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Stack #4581387
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the primary risk of cutting off a patient when silence feels uncomfortable during therapeutic communication? | It can prevent them from sharing important information. |
| In therapeutic communication, _____ is a specific channel for transmitting and receiving information, not just the absence of communication. | silence |
| What therapeutic communication technique involves the nurse focusing, responding, and remembering what a patient is saying both verbally and nonverbally? | Active Listening |
| What are the four main techniques of therapeutic communication listed in the source material? | Silence, Active Listening, Clarifying Techniques, and Questions. |
| Using phrases like “Go on,” “And then?” or “Tell me about it” is an example of what active listening technique? | Offering general leads |
| What is the purpose of the therapeutic technique 'placing the events in time/sequence'? | To put events and actions in better perspective and identify patterns or cause-and-effect relationships. |
| The clarifying technique of _____ involves restating the basic content of a patient's message in different, usually fewer, words. | paraphrasing |
| If a patient says, “My life feels empty… it has no meaning,” and the nurse responds, “Your life is empty?”, what clarifying technique is being used? | Restating |
| What is the key difference between 'Reflecting' and 'Making Observations' as therapeutic techniques? | Reflecting conveys the nurse's observations of the patient's feelings, while Making Observations calls attention to the patient's behavior. |
| A nurse says to a patient, "You appear tense." This is an example of which clarifying technique? | Making Observations |
| The technique of _____ enables a nurse to examine important ideas, experiences, or relationships more fully by using prompts like “Tell me more…” or “Give me an example…”. | exploring |
| What type of question encourages patients to share information about experiences and is useful for establishing rapport? | Open-ended questions |
| What type of question is most effective during an initial interview to gather specific information, such as “Are the medications helping?”? | Close-ended questions |
| Projective questions, which often start with "what if," are used to help patients do what? | Explore and identify thoughts and feelings, and think about problems differently. |
| The _____ question is a goal-setting question that helps a patient see what the future would look like if their problem vanished. | miracle |
| What therapeutic technique indicates awareness of a patient's change and personal efforts without implying good or bad, such as saying, “You’ve combed your hair today”? | Giving Recognition |
| When a nurse says, “I’ll stay here and sit with you awhile,” they are using which therapeutic technique? | Offering Self |
| The technique of _____ brings out recurring themes in experiences by asking questions like, “Has this ever happened before?” | Encouraging Comparison |
| When a nurse says, “That was Dr. Todd, not a ninja,” to a patient, what therapeutic technique is being used? | Presenting Reality |
| When a nurse expresses uncertainty about the reality of a patient's hallucinations by saying, “That’s hard to believe,” they are using the technique of _____. | Voicing Doubt |
| _____ occurs when a patient unconsciously displaces feelings related to significant figures from their past onto the nurse. | Transference |
| _____ occurs when a nurse unconsciously displaces feelings related to significant figures from their past onto the patient. | Countertransference |
| What is a common sign of countertransference in a nurse-patient relationship? | Over-identification with the patient or feeling disinterested or disgusted with the patient. |
| In what phase of Peplau's nurse-patient relationship model does the nurse prepare by reviewing the patient's chart and researching their condition? | Pre-orientation Phase |
| Establishing rapport, specifying a contract, and discussing confidentiality are key tasks of which phase in the nurse-patient relationship? | Orientation Phase |
| In which phase of the nurse-patient relationship does the nurse and patient identify and explore areas causing problems and promote symptom management? | Working Phase |
| Summarizing goals achieved, reviewing patient education, and exchanging memories occur during which phase of the nurse-patient relationship? | Termination Phase |
| What is the primary goal of Milieu Therapy? | To provide, structure, and maintain a safe and therapeutic environment. |
| A(n) _____ leader exerts control over the group and does not encourage much interaction among members. | Autocratic |
