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Stack #4580340
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Client avoids eye contact and speaks softly. What communication technique should the nurse use? | Active listening |
| Patient says “My life is empty.” Nurse repeats “Your life is empty?” What technique is this? | Restating |
| Nurse says “You appear tense.” What technique is being used? | Making an observation |
| Nurse says “Tell me more…” What technique is this? | Exploring |
| Nurse asks “What would life look like if the problem disappeared overnight?” | Miracle question |
| Silence is a therapeutic communication technique. | True |
| Nurse says “You feel overwhelmed.” What technique is this? | Reflection |
| Nurse reviews the patient’s chart before the first meeting. What phase is this? | Pre-orientation phase |
| Nurse establishes confidentiality and the meeting contract. What phase is this? | Orientation phase |
| Nurse helps the patient build coping skills and identifies stressors. What phase is this? | Working phase |
| Nurse summarizes progress and prepares the patient for discharge. What phase is this? | Termination phase |
| Patient relates to the nurse as if the nurse is their parent. What is this? | Transference |
| Nurse becomes overly invested because patient reminds them of someone. What is this? | Countertransference |
| Leadership style with minimal direction and maximum freedom. | Laissez-faire |
| Leadership style with high control and little group input. | Autocratic |
| Leadership style with shared decision-making and collaboration. | Democratic |
| A structured, safe environment that supports learning and coping. | Milieu therapy |
| “You look upset” vs “You feel upset.” What is the difference? | Observation vs reflection |
| Nurse asks “Has this ever happened before?” What technique? | Encouraging comparison |
| Nurse says “Good morning, you combed your hair today.” What technique? | Giving recognition |
| Patient trembling, increased HR, selective attention. What level of anxiety? | Moderate anxiety |
| Patient pacing, shouting, cannot follow directions. What level of anxiety? | Panic anxiety |
| Patient focused on one detail, headaches, nausea, trembling. What level of Anxiety? | Severe anxiety |
| Patient alert, fidgety, increased problem solving. What level? | Mild anxiety |
| Obsessions are intrusive thoughts. Compulsions are what? | Repetitive behaviors performed to reduce anxiety |
| Client repeatedly washes hands to reduce distress. This is an example of? | Compulsion |
| Client has persistent unwanted thoughts about contamination. This is? | Obsession |
| Client with OCD is agitated. What medication might be used briefly? | Benzodiazepines |
| Which anxiety medication works immediately and is addictive? | Benzodiazepines |
| Which medication does NOT cause dependence and takes weeks to work? | Buspirone |
| Which antihistamine is used for anxiety and safe with substance use history? | Hydroxyzine |
| Which SSRI is calming and often prescribed for anxiety? | Paroxetine |
| Which anxiety meds should NOT be given to elderly due to fall risk? | Benzodiazepines |
| Client starts SSRI and anxiety increases at first. Which SSRI commonly does this? | Fluoxetine or Sertraline |
| Medical conditions like hyperthyroidism can mimic what? | Anxiety disorders |
| Client reports palpitations and sweating but has PE history. What must be ruled out? | Medical cause mimicking anxiety |
| True or False: Anxiety can be a symptom of a medical condition. | True |
| Which class treats somatic and psychological anxiety symptoms? | Antianxiety medications (benzodiazepines) |
| Which medication class is FIRST LINE for long-term anxiety treatment? | SSRIs |
| Buspirone is best for which type of anxiety? | Chronic anxiety (GAD) |
| Which medications are NOT effective for panic attacks due to slow onset? | Buspirone and SSRIs (initially) |
| Client states “I must check the locks 20 times or something bad happens.” This is? | Compulsion with magical thinking |
| Hallucinations, delusions, and paranoia are what type of schizophrenia symptoms? | Positive symptoms |
| Flat affect, avolition, and anhedonia are what type of schizophrenia symptoms? | Negative symptoms |
| Which symptom cluster is harder to treat: positive or negative? | Negative symptoms |
| Which symptom cluster is more obvious and urgent negative or positive? | Positive symptoms |
| Hearing voices with no external stimulus is what? | Auditory hallucination |
| Seeing animals or people who are not there is what? | Visual hallucination |
| Believing the TV is talking directly to you is what delusion? | Referential delusion |
| Believing people are trying to harm you is what delusion? | Persecutory delusion |
| Believing you are chosen by God or extremely powerful is what delusion? | Grandiose delusion |
| Believing catastrophe or world destruction is coming is what delusion? | Nihilistic delusion |
| You see a patient suddenly laugh for no reason. This may indicate what? | Hallucination |
| Most dangerous hallucination type due to risk of harm? | Command hallucination |
| Command hallucinations require the nurse to assess what first? | What the voice is saying and if patient will act on it |
| When a patient copies your movements, what is this called? | Echopraxia |
| When a patient repeats your words, what is this called? | Echolalia |
| Patient uses words in a random, meaningless order. What speech pattern is this? | Word salad |
| Patient jumps rapidly between unrelated ideas. What speech pattern is this? | Flight of ideas |
| Patient creates a made-up word only they understand. What speech pattern? | Neologism |
| Patient goes off topic and never returns to the original question. What is this? | Tangentiality |
| Patient has slowed responses and trouble finishing thoughts. What is this? | Cognitive retardation |
| Patient believes others are plotting against them. What symptom? | Paranoia |
| Why is paranoia dangerous in schizophrenia? | Patient may act violently out of fear |
| Patient holds rigid posture and stops moving. What is this? | Catatonia |
| Sudden reduction in purposeful movement is what? | Motor retardation |
