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MDL101-StudyGuide
Comprehensive Final Study Guide
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Cells that are used to transport O2 and CO2 | Erythrocytes |
| Lifespan of a platelet is approximately | 10 days |
| anticoagulant of choice for routine coagulation procedure | sodium citrate |
| cells involved in hemostasis that contribute to the formation of the 'plug' | thrombocytes(platelets) |
| The liquid portion of blood that is 90% water, contains albumin, antibodies, hormones, electrolytes, and coagulation proteins | plasma |
| transport deoxygenated blood back to the heart from the capillaries | arteries |
| vein most commonly used in venipuncture | median cubital |
| "buffy coat" | leucocytes and platelets |
| Correct order of draw is | Yellow, Light Blue, Red, Gold/Tiger/Speckled Light Green, Dark Green, Lavender, Pink, Royal Blue, Grey |
| The direction of the bevel should face __ when inserting the needle | Bevel side up |
| the buildup of fluid is called | edema |
| which two fingers are commonly used for capillary stick in adults and children older than a year old? | Middle/Ring |
| study of formed elements in the blood and the blood forming tissues | hematology |
| Basophils, neutrophils and eosinophils are what kinds of WBCs | granulocytes |
| The four protein chains in hemoglobin make up what portion | globulin |
| The pink tube in phlebotomy is commonly used by which department | Blood Bank |
| platelets come from what large bone marrow cell | megakaryocytes |
| Normal platelet count in m/L is | 150,000-400,000 |
| Component of blood that is responsible for defense against of infection | WBCs |
| Drugs, alcohol , and radiation therapy can contribute to what low blood component coune | Low platelet count |
| In adulthood, WBCs range from | 4500-11000 cells/mL |
| In an adult, what cells are produced in the bone marrow | RBCs and WBCs |
| WBC that has a nucleus that can be band shaped or segmented | neutrophil |
| Hemoglobin assay that provides a mere estimate of Hb levels | Specific gravity technique |
| What formed elements are normally found in peripheral blood | erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets |
| Common anticoagulant used in hematology (for CBCs, HCT) routine procedures | EDTA |
| The Thymus and lymph nodes produce which type of WBC | lymphocyte |
| Penetration depth of lancets for blood collection of newborns | 2.0mm or less |
| Tube used for sterile blood collection of trace elements and nutritional studies | royal blue |
| Reference range for Hb in an adult male is | 13-17 g/dL |
| Reference range for RBC count in an adult male is | 4.5-6.0 x 10^6/ µL |
| Reference range for microhematocrit in an adult female is | 36-48% |
| clot that is attached to a vessel | thrombus |
| clot that breaks off and travels through the body | embolus |
| a disorder where clot retraction is abnormal due to platelets lacking glycoprotein , this lack in glycoprotein prevents platelets from aggregating and forming clots | Glanzmann's Thrombasthenia |
| Visual, Mechanical, Magnetic, and optical are all ___ instrument technologies | coagulation |
| Vitamin K deficiency affects what factors | II,VII,IX,and X |
| infectious disease safety practices include | educating and training all healthcare workers in standard precautions providing disposable gloves monitoring compliance with protective biosafety polices |
| quality assessment programs include | patient identification specimen procurement specimen transportation and processing procedures |
| The pale straw colored fluid visible in a clotted blood in a test tube is | serum |
| One of the most frequently used techniques in the clinical lab is: | spectrophotometry |
| Beer's Law states: | The concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the amount of light absorbed inversely proportional to the logarithm of the transmitted light |
| a false-NEGATIVE fecal occult blood can be caused by | vitamin c |
| Examination of a blood smear should begin using 10x objective where the red blood cells are: | Just touching each other or barely overlapping |
| Red blood cells that have a central area of hemoglobin are called | target cells |
| The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is used: | To track tissue healing after a myocardial infarction (heart attack) As a nonspecific index of inflammatory activity |
| The second line of body defense consists of: | Neutrophils, tissue basophils, macrophages Complement and lysozyme Interferon |
| The third line of defense is: | Acquired /Adaptive |
| the ASCLS professional Code of Ethics states that all all laboratory professionals have a responsibility for proper conduct with? | the patient /colleagues and the profession / society |
| the role of the CEO of a healthcare organization is to | set policy and guide the organization |
| Which certifying agency or agencies have been granted "deemed" status to act on behalf of the federal government in mater of laboratory accreditation? | college of American pathologies (CAP) / the joint commission (TJC) |