| Which leadership style supports extensive group interaction in the process of problem-solving and is often used for psychotherapy groups? | Democratic Leader |
| What is the primary use of Methadone in addiction treatment? | It decreases painful symptoms of opiate withdrawal, reduces cravings, and blocks the euphoric effects of other opioids. |
| Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome is caused by a deficiency of what vitamin, often associated with alcohol use? | Thiamine (Vitamin B1) |
| What is the main difference between Wernicke encephalopathy and Korsakoff syndrome? | Wernicke encephalopathy is an acute and reversible disorder, while Korsakoff syndrome is a chronic condition with a much lower recovery rate. |
| What class of antidepressants is considered the first line of defense for anxiety-related disorders? | SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors) |
| Benzodiazepines, often ending in -pam or -lam, are used for anxiety because they have an affinity for which neurotransmitter? | GABA |
| Why are benzodiazepines typically prescribed for short-term use (3-4 months max)? | They are highly addictive and have a high risk for physiological dependence. |
| Which anti-anxiety medication takes 2-4 weeks to reach full effect, is used for long-term treatment, and does not cause dependence? | Buspirone (BuSpar) |
| What level of anxiety occurs in everyday life, allows for sharp focus, and can improve problem-solving? | Mild anxiety |
| At what level of anxiety does the perceptual field begin to narrow and the sympathetic nervous system kicks in, causing symptoms like a pounding heart and perspiration? | Moderate anxiety |
| Learning and problem-solving are not possible at the _____ level of anxiety, where behavior becomes automatic and aimed at reducing distress. | severe |
| A person experiencing the _____ level of anxiety is unable to process their environment, may lose touch with reality, and may experience hallucinations. | panic |
| _____ are persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cannot be dismissed from the mind. | Obsessions |
| _____ are ritualistic behaviors an individual feels driven to perform in an attempt to reduce anxiety. | Compulsions |
| Which bipolar disorder is the most severe and is characterized by at least one manic episode? | Bipolar I disorder |
| A key symptom in Bipolar I mania is _____, where the patient is unaware of their illness. | anosognosia |
| Bipolar II disorder is characterized by at least one _____ episode and at least one major depressive episode. | hypomanic |
| What is hypomania? | A low-level and less dramatic mania where functioning often increases. |
| What disorder involves hypomanic episodes alternating with symptoms of mild to moderate depression for at least 2 years in adults? | Cyclothymic disorder |
| To be diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder, a persistently depressed mood must last for a minimum of how long? | Two weeks |
| Persistent Depressive Disorder, or Dysthymia, is a low-level depression that occurs most of the day for a majority of days, lasting at least _____ in adults. | 2 years |
| Using a gun, jumping from a high place, and hanging are considered _____ methods of suicide. | hard |
| Cutting one's wrists and ingesting pills are considered _____ methods of suicide. | soft |
| Patients taking MAOIs must avoid foods rich in what substance? | Tyramine |
| Which foods should be avoided by a patient taking an MAOI? | Aged cheeses, fermented/smoked meats, overripe fruits (avocados, figs), and some beers/wines. |
| What is the plasma level for early signs of lithium toxicity? | 1.5-2.0 mEq/L |
| Coarse hand tremor, confusion, and hyperirritability of muscles are early signs of toxicity for which medication? | Lithium |
| A patient on lithium with blurred vision, clonic movements, and severe hypotension likely has a plasma level between _____. | 2.0-2.5 mEq/L (Advanced signs of toxicity) |
| Why does the use of furosemide (Lasix) increase the risk of lithium toxicity? | Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause sodium and water depletion, leading to increased retention and higher levels of lithium in the body. |
| _____ is a persistent EPS involving involuntary rhythmic movements that can persist even after an antipsychotic is discontinued. | Tardive Dyskinesia |
| What are the four extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) associated with first-generation antipsychotics? | Acute dystonia, Akathisia, Pseudoparkinsonism, and Tardive Dyskinesia. |
| What is acute dystonia? | A sudden, sustained contraction of one or several muscle groups, usually of the head and neck. |
