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Pharm final

QuestionAnswer
Pharmacology study of drugs and their effects
Pharmacodynamics action of drugs on living organisms
Pharmacokinetics what the body does in response to drugs
trade name i.e. Tylenol
generic name official name of drug (acetaminophen)
Which color are nitrous oxide cylinders blue
the properties that make nitrous oxide conscious sedation popular in dental offices include all except long period of onset and recovery
which Guedel's stage is absolutely contraindicated because of severe respiratory depression leading to possible death stage IV
Which is not a component of general anesthesia respiratory paralysis
Which anesthetic would be indicated for a lengthy dental procedure Bupivacaine 0.5% with 1:200,000 epinephrine
What is the major advantage of amide local anesthetics over esters lack of allergenicity
Vasoconstrictors are added to local anesthetics for all reasons execpt shorten duration of action
which must occur for a local anesthetic to be absorbed into the tissue weak base and primarily nonionized
T or F: amides are hydrolyzed in the blood plasma by the enzymes pseudocholinesterase and liver esterases False
All considerations should be made when prescribing Nystatin execpt cultures should be performed before prescribing
What is the most common adverse reaction associated with the antifungal agent ketoconazole GI distress, nausea, vomiting
What is the mechanism of action of the imidazole's in treatment of fungal infections increased cell membrane permeability
which medication is NOT used in the management of oral herpes simplex Zidovudine
Which are cardiac conditions that are indications for prophylactic antibiotic premedication before a dental procedure prosthetic heart valve and previous infective endocarditis
the current AHA prophylactic premed dosage for prevention of infective endocarditis in the pt that can have penicillin 2 gram/2000mg amoxicillin taken one hour before treatment
which group of anti-infective is commonly used to treat oral infections of periodontal origin tetracyclines
Which is not a common adverse effect of antiinfectives central nervous system depression
The antiinfective Rx of choice for premed for a pt w/artificial heart valves if the pt is not allergic to penicillin is amoxicillin
which antiinfective drug is contraindicated in a pregnant pt tetracycline
log dose effect curve represents relationship between dose of drug and its response
Therapeutic index LD/ED higher TI is safter
potency measure of strength related to dose of drug. its greater when dose is smaller
efficacy max. response regardless of dose
onset time it takes to have effect
duration length of time drug has an effect
half-life measures duration. time necessary for drug to fall to 1/2 of its original blood level
how many half-lives does it take for most drugs to be removed from circulation 4 to 5
FDA promote and protect the public by helping safe and effective products get to the consumer. grants approval and determines what drugs are sold by prescription
DEA determines degree of control for substances with abuse potential
Enteral route of administration placed into GI tract, oral/rectal route
Parenteral ROA bypasses GI tract, IV IM subcutaneous intradermal topical and sublingual
which ROA is the safest and least expensive oral
which ROA has the most rapid drug response IV
SANS characteristics "fight or flight" increase BP, HR, dilates bronchioles, adrenergic
what is the preganglionic neurotransmitter for SANS acetylcholine
what is postganglionic neurotransmitter for SANS NE
what are the receptors for adrenergic drugs a1, B1, and B2
a1 arteries, produce constriction of smooth muscles and blood vessels, increases BP
B1 heart, stimulates cardiac output, increases BP
B2 relaxes smooth muscles, dilation of blood vessels and bronchodilation
when should you avoid adrenergic drugs pt's with angina, uncontrolled HTN, uncontrolled hyperthyroidism
a adrenergic blockers Tx of hypertension, "-zosin"
B adrenergic blockers Tx of hypertension, angina, arrhythmias, CHF, glaucoma, can be selective or non-selective beta blockers, "-olol"
agonist has affinity for a receptor and combines with the receptor and produces an effect
antagonist counteracts and competes with the agonist for the receptor
what are the cholinergic PANS receptors muscarinic and nicotinic
what do muscarinic impact smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, gland cells
what do nicotinic impact postganglionic neurons
what are the neurotransmitters for cholinergic receptors ACh
direct acting (cholinergic) act as ACh at receptor site
indirect acting (cholinergic) increase ACh by inhibiting AChE
