV power activation for any other reason (Windshear, EGPWS recovery, engine failure, TLA inadvertaently MAX during takeoff etc |
| What is defined as the touchdown zone? | the first third of the available landing distance but in no case greater than 3000 feet down the runway |
| If the first officer lands, when does the captain take control? | at 60 knots after thrust reversers are stowed |
| Do we have to use autobrakes? | No, they are used at the pilots discretion, but we have to have ACARS runway data available for the desired autobrake selection |
| When can we not accept a LAHSO? | 1) if the runway is not dry 2) if the tailwind is more than 2 knots 3)If the aircraft is overweight 4) Low Time First Officers cannot accept a LAHSO 5)If there is INOP equipment that would adversly effect the stopping capability |
| When is a Rejected Landing Procedure Accomplished? | IF it is published and we need to go-around below 1000 feet |
| Can the after landing flow be completed on the runway? | No |
| Can the after landing checklist be completed on the runway? | NO |
| How many marshallers have to be present when arriving at the gate? | One |
| Do we have to have wing walkers? | NO, they are optional |
| Are marshallers required to park the aircraft with an approved parking guidance system? | NO, they are not required |
| Can the captain taxi to the gate if there is equipment over the line? | NO, the equipment has to be moved |
| IF external power is available, but ground air is not available, when do we start the APU? | We start it when needed for passenger comfort |
| Which engine do we shut down first? | the right engine |
| Normally who opens the main cabin door? | The gate agent |
| What is the correct proceedure to open the main cabin door once it has been closed and the aircraft is ready to depart? | The captain has to tell the flight attendant to disarm the doors |
| When can we execute a sidestep maneuver? | When the runways are 1200 feet apart |
| Can we do contact approaches? | NO |
| When do we have to do a go around for Course deviation? | 1/4 scale defection |
| What is factored landing distance? | full stop landing within 60% of available runway |
| What percent does wet runway add to factored landing distance? | wet adds 15% |
| Straight in approach is within 30 degrees of centerline (t/f | truth |
| Do we have to have ACARS data to use the autobrakes? | YEs |
| During deplaning, when possible a pilot should stand at the flight deck door to acknowledge customers (T/F) | True |
| When passengers remain on board, at any time, the captain is responsible to ensure that the : Engines are _____ At least one ____________ Both flight attendants are_______ | - the engines are shut down -At least one floor level exit remains open to provide for the deplaning of the passengers -Both flight attendants are in their boarding positions |
| Can the APU be left running after the flight has been completed? | Yes, provided qualified crew members are in the immediate proximity or the aircraft is turned over to maintenance |
| ILS CAT II postflight requirements, when does the captain have to file an incident report? | If the flight crew has to intervene due to a system abnormality after passing 100 feet during weather below CAT 1 minimums |
| Does the Captain have to file an incident report if there is a CPDLC issue? | YEs |
| Prior to leaving the aircraft, the captain of the inbound flight is responsible to ensure the aircraft will remain attended when passengers are present unless: | 1. The new crew of the outbound flight has taken over 2. A customer service agent is present on the jetbridge 3. the boarding door is closed. One crew member must remain with the aircraft until one of the above measures are in place |
| The captain has to ensure the IFR flight plan is closed at an operating control tower by going up in the tower and asking if the flight plan was closed. (T/F) | False. The flight plan closes automatically at a towered airfield |
| The captain has to ensure the IFR flight plan is closed at a non towered by? | Cancelling with ATC or calling FSS |
| Do supplemental operations require the use of the actual weights of the passengers? | YEs, however standard weights can be authorized |
| For sports teams are actual weights required? | Yep |
| Do DOD charters require actual weights for PAX and Bags | yep |
| What is the time window for departure for an EDCT? | 5 minutes prior or 5 minutes after the EDCT |