| A patient who is pacing and unable to stay still due to motor restlessness is likely experiencing which EPS? | Akathisia |
| A _____ delusion is the belief that one is being singled out for harm. | persecutory |
| A patient who believes that events or circumstances with no connection to them are somehow related to them is experiencing a _____ delusion. | referential |
| A patient with a _____ delusion believes they are a very powerful or important person. | grandiose |
| A patient with the conviction that a major catastrophe will occur is experiencing a _____ delusion. | nihilistic |
| Clozapine can cause _____, a dangerously low white blood cell count that can be fatal if untreated. | severe neutropenia |
| What is the difference between positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia? | Positive symptoms are the presence of things that should not be present (e.g., hallucinations), while negative symptoms are the absence of essential human qualities (e.g., anhedonia). |
| What is associative looseness? | Haphazard and illogical thinking where concentration is poor and thoughts are only loosely connected. |
| Choosing words based on their sound rather than their meaning, such as “on the track, have a Big Mac,” is known as _____. | clang association |
| What is Echolalia in the context of schizophrenic speech? | The pathological repetition of another person's words. |
| What are command hallucinations? | Auditory hallucinations where the person is directed to take an action, which may be dangerous. |
| The negative symptom _____ is the reduced ability or inability to experience pleasure. | anhedonia |
| The negative symptom _____ is a reduction in motivation or goal-directed behavior. | avolition |
| The negative symptom _____ is a reduction in speech, also known as poverty of speech. | alogia |
| A _____ affect is characterized by an immobile or blank facial expression. | flat |
| What is the key difference in symptom onset between PTSD and Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)? | PTSD symptoms can begin 1 month or more after exposure, while ASD symptoms occur from 3 days to 1 month after the event. |
| Persistent symptoms of increased arousal, such as irritability, difficulty sleeping, and an exaggerated startle response, are characteristic of which disorder? | Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) |
| In addition to PTSD-like symptoms, a person with Acute Stress Disorder is more likely to experience _____, a sense of unreality related to the environment. | derealization |
| _____ is a milder, less specific version of ASD and PTSD precipitated by a stressful event like retirement or a breakup, diagnosed within 3 months of exposure. | Adjustment Disorder |
| _____ is an extremely uncomfortable feeling of being an observer of one’s own body or mental processes. | Depersonalization |
| A person with Dissociative Identity Disorder has at least two distinct identity states, where the one that functions daily blocks traumatic memories and the _____ is fixated on them. | alter state |
| What is the primary characteristic of Illness Anxiety Disorder? | Extreme worry and fear about the possibility of having a disease, with actual symptoms being mild or absent. |
| _____ Disorder is characterized by neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis, blindness) in the absence of a neurological diagnosis. | Conversion |
| What is 'la belle indifférence,' often seen in Conversion Disorder? | A lack of emotional concern about often dramatic physical symptoms, such as casually discussing sudden blindness. |
| In _____, patients consciously pretend to be ill or inflict injury to have their emotional needs met and achieve the 'patient' status. | Factitious Disorder |
| What is Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another, also known as Munchausen syndrome by proxy? | A caregiver deliberately falsifies illness in a vulnerable dependent for attention or other rewards. |
| What is the primary difference between Factitious Disorder and Malingering? | In Factitious Disorder, the goal is to assume the sick role; in Malingering, the goal is secondary gain (e.g., disability compensation, avoiding jail). |
| Which personality disorder is characterized by a long-standing distrust and suspiciousness of others, believing they want to cause harm? | Paranoid Personality Disorder |
| Which Cluster A personality disorder is characterized by a lifelong pattern of social withdrawal and emotional coldness, often described as 'loners'? | Schizoid Personality Disorder |
| Magical thinking, bizarre speech patterns, and anxiety in social situations are characteristic of which personality disorder? | Schizotypal Personality Disorder |