| the fastest growing segment of laboratory testing | molecular diagnostics |
| Situational ethics is a system of judging acts | within a context |
| the newest patient safety goals with application to the laboratory include | improve accuracy of patient identification |
| which of the following legislative documents ensures that workers have a safe and healthful working conditions | occupational safety and health act (OSHA) / hazard communication standard |
| safety in the clinical laboratory includes | a formal safety program / chemical hygiene plan / blood borne pathogen plan |
| information related to hazards associated with chemicals in the workplace | (MSDS) material safety data sheet |
| perhaps the simplest and most important step in the proper handling of any hazardous substance is proper | labeling of a substance |
| standrad precautions is | a term that has replaced the term universal precautions the process of treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious a safety precaution concerned with the handling of all patient specimens |
| the definition of a biohazard | potentially infectious materials or agents |
| an important change in the newly revised OSHA Hazard communication standard (HCS) is | a single set of harmonized criteria for classifying chemicals is used |
| Pre-employment health profiles of students and laboratory staff should include immune status evaluation for _________ at a minimum | hepatitis B /rubella /measles |
| is any substance that can cause the development of cancerous growth in living tissue | A carcinogen |
| Infection waste includes | blood and blood products / contaminated sharps / microbiological waste |
| Treatment for alkali or acid burns of the skin is to? | rinse thoroughly with large amounts of running water |
| required regulation of clinical laboratories is achieved by | clinical laboratory improvement amendments of 1988 |
| an example of a preanalytical error is | specimen obtained from a wrong patient |
| For testing of moderate complexity, quality control requires | performing control procedures using at least two levels of control material each |
| Accuracy describes | how close a test result is to the true value |
| Sensitivity is defined as | proportion of cases with a specific disease or condition that give a POSITIVE test result |
| sources of variance or error include | age of specimen procedural factors physical activity level of the patient |
| quality control can be monitored by using | levey jennings chart westgard rules |
| The first tier of infection control for health care professionals is to use what precautions? | Standard |
| The most frequently analyzed specimen in the clinical laboratory is? | blood |
| For a patient to be in a fasting state he or she must abstain form food and liquids other then water for? | 8-12 hours |
| Environmental factors that can affect the quality of evacuated tubes can be? | sunlight ambient temp humidity |
| the draw volume of blood into and evacuated tube can be affected at greater than _____ feet of altitude | 5000 |
| The shelf life of an evacuated tube is determined by? | stability off the additive clinical use of the additive |
| The first critical step in blood collection is ? | patient identification |
| When collecting blood in multiple evacuated tubes the correct order of draw should start with? | Yellow (Blood cultures) |
| Blood for the screening of newborns is for certain conditions such as? | phenylketonuria hypothyroidism galactosemia |
| The most common cause of an abnormal appearance of a collected blood specimen is? | hemolysis |
| total magnification is the product of the magnification of the object ________the magnification of the ocular | multiplied by |
| the definition of Kohler illumination is the | light path through the microscope |
| The principle of flow cytometry is based on the fact that: | Cells are stained in suspension with an appropriate fluorochrome |
| The protein molecule formed when a foreign material is introduced into an immunocompetent individual is a(n): | Antibody |
| Electrophoresis is a technique for: | Separation / Separation and purification of ions / The separation of proteins |
| important characteristics of point of care (POCT) instruments include | rapid turnaround time / easy portability with single use disposable reagent cartridges or test strips / easy to perform protocol with one or two steps |
| a laab test that is not performed in a traditional lab is called ____ test | waived test |
| human chorionic gonadotropin found in a woman's urine specimen is secreted by a fertilized egg ______ hours after implementation | 48-72 hours |
| the specimen of choice for b-hCG testing is | serum for pregnancy |
| if urine is used for pregnancy testing it should be | 1st morning |
| fecal occult blood testing test for | whole blood in the stool |
| The value of the fecal occult blood test is that it could determine the cause of or aid in detecting: | hypochromic anemia ulcerative disease neoplastic disease |