| When taking a delay at the gate with the boarding door open, how often must an announcement be made? | every 30 minutes an announcement must be made by the captain, a flight attendant or the customer service agent |
| What it the purpose of making an announcement every thirty minutes with the boarding door open? | It resets the clock for any ground delays |
| If the aircraft is parked at a hardstand or any other means of egress that is not a jet bridge, is it acceptable to close the main cabin door to protect passengers from the elements? | Yes, provided provided passengers are informed the door has been closed for their comfort and will be opened for passengers wishing to deplane |
| If we need to take a delay off gate due to operational needs for an inbound flight, can we take the ATC delay off gate? | Yes, as long as we comply with the tarmac delay program |
| When does the time start for a tarmac delay for departure? | When the main cabin door is closed and passengers do not have the opportunity to deplane |
| When does the time start for a tarmac delay for arrival? | It starts at touchdown at the destination or the alternate |
| When does the time stop for a tarmac delay? | When the aircraft takes off or when passengers are notified they have the opportunity to deplane the aircraft |
| When does a tarmac delay become excessive? | When passengers have not had the opportunity to deplane for 90 minutes |
| What is a domestic flight? | it is a flight that originates and terminates within the boundaries of the united states |
| What is an international flight? | It is a flight that originated in the US with a destination outside the US, OR a flight that originates outside the US with either a destination or diversion airport in the US |
| What is a Canadian flight? | A flight on Canadian soil that is either originating or terminating in Canada |
| What is the maximum amount of time a flight can remain on the ground for a domestic flight? | 3 hours is the max |
| What is the maximum amount of time a flight can remain on the ground for an international flight? | 4 hours is the max |
| Is Canada consider an international flight as it pertains to the Tarmac Delay program? | No, it is considered domestic so it falls in the 3 hour maximum time limit |
| Can we extend beyond the 3 hour time limit for Canada? | Yes, a one time extension of 45 minutes beyond the 3 hour requirement is permitted. |
| At what point in time during a tarmac delay must adequate food and water need to be made available? | once two hours time has passed. |
| Prior to resuming taxi after an extended delay what must the captain talk to the flight attendants about? | If the cabin is still secured to taxi |
| When do we have to use the TDP checklist in Docunet? Does it matter if the boarding door is open or closed? | When the delay reaches 30 minutes, No the checklist must be used if the door is opened or closed |
| Where is the TDP kit located on the aircraft? | under the last row of seats aircraft left, in the last overhead bin aircraft left or in compartment 301 in the aft galley OR the codeshare partner may elect to place additional snacks on board in lieu of a TDP kit |
| Where can TDP kits be replaced? | The can only be replaced at catering hubs |
| If the TDP kit is missing is a logbook entry required? | No, because it is not a required item |
| At what time for domestic flights shall the captain coordinate with the dispatcher and the SOC duty manager to determine if the flight will return to gate? | at 150 minutes for domestic delays |
| At what time for international flights shall the captain coordinate with the dispatcher and the SOC duty manager to determine if the flight will return to gate? | at 210 minutes for international delays |
| How do we communicate to ATC we are DOT 3 or DOT 4? | "Brickyaaaard 1234 is declaring DOT 3 (or DOT 4 for international flights) and needs to return to gate |
| Do we used Local time or Zulu time for the TDP checklist? | Zulu time |
| When does the company have to execute the TDP program? | for all tarmac delays that exceed 3 hours for domestic or 4 hours for international flights |
| When do we use STAT-MD? | When medical advice is deemed necessary |
| Can STAT-MD coordinate with local medical teams and have them meet the aircraft at the gate? | YEs |
| What does the SAMPLE acronym stand for? | S - Signs / Symptoms A - Allergies M - Medicines P - Past Medical History L - Last Oral Medicine Intake E - Events leading up to the situation |