| Emotional dysregulation, impulsivity, self-destructive behaviors, and splitting are hallmarks of which personality disorder? | Borderline Personality Disorder |
| What is 'splitting' as a defense mechanism in Borderline Personality Disorder? | The inability to view both positive and negative aspects of others as part of a whole, seeing people as either all good or all bad. |
| Feelings of entitlement, an exaggerated sense of self-importance, and a lack of empathy are central to _____ Personality Disorder. | Narcissistic |
| Which personality disorder is characterized by being excitable, dramatic, attention-seeking, and often seductive or overly gregarious? | Histrionic Personality Disorder |
| A profound lack of empathy (callousness), social irresponsibility, and manipulative behavior for personal gain are key features of _____ Personality Disorder. | Antisocial |
| Which personality disorder is characterized by low self-esteem, intense shyness, and a preoccupation with rejection, leading to reluctance in engaging with new people? | Avoidant Personality Disorder |
| Submissive and clingy behavior, an intense fear of separation, and a lack of self-confidence are characteristic of which personality disorder? | Dependent Personality Disorder |
| Rigidity, an unhealthy focus on perfection, and excessive devotion to work that interferes with project completion are seen in _____ Personality Disorder. | Obsessive-Compulsive |
| The _____ of abuse is characterized by minor incidents like pushing or verbal abuse, where the victim often ignores the behavior out of fear. | Tension-building stage |
| The stage of abuse where tension peaks and a major violent incident occurs is the _____. | Acute Battering Stage |
| In the cycle of abuse, the _____ stage is a period of calm where the abuser is kind, remorseful, and may 'love bomb' the victim. | Honeymoon |
| What is the key difference between delirium and dementia regarding onset? | Delirium has an abrupt/acute onset, while dementia has a slow, progressive onset. |
| The cardinal symptom of _____ is an inability to direct, focus, sustain, and shift attention, with fluctuating periods of lucidity. | delirium |
| What is the priority of nursing care for a patient with delirium? | Keeping the patient safe while attempting to identify and treat the underlying cause. |
| What class of medication, such as Donepezil (Aricept), is used for Alzheimer's disease to produce marginal improvement in cognition? | Cholinesterase Inhibitors |
| _____ is the creation of stories or answers in place of actual memories to maintain self-esteem, common in dementia. | Confabulation |
| What is perseveration in the context of cognitive disorders? | The persistent repetition of a word, phrase, or gesture after the original stimulus has stopped. |
| The loss of language ability, starting with difficulty finding words and progressing to babbling, is known as _____. | aphasia |
| The loss of purposeful movement in the absence of motor impairment, such as being unable to dress oneself, is called _____. | apraxia |
| _____ is the loss of the sensory ability to recognize familiar objects. | Agnosia |
| The tendency for a person with dementia's mood to deteriorate and agitation to increase in the later part of the day is called _____. | sundowning |
| What is an ethical dilemma? | A conflict between two or more courses of action, each with favorable and unfavorable consequences. |
| What is the legal standard for involuntary commitment? | The person has a mental illness, is a danger to self or others, or is gravely disabled. |
| A _____ is a civil wrong for which monetary damages may be collected, and it can be either intentional or unintentional. | tort |
| Battery, assault, and false imprisonment are examples of what kind of tort? | Intentional tort |
| Malpractice and negligence are examples of what kind of tort? | Unintentional torts |
| What does the 'right to the least restrictive environment' mean? | Patients should be treated in an environment that provides the necessary care with the greatest personal freedom, using restraints or seclusion only when absolutely necessary. |
| What is a key symptom of Autism Spectrum Disorder? | Deficits in social relatedness, stereotyped repetitive movements or speech, and resistance to change. |
| What two second-generation antipsychotics are often used in Autism Spectrum Disorder to improve irritability, aggression, and compulsive behaviors? | Risperidone (Risperdal) and Aripiprazole (Abilify) |
| ADHD is characterized by an inappropriate degree of _____, _____, and _____. | inattention, impulsiveness, hyperactivity |
| What is a common side effect of stimulant medications like Methylphenidate (Ritalin) used for ADHD? | Decreased appetite. |
Created by:
fsanoe