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Stack #4582307
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Question 1: Intrinsic control | is sometimes called autoregulation. |
| Question 2: Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? | Prion |
| Question 3: Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? | All of the above |
| Question 4: Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: | viruses. |
| Question 5: Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: | both A and C. |
| Question 6: Positive-feedback control systems: | accelerate a change. |
| Question 7: The term that literally means self-immunity is: | autoimmunity. |
| Question 8: Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? | Reproductive |
| Question 9: Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? | Transmitter |
| Question 10: The body’s thermostat is located in the: | hypothalamus. |
| Question 11: Homeostasis can best be described as: | a state of relative constancy. |
| Question 12: Negative-feedback mechanisms: | All of the above are correct. |
| Question 13: Negative-feedback control systems: | oppose a change. |
| Question 14: Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? | Reproductive |
| Question 15: The normal reading or range of normal is called the: | set point. |
| Question 16: Peptide bonds join together molecules of: | amino acids. |
| Question 17: Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? | Primary |
| Question 18: What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? | Degree of saturation |
| Question 19: The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: | dehydration synthesis. |
| Question 20: Which lipid is part of vitamin D? | Steroids |
| Question 21: Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics? | Both have a ring structure in their molecule. |
| Question 22: Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called: | essential amino acids. |
| Question 23: The roles played by proteins can be divided into which categories? | Structural and functional |
| Question 24: Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates? | All of the above are true of carbohydrates. |
| Question 25: Amino acids frequently become joined by: | peptide bonds. |
| Question 26: When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? | Maltose |
| Question 27: If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be: | GATCCGAC. |
| Question 28: The amino group in an amino acid is: | NH3+. |
| Question 29: A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a: | phospholipid. |
| Question 30: Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide? | Creatine phosphate |
| Question 31: Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat? | Brown fat |
| Question 32: Which of the following is not a characteristic of muscle tissue? | Cells are separated by a large quantity of extracellular matrix |
| Question 33: Which cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? | Both A and B |
| Question 34: Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by _____ tissue. | Both B and C are correct. |
| Question 35: Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? | Astrocytes |
| Question 36: Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number? | Fibroblasts |
| Question 37: Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: | bones. |
| Question 38: Which of the following is not a function of adipose tissue? | Defends the body from microbes and injurious substances |
| Question 39: Which of the following is not a function of the skin? | Synthesis of vitamin E |
| Question 40: Which of the following is not a characteristic of skeletal muscles? | Having one nucleus per cell |
| Question 41: The hypodermis: | connects the dermis to underlying tissues. |
| Question 42: Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. | True |
| Question 43: Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? | Connective |
| Question 44: Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum: | basale. |
| Question 45: The area referred to as true skin is the: | dermis. |
| Question 46: During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: | pelvic outlet. |
| Question 47: Please select the bone positioned most superiorly on the human skeleton | frontal |
| Question 48: A condition that is caused by an abnormally increased roundness in the thoracic curvature is | kyphosis. |
| Question 49: Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types? | osteoblasts and osteoclasts |
| Question 50: One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe. | False |
| Question 51: The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle. | False |
| Question 52: Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood? | All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood. |
| Question 53: Which structures are unique to the fetal skull and provide additional space for molding the head shape as the baby passes through the birth canal? | fontanels |
| Question 54: Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete | additional matrix. |
| Question 55: After the age of 50, the density of bone: | decreases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity. |
| Question 56: Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: | red bone marrow. |
| Question 57: An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral density and increased bone fragility is | osteoporosis. |
| Question 58: Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone. | False |
| Question 59: The following are functions of bone except for | All of the above are functions of the bone |
| Question 60: Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? | Both B and C |
| Question 61: The knee joint is an example of a _____ joint. | hinge |
| Question 62: Skeletal muscles are innervated by: | somatic motor neurons. |
| Question 63: An example of a hinge joint is(are) the: | interphalangeal joints. |
| Question 64: Which type of muscle does not have T-tubules? | Smooth |
| Question 65: All of the following are characteristics of smooth muscle except: | thin and thick filaments are aligned in sarcomeres like skeletal muscles. |
| Question 66: A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. | biaxial |
| Question 67: In terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint? | Synarthrosis |
| Question 68: The rotator cuff muscles and tendons form a cufflike arrangement around the _____ joint. | shoulder |
| Question 69: Endurance training is also known as: | aerobic training. |
| Question 70: Most body movements are | a combination of isotonic and isometric |
| Question 71: During which phase of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm? | Latent period |
| Question 72: Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called: | plantar flexion. |
| Question 73: The opposite of dorsiflexion is: | plantar flexion. |
| Question 74: A gliding joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. | uniaxial |
| Question 75: The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by hydrolysis of | ATP. |
| Question 76: The active transport mechanism in the plasma membrane that transports sodium and potassium ions in opposite directions and at different rates is the | sodium-potassium pump. |
