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micro final

QuestionAnswer
what are the symptoms of meningitis? 1. severe headache 2. fever 3. stiff neck 4. nausea 5. sensitivity to light 6. confusion 7. fatique
What is the natural reservoir for anthrax? soil
Which kind of profession would need an anthrax vaccine? veterinarians
What temps do we find M. leperae like to grow in? 27-33 c
What does the DTap vaccine cover? diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis
The GNB Brucella, what ways can it cause infection? Brucella can infect through ingestion (unpasteurized dairy), direct contact with infected animals or tissues, inhalation of aerosols, and rarely person-to-person transmission.
what are the common sources of Shigella? feces, food, fingers, flies, fomites
Diseases associated with Haemophilus influenzae infection include? H. influenzae can cause meningitis, epiglottitis, pneumonia, sepsis, cellulitis, otitis media, sinusitis, and conjunctivitis.
Where and how does is Leptospirosis transmitted? contact with water or soil contaminated by animal urine.
How do you get a Vibrio vulnificus infection? You get Vibrio vulnificus by exposing open wounds to warm seawater or by eating raw/undercooked shellfish (especially oysters) contaminated with the bacteria.
What is the difference in aerobic and anaerobic? he use of oxygen for survival and energy production.
How does aerobic organisms get their energy? through a process called aerobic respiration.
what are the 3 cycles of glycolysis? 1) Energy investment phase, 2) Cleavage phase, 3) Energy payoff phase.
How does an anaerobic organism get energy? How many ATP does that make? uses 2 ATP to make 4 ATP
How do we classify viruses? morphology, nucleic acid type, mode of replication, host organism, and the type of disease they cause
define capsules a thick, organized, protective layer that surrounds the outside of some bacterial cells.
define slime layers loose, unorganized, easily removed outer coating found on some bacteria.
define endospores dormant, highly resistant structure formed by certain bacteria to survive harsh environmental conditions.
what did Carl Woese and George Fox do? they discovered that the domains of life should contain 3 domains instead of 2 (they found the domain archaea)
what did Pasteur do? Pasteur disproved spontaneous generation, developed pasteurization, proved germ theory, and created early vaccines (rabies and anthrax).
what did Robert Koch do? Robert Koch identified the bacteria that cause TB and cholera, created Koch’s postulates, developed key lab techniques, and helped establish germ theory.
What did Ferdinand Cohn do? discovered bacterial endospores, created an early bacterial classification system, and helped establish bacteriology as a scientific field.
what did Joseph Lister do? introduced antiseptic surgery using carbolic acid and proved that sterilizing tools and wounds prevents infection.
what is a pathogen? a disease-causing microorganism
compare and contrast prokaryotes and eukaryotes. prokaryotes are multicellular organisms that lacks nucleus, while the eukaryotes are multicellular organisms that lack a cell wall
what is a parasite? a parasite lives in or on the body of a larger organism called the host. the parasite derives most of its sustenance from that host. this is usually damaging and/ or detrimental to the host.
what are some unique characteristics of viruses? (1) viruses cannot be killed antibiotics viruses are host specific, meaning a host must have specific cell receptors for the virus to infect them viruses contain capsids that can be helical or icosahedral in shape
what are some unique characteristics of viruses? (2) Viruses have a unique shape, contain genes, have the ability to infect hosts, and are very small (smaller than bacteria). Viruses contains genes that are either DNA or RNA.
what are some unique characteristics of viruses? (3) Viruses lack ribosomes and therefore cannot replicate their own DNA or RNA and will hi-jack host ribosomes to have them copy their DNA or RNA and spread infection.
What is a bacteriophage? Viruses that specifically infect bacteria.