what are the pharmacological effects of cholinergic agents smooth muscle stimulation- GI motility, bronchoconstriction glands- increase secretion of saliva eye- decreased intraocular pressure
what is the toxic reaction of cholinergic agents SLUD
what is the most common problem with supplements bleeding
acemannan (aloe vera) topical for aphthous ulcers
what is the most effective way for a pt to receive systemic fl2 municipal water supply
how much ppm is OTC toothpaste 1500
how much ppm is prescription toothpaste 5000
function of vitamin A prevents night blindness and maintains bone health
function of vitamin D absorbs calcium and phosphorous, provides bone health
function of vitamin E antioxidant and stimulated immune response
function of vitamin K aids in blood clotting and bone health
function of vitamin B1 (thiamine) coenzyme needed for nerve function and energy
deficiency of vitamin B1 (thiamine) beriberi, damages nervous and cardiovascular systems
function of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) coenzyme in energy metabolism
deficiency of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) cheilosis and glossitis
function of vitamin B3 (niacin) coenzyme in energy metabolism
deficiency of vitamin B3 (niacin) pellagra (four D's)
function of folate assist in forming DNA/RNA and RBC's
deficiency of folate anemia, glossitis, diarrhea, spina bifida
function of vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) essential for RBC development, needed for folate metabolism
deficiency of vitamin B12 pernicious anemia, weakness and sore tongue/apathy
function of vitamin C (ascorbic acid) promotes synthesis of protein collagen and antioxidant
deficiency of vitamin C scurvy
another word for ANUG trench mouth
what does ANUG look like in the oral cavity ulceration, gingival pain, bleeding, malaise
how to manage ANUG antibiotics (penVK), rinses, NSAIDS, nutritional support
characteristics of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis children, diffuse erythema, crusted vessels, fever
characteristics of recurrent herpes labialis "cold sore" triggered by sunlight, lop trauma, illness, and is contagious in vesicle stage
management of herpes swishing, topicals, acyclovir
management of candidiasis nystatin, ketoconazole, fluconazole
angular cheilitis red, fissures, crusting at commissures
predisposing factors for angular cheilitis sun, allergy, chronic moisture and drooling
management of angular cheilitis topicals
management of alveolar osteitis (dry socket) analgesics, prophylaxis
what are recurrent aphthous ulcers known as canker sores
what is the first line of treatment for recurrent aphthous ulcers topical cortiocosterioids
tetracycline stain intrinsic in developing teeth
minocycline stain blue/gray in fully mineralized teeth
chlorhexidine liquid iron stain extrinsic stain
what is the most common dental emergency syncope
signs of hypoglycemia rapid pulse, decreased respiration, overly talkative
treatment for angina nitroglycerin
signs for cardiac arrest no pulse and BP is unobtainable
what causes an adrenal crisis pts who are taking steroids in doses high enough to suppress adrenal gland
what triggers malignant hyperthermia general anesthetics (most notable sign is rapid rise in body temp)
treatment of opioid overdose naloxone (narcan)
level 1 emergency critical drugs (epi, O2, nitro, glucose, albuterol, etc)
level 2 emergency optional drugs (benzos, morphine, atropine, beta-blockers, etc)
level 3 emergency additional agents (naloxone, flumazenil, antiarrhythmics)
what drugs are safe to use during pregnancy antiinfectives
which local anesthetic is safest during pregnancy lidocaine
stage 1 withdrawal of alcohol agitation
stage 2 withdrawal of alcohol hallucinations
stage 3 withdrawal of alcohol delirium and seizures
dental considerations for alcohol poor healing, increased bleeding, candidiasis, and parotid enlargement
acute overdose of opioids pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, hypotension, coma
withdrawal of opioids yawning, sweating, irritability, tremors, GI upset
GERD definition stomach acid flows backward through cardiac sphincter and irritates the esophagus
what is Barrett's esophagus complication of GERD, cells in lower esophagus change due to acid exposure, look for taste changes and enamel erosion
lifestyle modifications for someone with GERD small frequent meals, elevate bed, avoid eating 4 hrs BF bed
what is the primary cause of peptic ulcer disease helicobacter pylori infection
what causes NSAID induced ulcers inhibition of protective prostaglandins
dental management for GERD and PUD avoid aspirin and NSAID, semi supine position, avoid alcohol, manage xerostomia
mechanism of H2 receptor blocking agents inhibit gastric acid secretion by blocking H2 receptors