| Do we have to submit a report after a medical situation? If so what type? How long does the Captain have to submit the report? | Yes, Incident Report, 48 Hours |
| Who can declare a passenger is dead? | The flight crew cannot. A licensed medical physician can |
| Is pronouncement of a passenger to be dead on an aircraft discouraged? | YEs |
| Can we move the unresponsive person when deplaning passengers? | No, we have to wait until the authorities arrive |
| If arriving from an international city, what must be reported at least 30 minutes prior to landing? | 1. Apparent Death 2. Extreme Diarrhea to the point that they cannot control their bowels 3. Temperature of at least 100 degrees coupled with -Rash -Swollen Glands -Jaundice |
| What is the VPES program? | It allows passengers to present him or herself as a qualified medical worker in the event of an in-flight medical emergency |
| When do we consider a pilot incapacitated? | If a crewmember does not respond appropriately to two (2) verbal communications or a crewmember does not respond to a verbal communication associated with a intended flight profile two times. |
| Can Pilots leave the flight deck to fight a fire? | NO |
| Are simulations of emergencies permitted in any flight operations? | No |
| Cabin preparation for landing for an emergency landing is at the captain's discretion (T/F) | True |
| What is the NTSB acronym for briefing the A flight attendant | N - Nature of the Emergency T - Time to Prepare the Cabin S - Special Instructions B - Brace and Evacuation Signals |
| If we think we need to land at an unauthorized airport what should we do? | 1. Contact Dispatcher 2. Obtain weather and field conditions 3. Time permitting confirm the dispatcher believes landing at an unauthorized airport is in the best interest of safety |
| What is the landing configuration for landing on water? | Landing gear up with maximum flap available and burn fuel off to a minimum on board to increase buoyancy |
| How should we landing if landing on the water? | Land parallel to the waves |
| If an evacuation is not required how do we make that PA to the passengers? | "This is the captain, Please remain seated with your seatbelts fastened" Once the situation is stabilized make a second short announcement, if emergency equipment is dispatched advise the PAX they may see emergency equipment |
| What are your duties as captain during an evacuation? | 1. Take a fire extinguisher and go to the cabin 2. Assess the exit and evac. conditions, assess the left hand of the A/C first 3. Assess the conditions in the cabin 4. Open forward exits, if still closed 5. Assist PAX in exiting the A/C 6. The captain is the last to exit, Exit after everyone else has or life is in danger 7. Take FAs with if incapacitated 8. Take charge of PAX, keep them away from A/C 9. Don't allow smoking 10. Don't allow re-entry to the A/C 11. Supervise first aid and shelter |
| What are the first officers duties during an evacuation? | 1. Assess the exit and evac conditions, assess the right hand of the aircraft first 2. The F.O. gets outside first to direct passengers 3. F.O.s exit should be briefed 4. Open forward exits if still closed 5. Circle aircraft and enlist the aid of others 6. Direct passengers to an assembly point 7. Assist FAs and CA |
| What is an "Urgent" situation? | A potential distress condition concerning safety and requiring timely but not immediate assistance |
| What is a "Distress" condition? | A condition that threatens serious and / or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance |
| When should we declare an emergency? | 1. A flight cannot establish its own position 2. An aircraft component failure jeopardizes flight safety 3. An aircraft is endangered by fire 4. An in flight medical emergency requires a diversion 5. Any contingency jeopardizing flight safety |
| In an emergency, an ATC clearance is not required prior to taking action (T/F) | True, but we need to advise ATC of our plan |
| Can a flight crew member involved in an airplane accident continue a flight or originate any other flight? | Only when receiving permission from flight operations |
| When is a takeoff considered to be rejected? | Anytime the crew accepts either a line up and wait or takeoff clearance then crosses the active runway hold short line and subsequently clears the active runway for any reason |