What does a naked virus lack? o An envelope o Envelopes can be dried out by the use of alcohol
How to write a scientific name correctly. o Must be italicized or underlined o First word (genus) begins with a capital letter o Second word (species) does not begin with a capital letter o Example: Staphylococcus aureus
how did Carl Woese and George Fox determine that there should be 3 domains instead of 2? because archaea species had different cell wall chemical components compared to bacteria
what are the building blocks of enzymes? amino acids (amino acids create proteins)
true or false: enzymes are found in all cells true
what are enzymes? catalysts
how to enzymes speed up chemical reactions? by decreasing activation energy
what can enzymes be denatured by? heat and other agents
What is Sterility? Sterility requires the elimination of all life forms including endospores, viruses, and prions.
compare and contrast DNA vs RNA (1) o DNA/RNA subunits are called nucleotides. o DNA contains: Adenosine, Thymine, Cytosine, Guanine o RNA contains Adenosine, Uracil, Cytosine, Guanine o DNA is a double helix, double stranded
compare and contrast DNA vs RNA (2) o RNA is a single helix, single stranded. o Base pairs are held together by hydrogen bonds. o The duplication of DNA is called replication. o When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate.
Facts about ATP o Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is an energy storing molecule, it is the energy molecule that cells use. o ATP lowers activation energy, acts as a catalyst
What is ATP Synthase? A complex enzyme used for oxidative phosphorylation
Facts about bacterial cells o All bacterial cells contain chromosomes o Capsules protect some types of bacteria from being phagocytized. o Bacterial cell walls contain peptidoglycan
Facts about biofilms o They are cooperative associations among several microbial groups o They play an important role in recycling elements o They colonize on medical devices causing infections
what is an example of biofilm formation the scum you see built up in sinks, dog bowls, or toilets.
What is a protist? o An organism that cannot be classified as a plant, animal, or fungi o Multicellular examples: Kelp o Single celled examples: Algae & protozoa
What does the Endosymbiotic Theory state? That eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells. o Eukaryotic cells evolved when multiple cells joined together forming a symbiotic relationship.
Cell concentration Water (H20) is the most abundant compound in cells
What is a heterotroph? o Heterotrophs are organisms that must obtain their food, they cannot make it. o They must find organic compounds for their carbon needs
What is an autotroph? o Organisms that can produce their own energy. ▪ Usually through photosynthesis ▪ Using CO2 for their carbon source
What is an extremophile? o An organism that can inhabit severe habitats such as salty environments, extremely hot or acidic environments.
What does facultative mean? o The ability to exist in a wide range of conditions ▪ Example would be how much oxygen bacteria needs to grow
What does obligate mean? o The ability to exist in a very narrow range of conditions ▪ Example would be they can only grow in the lack of oxygen
What term describes pathogens that infect humans? Mesophiles (they thrive in conditions similar to our body temperature 37℃)
What is fermentation? o Fermentation occurs without the need for oxygen o Fermentation requires an organic electron acceptor o Yields less ATP than glycolysis
What does a southern/ northern/ western blot detect? north=RNA west=proteins south=DNA
A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains from which bacterium? staphylococcus aureus
The bright red rash associated with scarlet fever is caused by which toxin? erythrogenic toxin
Scarlet fever is caused by which bacterium? streptococcus pyogenes
Which pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States? streptococcus agalactiae
Which bacterium has drug resistant strains that result in MRSA? staphylococcus aureus
Which biochemical test would differentiate Staphylococcus from Streptococcus? catalase test positive staph negative strep
Streptococcus pyogenes can cause what types of infections/diseases? impetigo cellulitis scarlet fever toxic shock syndrome
What causes Necrotizing fasciitis? Primarily Streptococcus pyogenes, though other bacteria can contribute (e.g., S. aureus, Clostridium spp.)