examples of H2 receptor blocking agents cimetidine, famotidine, nizatidine
adverse effects of H2 receptor blocking agents CNS effect, gynecomastia, dry mouth, tase alteration
mechanism of PPI's inhibit enzymes to reduce acid (heal ulcers faster than H2 blockers)
what to PPI's end in "prazole"
adverse effects of PPI's headache, diarrhea, dry mouth, osteoporosis
misoprostol prevents NSAID induced ulcers
sucralfate protective coating over ulcers
metoclopramide increases gastric motility and is a dopamine antagoinst
simethicone relieves flatulence
examples of laxatives bulk forming, stool softeners, stimulants, osmotic, Mu receptor antagonists
antiemetics used for nausea and vomiting due to motion sickness, drugs, or illness
first line defense for IBD anti-inflammatory drugs
celiac disease autoimmune reaction to gluten
treatment of celiac disease strict gluten-free diet
noninfectious respiratory diseases asthma and COPD
infectious respiratory diseases viral/bacterial URI
asthma reversable airway obstruction
COPD irreversible airway obstruction
biggest risk that causes COPD smoking
pros of MDI's direct to bronchioles, low dose and side effects, rapid onset, portable
cons of MDI's technique dependent, potential overuse
short acting B2 agonists albuterol, quick relief
long acting B2 agonists not for monotherapy in asthma
what is the first controller for persistent asthma inhaled corticosteroids
what is cromolyn for prevention only, NOT for acute attacks
theophylline oral bronchodilator medication
what is the first line defense for COPD antimuscarinics
what to antihistamines do help with allergy symptoms. they block histamine
what are antineoplastic agents used for suppressing the growth and spread of malignant cells
what is the mechanism of action based on for antineoplastic agents the ability to interfere with the metabolism or reproductive cycle of tumor cells
metastasis migration to distant sites
antimetabolites works in the S phase (when DNA is being copied)
vinca alkaloids and taxanes work in the M phase (when cells divide)
bleomycin works in the G2 phase (just before cell division)
topoisomerase inhibitors work in the S and G2 phases
what are monoclonal antibodies lab-engineered antibodies that target tumor antigens
why combine antineoplastic agents to get different mechanisms, potential synergy, and lower individual doses = fewer side effects
bisphosphonates action when working with MRONJ inhibit osteoclast activity
management of oral mucositis analgesics such as acetaminophen, saline/baking soda rinses, cryotherapy, hydration
tumor lysis syndrome when cancer cells die quickly and cause high levels of uric acid
allopurinol a medicine used before treatment to prevent high uric acid levels
when is the best time for antineoplastic treatment before chemo or in the early cycle
adrenocorticosteriods naturally occurring steroidal components released from the adrenal cortex
glucocorticoids affect carbohydrate metabolism
mineralocorticoids influence sodium and H2O balance
adrenocorticotropic hormone agent secreted by the pituitary that causes release of hormones from the adrenal cortex
Addison's disease deficiency of adrenocorticosteroids
Cushing's syndrome excessive production of adrenocorticosteroids
cortisol involved in stress response and metabolism
routes of adrenocorticosteroids oral, intramuscularly, intravenously, rarely topically
what kind of action do adrenocorticosteroids have anti-inflammatory
adverse reactions to adrenocorticosteriods peptic ulcers, impaired wound healing, CNS effects, adrenal crisis, hypokalemia, etc
insulin function promotes fuel storage and its main function is to lower blood glucose levels
glucagon function promote fuel mobilization and main function is to raise blood glucose levels
type 1 diabetes lack of insulin, rapid onset, fruity breath, usually person younger than 30, increased glucagon secretion
type 2 diabetes most common, obesity, does not secrete enough insulin to normalize plasma glucose
what is the first line of treatment for type 2 diabetes diet and exercise
normal hemoglobin level <7
what is the primary treatment for type 1 diabetes insulin
how is insulin administered subcutaneously
what were the first drugs used to treat type 2 diabetes sulfonylureas
sulfonylureas stimulate insulin release (oral agent)
biguanides reduce liver glucose output (oral agent)
meglitinides rapid, short acting insulin releasers (oral agent)
thiazolidinediones increase insulin sensitivity (oral agent)
DPP-4 inhibitors preserve incretin hormones (oral agent)
a-glucosidase inhibitors slow carbohydrate digestion (oral agent)
SGLT-2 inhibitors increase urinary glucose excretion (oral agent)
bile acid sequestrants reduce glucose via liver effect (oral agent)