| Question 77: Severe depression can be caused by a deficit in certain brain synapses of: | amines. |
| Question 78: Neurotransmitters are released in a synapse and bind to: | receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. |
| Question 79: A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential. | local |
| Question 80: The brief period during which a local area of an axon's membrane resists re-stimulation is called the __________ period. | refractor |
| Question 81: Which is true of an action potential? | The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged. |
| Question 82: Which of the following is not one of the main chemical classes of neurotransmitters? | Triglycerides |
| Question 83: Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as: | catecholamines. |
| Question 84: The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is: | some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open. |
| Question 85: Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential? | The sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane. |
| Question 86: During a relative refractory period: | the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus. |
| Question 87: The neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses is(are): | enkephalins. |
| Question 88: A synapse consists of: | all of the above. |
| Question 89: The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct an impulse that is how much faster than the slowest fibers in the body? | Almost 300 times faster |
| Question 90: When an impulse reaches a synapse: | chemical transmitters are released. |
| Question 91: If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway. | willed movement |
| Question 92: The cerebellum performs all of the following functions except: | controls cardiac function. |
| Question 93: The part of the brain that assists in the maintenance of balance is the: | cerebellum. |
| Question 94: Which of the following is not associated with the oculomotor nerve? | Closing and opening of the eye (blink reflex) |
| Question 95: Most effectors of the autonomic nervous system are dually innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. | True |
| Question 96: A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child’s eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by stimulation of: | the sympathetic nervous system. |
| Question 97: How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector? | A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division. |
| Question 98: The knee jerk can be classified as a segmental reflex because: | impulses that mediate it enter and leave the same segment of the cord. |
| Question 99: What is the difference between a somatic reflex and an autonomic reflex? | A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of skeletal muscles, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of contraction of smooth or cardiac muscle or secretions of glands. |
| Question 100: Conduction by the sixth cranial nerve results in sensations of hearing. | False |
| Question 101: What would the result be if the phrenic nerve received an impulse from the cervical plexus? | The diaphragm would stop contracting. |
| Question 102: Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation? | Constriction of the bronchioles |
| Question 103: Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors. | nicotinic |
| Question 104: Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side? | Lateral corticospinal |
| Question 105: Normal infants will show the Babinski reflex up to the age of _____ years. | 1.5-2 |
| Question 106: When you are looking at a large green field, which cones would be sending the green wavelength to the brain? | M |
| Question 107: Which of the following is true about pain receptors? | Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain. |
| Question 108: The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the: | transcription of RNA. |
| Question 109: Which is not true of the hormone somatostatin? | It stimulates the secretion of insulin. |
| Question 110: Which of the following is a function of glucagon? | Tends to increase blood glucose concentrations |
| Question 111: Which of the following is not true of a receptor potential? | It follows the all-or-none law. |
| Question 112: The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the tympanic membrane and ending at the oval window is: | malleus, incus, and stapes. |
| Question 113: Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS trigger imprecise or “crude” sensation awareness? | Thalamus |
| Question 114: The olfactory tract carries impulses associated with: | smell. |
| Question 115: If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate _____ pain fibers. | acute |
| Question 116: The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is: | progesterone. |
| Question 117: Accommodation for near vision necessitates | all of the above. |
| Question 118: Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition. | tectorial |
| Question 119: Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? | Internal organs |
| Question 120: In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are: | slow to appear but long-lasting. |
| Question 121: What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled to form a single functional syncytium? | Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area of the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium. |
| Question 122: All of the following are components critical to coagulation except | none of the above; all of these components are critical to coagulation. |
| Question 123: A decrease in the amount of white blood cells is called | leukopenia. |
| Question 124: Platelets play an important role in | blood clotting. |
| Question 125: Which of the following vessels do not have the ability to constrict and dilate? | capillaries |
| Question 126: In the extrinsic pathway of stage 1 of the clotting mechanism, chemicals released from damaged tissues trigger the cascade of events that ultimately result in the formation of | prothrombin activator. |
| Question 127: The localized pressure gradient needed to maintain blood flow in a tissue is called | perfusion pressure. |
| Question 128: The term used to describe the collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of blood is: | hemodynamics. |
| Question 129: If damaged, which valve could allow blood to leak back into the right atrium? | Tricuspid |
| Question 130: Blood pressure is measured with the aid of an apparatus known as a(n) | sphygmomanometer. |
| Question 131: During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into _____, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. | thymocytes |
| Question 132: Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called | lymphokinetic activities. |
| Question 133: The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called | diapedesis. |
| Question 134: Complement can best be described as a(n): | enzyme in blood. |
| Question 135: Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity. | cell-mediated |
| Question 136: The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called | phagocytosis. |
| Question 137: Which of the following is a powerful poison that acts directly on any cell and quickly kills it? | cytotoxin |