| false-POSITIVE fecal occult blood results can be caused by ingestion of | red meat horseradish |
| the american cancer society recommends that _____fecal specimens from _____consective specimens be collected for colorectal screening | 2;3 |
| The anticoagulant of choice for glucose testing when analysis is not performed promptly is: | sodium fluoride |
| The adult reference range for fasting serum glucose is: | 70-110 mg/dL |
| total concentration of all ions and molecules in serum or urine | osmolarity measures |
| The term for the condition associated with elevated serum potassium is: | hyperkalemia |
| The term chloride shift refers to the: | exchange of chloride with bicarbonate between red blood cels and plasma |
| An increased anion gap may be due to: | lactic acidosis |
| Decreased total white blood count | Leukopenia |
| When red blood cells are examined morphologically, what characteristics should be observed? | variations in color, size, and shape |
| The blood cell that produces immunoglobulins (antibodies) is the: | plasma cell |
| Mature red blood cells that are larger than normal are called: | macrocytic |
| The final result of primary hemostasis is: | platelet plug |
| The final result of secondary hemostasis is: | a blood clot |
| The appropriate anticoagulant for prothrombin time assay is: | 3.2% sodium citrate |
| D-dimer assay is important in detecting | disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) |
| What is the name of the type of infection that is acquired in a hospital? | nosocomial infection |
| A growth of bacteria that began as one parent bacterium and divided multiple times to become a visible aggregate is called a: | colony |
| Media that have dyes, antibiotics, or other chemical compounds added to inhibit certain bacteria while allowing others to grow is called _____ media. | selective |
| Media that contain factors such as lactose with an indicator present to give distinctive, recognizable characteristics is called _____ media. | differential |
| Which of the following tests identifies Staphylococcus aureus? | catalase and coagulase |
| order of gram stain | crystal violet, mordant, decolorizer, counterstain (safranin) |
| A positive leukocyte esterase and nitrite test (urine rapid-screening test strips) indicates: | UTI |
| Motile trophozoites found microscopically in fresh urine or fresh genital secretions is diagnostic for which of the following parasites? | Trichomonas vaginalis |
| Serology is the study of | Antigens /Antibodies |
| The first line of body defense is: | Unbroken skin Normal biota Body fluids (e.g., tears, saliva) |
| Another name for innate immunity is ____ immunity. | Natural |
| Humoral-mediated immunity is associated with: | B lymphocytes |
| The antibody subclass associated with a primary response is: | IgM |
| The antibody subclass associated with a secondary response is: | IgG |
| Agglutination is comprehensively defined as: | Aggregation of particulate test antigens |
| the protein molecule formed when a foreign material is introduced into an immunocompetent individual is a | antibody |
| What does a Gram stain show? | The Gram reaction (positive or negative) and bacterial morphology (cocci, rods, etc.). |
| What are the two main goals of microbiology testing in infections? | Identify the bacteria and determine antibiotic susceptibility. |
| Which bacteria do NOT grow on EMB or MAC agar? | Gram-positive bacteria. |
| What are common hemolysis patterns for staph and strep on Blood Agar? | Both Staph and Strep can be beta-hemolytic. |
| What does Streptococcus look like on plates? | Small, colorless colonies; catalase-negative. |
| What does Staphylococcus look like on plates? | Larger, white or yellowish colonies; catalase-positive. |
| What reagent is used in the catalase test? | 3% hydrogen peroxide. |
| Catalase reaction for strep vs. staph? | Strep = catalase-negative Staph = catalase positive |
| What test confirms Staphylococcus aureus? | Coagulase test or latex agglutination. |
| Is Staphylococcus aureus coagulase positive or negative? | Coagulase positive |
| What does MRSA stand for? | Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus |
| Why did MRSA develop? | S. aureus rapidly developed resistance to penicillin and later methicillin. |
| Where is MRSA commonly a problem? | Long-term care facilities, hospitals. |
| What media are commonly used to identify gram-negative bacteria? | MAC (MacConkey) and EMB agar. |
| What type of information do MAC or EMB plates provide? | Differential and selective reactions (e.g., lactose fermentation). |
| What are examples of gram-negative identification systems? | API strips, Enterotube II, chromID media, VITEK-2, MicroScan, Phoenix. |
| What does MIC stand for? | Minimum Inhibitory Concentration. |
| What does the MIC measure? | The lowest antibiotic concentration that inhibits bacterial growth. |
| Which manual method uses antibiotic discs on agar? | Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion. |
