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P2 Cardiology Final
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the thickening, loss of elasticity, and hardening of the walls of the arteries from calcium deposits? | Arteriosclerosis |
| What is the progressive, degenerative disease of the midsize and large arteries? | Atherosclerosis |
| Death of a portion of the heart muscle from prolonged deprivation of oxygenated arterial blood | Myocardial infarction |
| What is the most important medication to administer during an MI? | Aspirin |
| Three I’s of cardiac | Ischemia, injury, infarct |
| Inferior wall MI affects what coronary artery? | RCA |
| Anterior wall MI is a blockage of what coronary artery? | LAD |
| Lateral wall MI is a blockage of what coronary artery? | LCX |
| What feeds the coronary arteries? | Aortic kick |
| This medication makes torsades worse? | Amiodarone |
| Class I medications: | Sodium channel blockers |
| Class II medications: | Beta blockers |
| Class III medications: | Potassium channel blockers |
| Class IV medications: | Calcium channel blockers |
| Amiodarone is a ______ channel blocker. | Potassium |
| What is the most common type of MI? | Inferior |
| This PVC falls directly in the middle of the R to R and has no dropped beats. | Interpolated |
| Two main causes of PEA: | Hypoxia and hypothermia |
| What is the most common way someone has an MI? | Plaque rupture |
| Most deadly MI: | Septal, Anterior, Lateral |
| What class medication is Diltiazem? | Calcium channel blocker |
| Transient, episodic chest discomfort resulting from myocardial ischemia: | Stable angina |
| TAA can be seen in what leads on an ECG? | aVR and posterior leads |
| ST depression, hyperacute T waves, and flipped T waves are indicative of: | Ischemia |
| ST elevation on an EKG is indicative of: | Injury |
| Pathological Q waves on an ECG are indicative of: | Infarct |
| What criteria is used to identify a LBBB or ventricular paced rhythm? | Sgarbossa |
| ________ is cardioverted at 120-200J. | Atrial Fibrillation RVR |
| ______ is cardioverted at 50-100J. | Supraventricular Tachycardia |
| ________ is cardioverted at 50-100J. | Atrial Flutter |
| ________ is cardioverted at 100J. | Ventricular Tachycardia |
| Do we debif or cardiovert TdP? | Defibrillate |
| On an ECG, this presents with concave STE and PR depression in multiple leads: | Pericarditis |
| On an ECG this presents with widespread concave ST elevation limited to precordial leads, absence of PR depression, and prominent T waves: | Benign Early Repolarization |
| What medication do we NOT want to give to a pt experiencing a TAA? | Aspirin |
| If an atrial appendage drops on the right side of the heart, it can cause a: | Stroke |
| If an atrial appendage drops on the left side of the heart, it can cause a: | PE |
| Most common cause of an AV block: | Heart attack |
| This is a rhythm with no p waves, wide QRS, and a rate of 15-40bpm: | Idioventricular |
| This is a rhythm with no p wave, a wide QRS, and a rate of 40-100bpm: | Accelerated Idioventricular |
| This is a rhythm with no p wave, a wide QRS, and a rate of less than 15bpm: | Agonal |
| This is a rhythm with no p wave, a wide QRS, and a rate greater than 100bpm: | Ventricular tachycardia |
| This is a rhythm with absent or inverted p waves, a narrow QRS, and a rate of 40-60bpm: | Junctional Escape |
| This is a rhythm with absent or inverted p waves, a narrow QRS, and a rate of less than 40bpm: | Junctional Bradycardia |
| This is a rhythm with absent or inverted p waves, a narrow QRS, and a rate of 60-100bpm: | Accelerated Junctional |
| This is a rhythm with absent or inverted p waves, a narrow QRS, and a rate of greater than 100bpm: | Junctional Tachycardia |
| SA node fails to initiate impulse, there is only one dropped beat and cadence is thrown off when it starts back up again: | Sinus pause |
| Impulse fails to leave the SA node; there are multiple dropped beats but cadence is right on track when it starts back up again: | Sinus Block |
| SA node fails to initiate impulse; multiple dropped beats and cadence is thrown off when it starts back up again: | Sinus Arrest |
| Spodick’s sign is identified on a 12-lead ECG by the presence of: | Downsloping of the TP segment |
| The presence of a tall R wave and ST segment depression in lead V2 signifies: | Active injury to the posterior wall of the heart |
| The residual pressure in the aorta that the left ventricle must overcome to eject blood out of the heart is known as: | Afterload pressure |
| A run of three or more PVCs in a row is known as a: | Run of V Tach |
| Using the picture below of the autorhythmic cell action potential, when is potassium leaving the cell, causing repolarization? | Phase three |
| Using the picture below of the cardiac contractile cell action potential, when is calcium entering the cell? | Phase two |
| Using the picture below of the cardiac contractile cell action potential, when are the sodium/potassium pumps actively moving ions back to where they belong? | Phase four |
| Using the picture below of the cardiac contractile cell action potential, when are the fast sodium channels open, allowing for this cell to depolarize? | Phase zero |
| Using the picture below of the autorhythmic cell action potential, when is calcium rushing into the cell, causing depolarization? | Phase zero |
| Using the picture below the cardiac contractile cell action potential, when is the cell repolarizing? | Phase three |
| The rapid influx of what ion causes depolarization of the cardiac contractile cells? | Sodium |
| An influx of what ion causes depolarization of the cardiac autorhythmic cells? | Calcium |
| _______ is the junction between the termination of the QRS and the beginning of the ST segment | J point |
| V1 is used to identify a: | Bundle branch block |