| Question 138: Memory cells: | become plasma cells when exposed to an antigen. |
| Question 139: Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell’s surface, which results in | cytolysis. |
| Question 140: The functions of the lymphatic system include: | A , B, C, & D |
| Question 141: The function of which antibody is basically unknown? | IgD |
| Question 142: What is the function of the spleen? | all of the above |
| Question 143: Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the | lymphocyte. |
| Question 144: Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease? | interferon |
| Question 145: The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are | innate and adaptive immunity. |
| Question 146: The term used to describe the volume of air exchanged during normal inspiration and expiration is: | tidal volume. |
| Question 147: During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes: | a decrease in alveolar pressure. |
| Question 148: If the tidal volume of a given individual is 500 ml, then the anatomical dead space is approximately _____ ml. | 150 |
| Question 149: External respiration can be defined as: | the exchange of gases between the lung and the blood capillaries in the lung. |
| Question 150: By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen? | 97% |
| Question 151: The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood. | less than in the systemic venous |
| Question 152: Which of the following is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system? | Control of cell metabolism rate |
| Question 153: When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure: | expiration occurs. |
| Question 154: The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to: | provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system. |
| Question 155: Which of the following constitutes total lung volume? | Residual volume and vital capacity |
| Question 156: Which of the following would you expect to happen to cellular respiration during exercise? | Increased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a rise in plasma PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause an increase in respiration rate. |
| Question 157: About 98.5% of the oxygen carried by systemic arterial blood is attached to: | hemoglobin. |
| Question 158: Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total pressure of the mixture. | directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and |
| Question 159: Gas exchange, the lungs’ main and vital function, takes place in the: | alveoli. |
| Question 160: Which gas law deals with the solubility of gases in solution? | Henry |
| Question 161: Which of these is not an example of mechanical digestion? | Moistening the food |
| Question 162: The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the: | small intestine. |
| Question 163: The purpose of peristalsis is to: | propel food forward along the GI tract. |
| Question 164: The process of swallowing is known as: | deglutition. |
| Question 165: Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? | Portal vein |
| Question 166: The intestinal hormone cholecystokinin: | does all of the above. |
| Question 167: When classified according to the kind of chemical reactions catalyzed, digestive enzymes are referred to as _____ enzymes. | hydrolyzing |
| Question 168: Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract to: | neutralize hydrochloric acid. |
| Question 169: Which step of deglutition is under voluntary control? | Oral stage |
| Question 170: The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the intestinal mucosa is: | cholecystokinin-pancreozymin. |
| Question 171: The hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate substance from the pancreas is: | secretin. |
| Question 172: The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is called: | gastric inhibitory peptide. |
| Question 173: Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from: | carbohydrates. |
| Question 174: The process of fat emulsification consists of: | breaking fats into small droplets. |
| Question 175: The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose molecules _____ the GI lumen. | actively out of |
| Question 176: Which of the following is not a method used for parenteral administration? | By mouth |
| Question 177: What is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid? | Potassium |
| Question 178: The total fluid or water content of the human body ranges from _____ of its total weight. | 45% to 75% |
| Question 179: Water normally leaves the body through _____ exits. | four |
| Question 180: The thirst center, which contains specialized cells called osmoreceptors, is located in the: | hypothalamus. |
| Question 181: When comparing the volume of the various body fluids, the correct order going from highest to lowest in total volume would be: | intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid, plasma. |
| Question 182: Which of the following is not one of the seven basic solutions used for parenteral therapy? | Liquid protein |
| Question 183: When the effective filtration pressure equals zero: | no net transfer of water occurs between blood and interstitial fluid. |
| Question 184: If the blood pH decreases below normal, the kidney tubules secrete _____ urine. | more hydrogen ions from blood to |
| Question 185: What is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid? | Sodium |
| Question 186: Which of the following would have the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions? | pH 2 |
| Question 187: In young adults, the percentage of body weight composed of water will average about _____ for males and _____ for females. | 60%; 50% |
| Question 188: Edema is defined as abnormally large amounts of fluid in the: | intercellular spaces. |
| Question 189: A decrease in blood pH below normal tends to: | stimulate increased respirations. |
| Question 190: Which of the following substances is released by the juxtaglomerular cells? | Renin |
| Question 191: The opening of the urethra at the tip of the glans is called the: | external urinary meatus. |
| Question 192: A high blood concentration of estrogens: | stimulates epithelial cells of the endometrium to proliferate. |
| Question 193: Which of the following is true of the essential organ in the reproductive system? | All of the above are true. |
| Question 194: Which of the following glands is not a paired accessory gland of the male reproductive system? | Prostate |
| Question 195: Which statement is the best explanation of “immune infertility”? | Antigen-antibody reaction in males causes destruction of sperm, resulting in infertility. |
| Question 196: Which of the following is not a function of the ovary? | It produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). |
| Question 197: Which of the following is not a function of the Sertoli cells? | They produce testosterone. |
| Question 198: Fertilization of an ovum most often occurs in the: | |
| Question 199: What is the name of the so-called ovulating hormone? | Luteinizing hormone |
| Question 200: Testosterone is responsible for producing secondary sex characteristics. | T |
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