| Define diagnostic specificity. | The percentage of the population without the disease that tests negative. |
| What is diagnostic sensitivity? | The percentage of the population with the disease that tests positive. |
| What is a false negative? | Reporting a negative result in a patient who has the disease. |
| What does true negative mean? | Reporting a negative result in a patient who doesn't have the disease. |
| What is a false positive (FP)? | Reporting a positive result in a patient who has the disease. |
| What is standard deviation (SD)? | The most frequently used measure of variation in a dataset. |
| Define analytical specificity. | The ability to measure the smallest concentration of the analyte of interest. |
| What is practicability in analytical testing? | The degree by which a method can easily be repeated. |
| What does accuracy refer to in test performance? | The nearness and closeness of assayed values to the true value. |
| Define precision in the context of analytical methods. | The reproducibility and ability of an analytical method to maintain accuracy and precision over an extended period. |
| What is the significance of using a lancet in capillary puncture? | To minimize pain and blood loss during blood sampling. |
| What is the importance of proper specimen labeling? | To avoid discrepancies between requisition and specimen label, which can lead to rejection. |
| What is the purpose of quality control? | To verify the accuracy of patient results through monitoring control samples. |
| What does quality assurance in a laboratory ensure? | Quality results by monitoring pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical stages. |
| What is the purpose of a centrifuge? | To separate components of blood or other fluids based on density. |
| What is the order of draw for capillary specimens? | EDTA specimen, other additive specimens, serum specimens. |
| What is one reason for specimen rejection? | Hemolysis/lipemia. |
| What is the role of heparin in blood collection? | To inhibit thrombin formation and prevent clotting. |
| What is the significance of the light blue tube in blood collection? | It contains sodium citrate and is used for coagulation tests. |
| What is the function of sodium citrate in blood collection tubes? | To chelate calcium and prevent blood from clotting. |
| What are the common errors in specimen collection? | Misidentification, mislabeling, short draws, mixing problems, wrong tube, hemolysis, hemoconcentration, exposure to light, improperly timed specimens, and processing errors. |
| What is the role of the tourniquet in venipuncture? | To restrict venous flow and make veins more prominent for easier access. |
| What is the role of clinical chemistry in medicine? | It focuses on qualitative tests of important compounds in bodily fluids for diagnosis and monitoring of diseases. |
| What is the Beer-Lambert Law? | It states that the concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the amount of light absorbed or inversely proportional to the logarithm of the transmitted light. |
| What is the significance of critical values in laboratory results? | They indicate test results that require immediate attention due to potential life-threatening conditions. |
| Pre-analytical processes of testing: | test orders, patient preparation, sample collection, handling, transportation, storage, and login |
| Analytical processes of testing: | Instrument selection, method validation, quality control, test performance, result verification, and proficiency testing |
| Post-Analytical processes of testing: | Result reporting, calling of critical and priority results, result recommendations, recording and archiving results and communications, specimen storage, monitoring of result distribution statistics |
| The difference in function between HDL and LDL: | HDL: Good cholesterol that removes buildup of LDL LDL: Bad cholesterol that contributes to buildup of arteries |
| What causes ketones to show in the urine? | When the body metabolizes stores of fat for energy |
| What tests are performed for the presence of ketones? | Acetest and urine reagent strips |
| What is the renal threshold for glucose? | 160-180 mg/dL |
| 3 causes for hypochloremia: | 1. Prolonged vomiting/diarrhea 2. GI losses 3. Diuretic and metabolic alkalosis increase renal losses |
| 3 causes for hyperchloremia: | 1. Loss of bicarbonate 2. Dehydration 3. Prolonged diarrhea |
| What is an anion gap? | The difference between unmeasured anions and unmeasured cations. |
| Plasma and urine osmolality is useful in the assessment of what disorders? | Electrolyte and acid base disorders |
| What analytes contributes to osmolality? | Na, Cl, HCO3 |
| Normal urine SG: | 1.002-1.035 |
| Normal urine pH: | 4.5-8.0 |
| What is the relationship between calcium and phosphorus? | They have an inverse relationship |
| What hormones affect blood glucose level? | Growth hormone, cortisol, epinephrine, insulin, and glucagon |
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