| What is the takeoff field length? | It is the longer of the balanced field length or 1.15 times the all engine distance to 35 feet |
| What is a balanced field? | The balanced field length is the all engines acceleration distance to engine failure speed, continuing takeoff on one engine and achieving a height of 35 feet by the end of the runway or stopping |
| Does the certified rejected takeoff stopping distance include the use of reverse thrust? | No, it does not include the use of reverse thrust |
| What is V 1? | It is the maximum speed to which an aircraft can accelerate, lose an engine and either stop or takeoff in the remaining distance |
| What is the V 1 speed based on? | A dry , hard surfaced runway without the use of reverse thrust |
| What does the company recommend rejection prior to 80 knots for? | engine failure fire fire warnings inability to develop rated thrust for takeoff unusual noise or vibration tire failure amber master caution abnormal slow acceleration perception the aircraft is not safe to fly |
| What does the company recommend rejection after 80 knots but prior to V1? | engine failure aircraft aural fire warning perception the aircraft isnt safe to fly It is NOT recommended to reject for a Master caution only |
| When would you clear the runway after a rejected takeoff? | If the situation is stable |
| When would you NOT clear the runway after a rejected takeoff? | If the potential for an evacuation exists. (FYI) -The runway provides crash fire and rescue vehicles better access to the aircraft - Consider requesting assistance from tower, ground personnel or the flight attendants to eval the situation -Use all available information to formulate a response plan |
| After a rejected takeoff we have to contact tower (T/F) | True |
| PAX get anxious after a rejected takeoff. Should we make a PA? | Yes, calm the peeps down |
| What do we have to do after a rejected takeoff? | Notify dispatch, file an incident report |
| Before attempting a second takeoff, what do we have to do? | advise the PAX a thorough systems check has been completed and the aircraft is safe for flight and ready for takeoff. Explain why no maintenance action was required. |
| If lost comms occurs in VMC what should we do? | Continue flight under VMC, land as soon as practical |
| If lost comms occurs under IMC how should we proceed regarding our route? | Continue on the 1 - assigned route 2 - expected route 3 - filed route |
| If lost comms occurs under IMC how should we proceed regarding our altitude ? | 1- Assigned 2- Minimum altitude / FL for IFR operations 3 - expected altitude |
| Under lost comms, if the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, what should we do? | Commence a decent or decent and approach as close as possible to the EFC or ETA if an EFC has not been established |
| Under lost comms, if the clearance limit is NOT a fix from which an approach begins, what should we do? | Leave the clearance limit at the EFC or upon arrival over the clearance limit, proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence a descent / approach as close as possible to the ETA if an EFC has NOT been estabilished |
| If we have a CPDLC comm failure, what should we do? | Terminate the connection then re-logon, if there are still issues revert to voice proceedures |
| If DME equipment fails, do we have to notify ATC? | Yes |
| What is the order in which we should choose a diversion airport? | 1) Codeshare on-line 2) C070 Airports 3) Commercial 4) Military 5) Private |
| What are the steps for a diversion? | 1) Contact Dispatch 2) Get an amended dispatch release 3) Verify fuel load is adequate 4) Verify weather at alternate is adequate 5) Get an ATC clearance 6) Advise Flight attendants 7) Advise Passengers |
| What exemption allows us to operate without a registration and / or airworthiness certificate? | Exemption 11498 |
| If dissatisfied with any part of the aircrafts airworthiness the captain can reject the aircraft. (T/F) | True |
| Can we fly an aircraft with an open write up? | Only if we have a Special Flight permit |
| Can we reposition an aircraft with an open write up? | Yes |
| When does a maintenance calendar day expire? | 00:00 (midnight) Indianapolis time |
| Flight hours remaining on a maintenance item must allow the aircraft to arrive at the station based on _______ | ETE prior to the flight hour being limited |
