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Final Exam Prep
Physio
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Extrinsic control usually involves which mode of regulation? | nervous and endocrine |
| To accomplish self-regulation, a highly complex and integrated communication control system or network is required. This type of network is called a(n) | feedback control loop. |
| The concept that information may flow ahead to another process to trigger a change in anticipation of an event that will follow is called | feed-forward. |
| The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback. | positive |
| The normal reading or range of normal is called the: | set point |
| Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: | the body trying to maintain homeostasis. a positive-feedback mechanism. |
| Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? | Environment Stress Lifestyle |
| Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? | Reproductive |
| DNA and RNA are important because | information molecules. |
| Chaperone proteins assist in the proper folding of other proteins so they can have the correct functional shape. | True |
| Proteins are polymers of | amino acids |
| RNA and DNA have the same pyrimidine bases but different purine bases. | True |
| A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three of the same type of fatty acid. | False |
| A very large molecule composed of subunits of sugar, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate bond is a | nucleic acid |
| The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are: | steroids |
| Amino acids frequently become joined by: | peptide bonds |
| The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? | secondary |
| DNA: | is a double-helix strand of nucleotides. |
| The total number of 46 chromosomes per cell is referred to as _________ number. | diploid |
| If red blood cells containing 10% solute are placed in a solution containing 10% solute, what will happen? | water will move into and out of the cells at equal rates |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis? | two haploid gametes |
| The component that distinguishes one nucleotide from another is the | nitrogen base |
| The cell process in which microorganisms or other large particles are engulfed is called | phagocytes |
| Normal mitosis results in | cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell |
| Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to: | hypertrophy. |
| Phagocytosis is an example of: | endocytosis. |
| Water will move through the cell membrane by: | osmosis |
| The gland responsible for the waxy secretion in the external ear canal is: | ceruminous. |
| Which skin layer is called the barrier area? | Stratum corneum |
| The hair papilla consists of _____ tissue. | dermal |
| The nail body forms at the nail root, which has a matrix of proliferating cells from the _____________ that enables the nail to grow continuously. | stratum basale |
| Which is not part of a hair? | lanugo |
| Fingernail growth is the result of the mitosis of the cells in the stratum: | germinativium |
| Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: | mesenchyme. |
| Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. | true |
| What is are the two types/functions of bone marrow? | Red & yellow – produces red blood cells and stores energy as fat. |
| Select the answer that best describes the axial skeletal structure. | D) Provides framework for muscles that anchor and stabilize the appendicular bones |
| Which of the following provide flexibility and smooth surfaces for movement? | cartilages |
| Which statement below is correct regarding fontanelles? | The anterior and posterior fontanelles allow for overlaping of skull bones to decrease the diamiter of the fetal head at birth. |
| The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: | medullary cavity |
| During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: | pelvic outlet |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? | Made of spongy bone Cylindrical in shape Contain red bone marrow |
| Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: | red bone marrow |
| The humerus articulates proximally with the | scapula |
| When an impulse reaches a synapse: | chemical transmitters are released. |
| During a relative refractory period: | the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus. |
| Within the nervous system, coding for the strength of a stimulus is accomplished through: | the frequency of nerve impulses. |
| A synaptic knob would be located on a(n): | axon |
| The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second. | 130 |
| What is the difference between a somatic reflex and an autonomic reflex? | A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of skeletal muscles, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of contraction of smooth or cardiac muscle or secretions of glands. |
| How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector? | A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division. |
| Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because: | preganglionic fibers synapse with several postsynaptic fibers. |
| Danielle has sustained an injury that has reduced her ability to complete simple tasks such as lifting a pencil, manipulating eating utensils, and brushing her hair. The injury has affected the _____ motor pathways _____ the central nervous system (CNS). | voluntary; outside |
| Which of the following is true about pain receptors? | Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain. |
| Clearness or sharpness of visual perception is known as: | visual acuity |
| When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called: | permissiveness |
| A decrease in the amount of white blood cells is called | leukopenia |
| The chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies are particularly sensitive to: | hypercapnia |
| During pregnancy, what happens to the oxygenated blood returned from the placenta via the umbilical vein? | It flows into the inferior vena cava. |
| _____, a natural constituent of blood, acts as an antithrombin and prevents clots from forming in vessels. | Heparin |
| Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity. | cell-mediated |
| Complement can best be described as a(n): | enzyme in blood |
| The function of which antibody is basically unknown? | lgD |
| Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an | antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site. |
| The PCO2 in the atmosphere is: | less than in the alveolar air. |
| The term used to describe the volume of air exchanged during normal inspiration and expiration is: | tidal volume. |
| One hundred milliliters of arterial blood contains approximately what volume percent of oxygen? | 20% |
| Standard atmospheric pressure is _____ mm Hg. | 760 |
| The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood. | less than in the systemic venous greater than in the systemic venous |
| By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen? | 97% |
| The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is: | cholecystokinin. |
| The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the intestinal mucosa is: | vasoactive intestinal peptide. |
| Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from: | carbohydrates |
| The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of: | protein |
| Which of the following is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus? | Oropharynx |
| Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? | portal vein |
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