Streptococcus pneumoniae can result in which diseases/infections? o Pneumonia (most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia) o Otitis media o Meningitis o Sinusitis o Bacteremia
Known infectious information about anthrax o Caused by Bacillus anthracis o Forms endospores; disease types:  Cutaneous anthrax (most common)  Pulmonary anthrax (inhalational, highly fatal)  Gastrointestinal anthrax  Injection anthrax (drug use)
Know treatment and control measures for anthrax infections o Antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, doxycycline o Antitoxins for systemic disease o Vaccination for high-risk individuals o Proper handling of animal hides/wool o Avoid contact with infected livestock or contaminated soil
Know infectious information (this includes where it is found) about Bacillus cereus o Found in soil, dust, grains, and rice o Causes two food-borne intoxications:  Emetic form (vomiting; heat-stable toxin; often from reheated rice)  Diarrheal form (diarrhea; heat-labile toxin)
The food-borne disease that involves neurotoxin is called? Botulism
Be familiar with information about infant botulism Caused by ingestion of C. botulinum spores (often from honey)  Spores germinate in infant gut → produce toxin  Causes floppy baby syndrome (hypotonia, poor feeding)
Know information about tuberculosis. What causes it, how is it treated, symptoms. Etc. o Caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis o Acid-fast bacillus; airborne transmission o Symptoms: chronic cough, weight loss, fever, night sweats, hemoptysis o Treated with multi-drug therapy (RIPE: rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)
Be familiar with facts about tularemia o Caused by Francisella tularensis o Zoonotic; associated with rabbits, ticks, deer flies o Highly infectious; causes ulceroglandular disease o Considered a potential bioterrorism agent
What is brucellosis o Zoonotic infection by Brucella species o Causes undulating fever, sweating, joint pain o Often from unpasteurized dairy or livestock exposure
Why do we pasteurize milk, what are we trying to protect ourselves from? o To prevent infections such as:  Brucellosis  Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium bovis)  Listeriosis  Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)
How is Legionellosis transmitted? o Via inhalation of aerosolized water droplets containing Legionella pneumophila o Not spread person-to-person o Found in cooling towers, A/C systems, hot tubs
Escherichia coli causes what type of infections? o UTIs (most common cause) o Gastroenteritis o Neonatal meningitis o Septicemia
Characteristics of E. coli 0157:H7 infections include? o Produces Shiga toxin o Causes hemorrhagic colitis o Associated with undercooked ground beef, raw vegetables o Can lead to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)
Yersinia pestis is transmitted by? o Flea bites (rat flea Xenopsylla cheopis) o Also via contact with infected animals or droplets (pneumonic plague)
Which bacterium would you expect to see from a cat or dog bite or scratch? Pasteurella multocida
What kind of diseases are spread by arthropod vectors? o Lyme Disease o Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever o Epidemic Typhus o Human Ehrlichiosis
What are the characteristics of the second stage of syphilis  Widespread skin rash (often palms & soles)  Condylomata lata (moist, wart-like lesions)  Malaise, fever  Swollen lymph nodes  Patchy hair loss
Which pathogens are spirochetes? Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira
Know information about Lyme's disease Cause: Borrelia burgdorferi (a spirochete) o Vector: Ixodes ticks (deer ticks) o Reservoir: mice and deer o Treatment: Doxycycline (early), IV ceftriaxone (late or neurologic)
Which infections are caused by Heliobacter pylori? o Peptic ulcers (gastric and duodenal) o Chronic gastritis o Gastric carcinoma o MALT lymphoma
Know symptoms of Rocky Spotted Mountain Fever and where (geographically) more cases occur. o Fever, headache o Petechial rash beginning on wrists & ankles → spreads to trunk o Muscle pain o Can lead to shock, organ failure if untreated o Despite the name, most cases occur in the southeastern United States
Routes of entry for fungus include? o Inhalation (most common) o Trauma/inoculation through skin o Ingestion o Overgrowth on mucosal surfaces
Cryptococcus neoformans is commonly found in? human mouth, intestines, and genitalia
Oral thrush is caused by? Giardia intestinalis
Transmission of tineas include o human to human o animal to human o soil to human o fomites to human
Which parasite has 4 pairs of flagella? Giardia intestinalis
What symptoms of malaria occur in cycles of 48-72 hours? Cyclical fever, chills, sweating due to red blood cell rupture.  P. vivax and P. ovale: ~48-hour cycles  P. malariae: ~72-hour cycles
Which vector causes Leishmaniasis? sand fly
Does sickle cell disease protect people from Malaria infections? Yes. Sickle cell trait (heterozygous HbAS) provides significant protection against severe malaria (Plasmodium falciparum).
Loa loa is a parasitic worm that infects which area of the human body? o Subcutaneous tissues o Often migrates across the eye (conjunctiva) → “eye worm”
African sleeping sickness is caused by? Trypanosoma brucei
Amebiasis infects which part of the body? intestines and sometimes liver
Created by: ehoelzeman
 

 



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