| Flight cycles remaining on the scheduled maintenance tasks must allow the aircraft to arrive at the station prior to________ | the cycle limit being reached |
| What color ink do maintenance discrepancies have to be written in? | Black |
| If an open discrepancy is found, what should the captain do? | Call thy maintenance controller and tell him all the things broken with your sad bird |
| How do we count to see if the two day inspection is legal? | We count backward from today by two days. There must be a two day inspection within the previous two days, not counting today. For example. An aircraft with a two day inspection completed on may 1 is legal to depart if its arrival time based on orrigially scheduled block time will be no later than 2359 indy time on may 3. The next two day inspection must be done before the first flight on May 4th. |
| VOR checks have to be done every 9 days. (T/F) | False. VOR checks have to be done every day. |
| What is the time interval for a Category A MEL | It will be specified in the MEL |
| What is the time interval for a Category B MEL | 3 Calendar days |
| What is the time interval for a Category C MEL | 10 Calendar days |
| What is the time interval for a Category D MEL | 120 Calendar days |
| Does day of discovery count towards the time for a MEL? | NO |
| What does (M) mean on the MEL? | It is an item that has to be accomplished by maintenance |
| What does (FR) mean on the MEL? | It means the MEL has a follow up requirement. These requirements may be weekly, daily, every flight, or a time frame as specified on the MEL |
| Does the (FR) show up on the release as a reminder? | YEs |
| What does (CA MEL) mean on the MEL? | It refers to Maintenance deactivation procedures that may be accomplished by the flight crew under direct verbal communications with Maintenance Control |
| What RNP value can we use for an approach? | .3 |
| What RNP value can we used for the missed segment of an approach? | 1.0 |
| What does (RNP) refer to on the MEL? | It is a reference to the RNP AR capabilities of the aircraft |
| What does (ADS-B) refer to on the MEL? | Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast capabilities of the aircraft |
| What does an (O) symbol mean on the MEL? | It indicates a requirement items that must be completed for an Operations procedure. This is ultimately the responsibility of the PIC, it may be the flight crew responsibility to accomplish the task or other qualified personnel |
| If there is an existing MEL that wasn't complied with properly, do we have to write up he aircraft? | Typically no, we can just make the correction without a logbook entry. If there is a question call MOC |
| What is the time limit on a CAT P MEL also known as an NEF? | 120 days excluding the calendar day in which is was deffered |
| Is there an NEF available for galley carts or atlas containers? | NO |
| What is the purpose of a NON-MEL Deferred Maintenance Item? | It is for maintenance to track items are within serviceable limits and do not require immediate action. It is for tracking purposes only |
| How many times can a circuit breaker be pulled or reset on the ground? | Once in accordance with a QRH, SOP, GRG, MEL or FOM procedure |
| Is there an exception to the resetting of a circuit breaker rule? | Yes, if the PIC deems the safest course of action for the flight is to reset the breaker, then it is permitted |
| If a circuit breaker trips, do we have to write it up? | YEs |
| When would we enter a "INFO ONLY" entry into the logbook? | GRG and inoperative galley carts / trash carts / Atlas containers |
| What are the three types of non-routine flight operations? | Reposition Flights Maintenance Ferry Flights Operational Check Flights |
| What unique briefing must be completed for a ferry flight? | The Pilot on Duty (POD) or Manager on Duty (MOD) must brief the flight crew on the conduct of the ferry flight. |
| If we are to perform a ferry flight in Canada, do we need any additional documentation? | Yes, we need the current Transport Canada Continuous Special Fight Authorization on board the aircraft |
| If flying through multiple countries, do we need special permission to ferry an aircraft through their airspace? | Yes |
| What additional reports does the company want the captain to make? | 1) ETA differs by 15 minutes 2) Cruise Altitude varies by 4000 feet 3) Deviation from course by 100 NM 4) FOD in jepardy 5)Bad weather in flight |