GLP-1 receptor agonists mimic incretion hormones to increase insulin and reduce appetite (injectable agent)
insulin replaces or supplements natural insulin (injectable agent)
what is the most commonly prescribed medication for type 2 diabetes metformin
anterior pituitary gland regulates growth, metabolism, reproduction, and stress responses
what does bromocriptine act like dopamine
posterior pituitary major hormones ADH and oxytocin
posterior pituitary gland vasopressin, induce labor
what do thyroid hormones do control energy metabolism, growth, and development
what is a goiter when you don't get enough iodine, your body makes too much TSH which causes the thyroid to swell
children with hypothyroidism may have delayed tooth eruption, crooked teeth, gum problems
treatment for hypothyroidism levothyroxine
hyperthyroidism effects early tooth eruption, bone loss, heart becomes more active
should you treat someone who has a thyroid condition only if it is under control
treatment for hyperthyroidism antithyroid meds, radioactive iodine, surgery
what do antithyroid agents do slow down the thyroid when it's making too much hormone
uses of estrogen contraception, menstrual disorders, menopause, osteoporosis
adverse effects of estrogen uterine bleeding, edema, weight gain
what does progestin do prepare uterus for pregnancy, develop milk
what does progestin treat painful periods, endometriosis, hormone replacement therapy
adverse effects of birth control gum inflammation and increase dry socket risk
what does testosterone do helps with male traits and building body tissues, used for hormone replacement
what should you avoid when a pt has hyperthyroidism epinephrine
what should you limit with cardiovasular conditions vasoconstrictors
cardiac glycosides increases the force and efficiency of contraction of the myocardium
uses of cardiac glycosides CHF
adverse effects of cardiac glycosides profuse salivation, anorexia, nausea
arryhthmia ineffective beating of the heart resulting in poor ciruculation
what to antiarrhythmic agents do decrease myocardial excitability
why is nitroglycerine used to treat cardiovascular problems it relaxes the smooth muscle
what is the action of propranolol blocks beta response to catecholamine stimulation which reduces myocardial oxygen demand
what is verapamil a calcium channel blocker used to treat angina and HTN
what are antihypertensives used to control elevated blood pressure
what is secondary hypertension associated with endocrine or renal disease
what is the most commonly prescribed agent for treatment of HTN thiazide diuretics
mechanism of action of diuretics increases urine output by stopping the kidneys from reabsorbing sodium and water. blocks Cl ions which reduces cardiac output and decreases PVR
most common adverse effects of diuretics hyperuricemia, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia
function of vitamin K nerve conduction, renal maintenance
mechanism of action of sympatholytics reduce peripheral resistance through a CNS mediated action on alpha receptors. reduces HR
mechanism of action of adrenergic receptor blockers lowers BP by blocking action on alpha 1 receptors
non-selective beta blocker example propranolol
selective beta blocker example metoprolol (greater action on beta 1 than 2)
alpha and beta blockers end in "alol"
mechanism of action of neuronal blockers blocks release of NE and reduces BP
mechanism of action of direct acting vasodilators acts directly on arterioles to reduce PVR
mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers block Ca ions which relaxes smooth muscle and decreases PVR
mechanism of action of angiotensin 1 converted to angiotensin 2 by the enzyme ACE
mechanism of action of angiotensin 2 creates vasoconstriction and produces aldosterone.
what do ACE inhibitors result in drop of BP
what do ACE inhibitors end in "pril"
mechanism of action of angiotensin 2 blockers blocks the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone-secreting effects. is a selective and competitive antagonist
what do angiotensin 2 blockers end in "sartan"
mechanism of action of DRI's inhibits release of renin which reduces angiotensin 1 levels
what is gingival hyperplasia most notable with calcium channel blockers
mechanism of action of antihyperlipidemics inhibits HMG-CoA reductase and absorption of cholesterol
mechanism of action of anticoagulants (heparin) increases the action of antithrombin III which inactives thrombin and factors IX, X, XI, and XII
mechanism of action of anticoagulants (warfarin) interferes with hepatic synthesis of vitamin K factors II, VII, IX, and X
antagonist of heparin protamine sulfate (intrinsic)
antagonist of warfarin vitamin K (extrinsic)
Created by: sarawright
 

 



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