| Above 10,000 feet if ACARS is inop, who do we call to report out and off time? | Ops or AIRINC |
| At what altitude do we have to monitor AIRINC if ACARS is INOP | Above 10,000 feet |
| Below 10,000 feet if ACARS is inop what frequency should we monitor? | OPS |
| Can we depart from an international location outside of AIRINC coverage? | NO |
| When will the NO Smoking Sign be Illuminated? | Prior to Passenger Boarding and remain on during all aircraft operations |
| When will the Fasten Belts Sign be turned on? | Any movement on the surface, takeoff or landing, and any other time considered necessary by the captain |
| When do we have to turn off the fasten seatbelts sign? | In flight when NOT required |
| When a taxi delay is encountered how often and how do we provide an update to the passengers? | Every 15 minutes, the parking brake has to be on |
| When should the top of decent announcement be made? | 30 minutes prior to arrival ideally |
| How do we notify the flight attendants of the emergency procedure if the PA is inop? | 5 chimes by cycling the sterile cockpit switch 5 time |
| If the cabin to flight deck emergency button is illuminated, do we have to answer it immediatly? | No we can wait until we are on the ground |
| How long will the flight attendants wait and attempt to re-initiate contact? | 1 minute |
| If the flight attendants cannot get a hold of us via the PA system, how should they contact us? | Knock on the door three times and pass a note through the door |
| When is the boarding door required to be open? | If the carry on baggage is not stowed, then the boarding door has to remain open |
| What does "Cabin Secured to Taxi" mean? | Butts, Bins and Bags are stowed |
| When should the boarding door be opened from the inside? | Only in the case of an emergency |
| What does "Cabin Secured for Takeoff" mean? | All carry on bags are stowed and the cabin is prepared for takeoff |
| Can we land if carry on bags are not properly stowed? | NO |
| What does our PA "Flight Attendants Prepare cabin for Arrival" trigger? | A series of events including stowing carry-on bags |
| How do you make a position report? | 1) Callsign 2) Over (FIX Name) 3) Time (In ZULU) 4) Flight Level or Altitude 5) Next position and estimated time over fix 6) Ensuing significant point |
| What are the required reports to ATC | Missed Approach Airspeed change +/- 10 knots or 5% change of filed TAS Reaching a Holding Fix VFR on top ETA change +/- 3 minutes (Non Radar) Leaving a holding fix Outer Marker (Non Radar) Unforcasted Weather Safety of Flight Vacating an Altitude FAF inboud (Non Radar) Radio Failure Compulsory Reporting point (Non radar) 500 FPM unable |
| What airports can we depart VFR? | Exuma International Airport (GGT / MYEF) Marsh Harbor International Airport (MHH /MYAM) San Salvador International Airport (ZSA/MYSM) |
| Can ops give you current weather | Yes, they wont, but they can |
| What will the taxi brief cover? | Taxi routing any issued runway crossings or hold short clearances any hot spots that pertain the taxi clearance received |
| Who do we have to talk to on the ground after an emergency | Your wife. JK. Your dispatcher |
| In an emergency do we need a clearance prior to taking action? | No, we just have to advise them of our plan |
| What should the PA to the passengers sound like in the event of an emergency | calm, clear, concise instructions and information |
| Comm failure in VMC | Stay VMC and land |
| Comm failure in IMS | Route: Assigned Route Vectored Route Expected Route Filed Altitude: Assigned Altitude Minimum altitude / FL for IFR operations Expected Altitude |
| When are lighted wands required? | From dawn to dusk and periods of low visibility |
| What needs to be included in a jump seat briefing? | 1 No smokin 2 Wear your seatbelt 3 location of exits 4. location of life vests 5. use of oxygen and oxygen equipment 6. use of headset 7. sterile cockpit 8. flight deck door proceedures 9. operation of the cabin door locking mechanisim 10. responsibilities in case of emergency 11. Jumpseat briefing card |
| Flight debriefs are led by which pilot? (PM/PF) | PM |
| If an approach brief has to be briefed in sterile cockpit, who accomplishes the briefing? | PM |
| What is a Jim Wilson shipment? | Shipment of human remains |
| When is the in-range report sent when operating American Eagle? | Approximately 20 minutes prior to landing |
| Who sends the in-range report? | Pilot monitoring |
Created by:
lglippig