| Patient runs or paces rapidly without purpose. What behavior is this? | Motor agitation |
| Patient cannot resist impulses and acts without thinking. What is this? | Impaired impulse control |
| Patient stands too close and drinks from someone else’s cup. What is this? | Boundary impairment |
| Clozapine’s most dangerous side effect involves what cell type? | Neutrophils |
| Clozapine can cause what life-threatening condition? | Severe neutropenia |
| ANC below what level defines severe neutropenia? | ANC < 500 |
| Smoking, stimulant use, and alcohol increase the risk of what EPS? | Tardive dyskinesia |
| Which EPS involves rhythmic involuntary movements after long-term antipsychotics? | Tardive dyskinesia |
| What EPS is a sudden sustained contraction of neck or face muscles? | Acute dystonia |
| What EPS involves pacing and inability to sit still? | Akathisia |
| What EPS mimics Parkinson’s symptoms like tremors and shuffling gait? | Pseudoparkinsonism |
| Which EPS can become permanent even after stopping medication? | Tardive dyskinesia |
| Which medication class commonly causes EPS? | First-generation antipsychotics |
| A patient grinding their teeth with lip-smacking is showing what? | Tardive dyskinesia |
| A patient urgently pacing the unit and saying “I can’t stop moving.” What is this? | Akathisia |
| A patient’s head twists suddenly to one side and freezes. What is this? | Acute dystonia |
| A patient shuffles and has decreased arm swing. What EPS is this? | Pseudoparkinsonism |
| Which medication class treats severe TD by blocking VMAT2? | VMAT2 inhibitors |
| Patient says “My friends talk about french fries but how can you trust the French?” What speech disruption is this? | Loose associations |
| A patient’s thoughts are illogical with poor concentration. What is this? | Associative looseness |
| Patient repeats the nurse’s last word repeatedly. What speech pattern? | Echolalia |
| A patient has not slept in 3 days, is euphoric, impulsive, and taking dangerous risks. What is this? | Mania |
| A patient is upbeat, sleeps less, functions well, and feels more productive. What is this? | Hypomania |
| What diagnosis requires at least one manic episode? | Bipolar I disorder |
| What diagnosis requires at least one hypomanic episode AND one major depressive episode? | Bipolar II disorder |
| Bipolar II is often misdiagnosed as what? | Major depressive disorder |
| Cycling between hypomania and mild depression for 2+ years is what? | Cyclothymic disorder |
| In mania, the patient may become psychotic with what symptoms? | Hallucinations or delusions of grandeur |
| Lack of insight into one’s illness in bipolar disorder is called what? | Anosognosia |
| A patient collapses from exhaustion after mania. This is common in what disorder? | Bipolar I disorder |
| What usually follows a manic episode? | Depression and anxiety |
| Major depressive disorder requires symptoms for how long? | At least 2 weeks |
| To diagnose MDD, how many symptoms must be present? | Five or more |
| Long-term low-grade depression for 2+ years is what? | Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) |
| Persistent depressive disorder in children must last how long? | At least 1 year |
| Hard suicide methods include what? | Gunshot, hanging, jumping, CO poisoning |
| Soft suicide methods include what? | Cutting wrists, overdose pills, gas inhalation |
| MAOIs require avoiding foods containing what? | Tyramine |
| Name 3 tyramine-rich foods unsafe with MAOIs. | Aged cheese, cured meats, fermented products |
| What can occur if a patient on MAOIs eats tyramine foods? | Hypertensive crisis |
| Which MAOI comes as a transdermal patch? | Selegiline (Emsam) |
| Lithium therapeutic level for maintenance? | 0.6–1.2 mEq/L |
| Early signs of lithium toxicity include what? | GI upset, coarse tremor, confusion |
| Advanced lithium 2.0-2.5 mEq/L toxicity signs include what? | Ataxia, blurred vision, clonic movements, seizures |
| What level indicates severe lithium toxicity? | Above 2.5 mEq/L |
| A patient on lithium has diarrhea, tremors, and vomiting. What should the nurse do? | Hold lithium and notify provider |
| Lithium is excreted by what organ system? | Kidneys |
| Which diuretic increases lithium toxicity risk? | Furosemide (Lasix) |
| Why does furosemide increase lithium toxicity risk? | It causes sodium loss, increasing lithium reabsorption |
| A patient on lithium should maintain what consistent intake? | Sodium and fluids |
| Medication that increases risk of lithium accumulation? | NSAIDs and diuretics |
| Which mood stabilizer carries risk of hypothyroidism and renal impairment? | Lithium |
| What metabolic condition is common with bipolar disorder? | Metabolic syndrome |
| Patients with bipolar disorder have increased risk of what psychiatric condition? | Suicide |
| A patient in severe depression expresses hopelessness. What is the priority nursing action? | Assess for suicidal ideation |
| Patient shows psychomotor retardation, low energy, and poor concentration. What is this? | Major depressive disorder |
| A patient has flashbacks, nightmares, and hypervigilance lasting longer than 1 month. What is this? | PTSD |
| PTSD symptoms include re-experiencing, avoidance, mood changes, and what? | Hyperarousal |
| A PTSD patient feels detached, numb, and uninterested. What is this called? | Emotional numbing |
| A key screening question for PTSD assesses what? | Re-experiencing trauma through intrusive memories |
| What medication class is first-line for PTSD? | SSRIs |
| PTSD patients often experience what sleep problem? | Nightmares and insomnia |
| A patient experiences derealization and numbing for 2 weeks after trauma. What is this? | Acute Stress Disorder |
| ASD symptoms last between what timeframe? | 3 days to 1 month |
| What symptom is MORE common in ASD than PTSD? | Derealization |
| A patient feels like they are watching themselves from outside their body. What is this? | Depersonalization |
| A patient says the world looks foggy or unreal. What is this? | Derealization |
| A disorder involving two or more distinct personality states is called? | Dissociative Identity Disorder |
| What is the main cause of DID? | Severe, repeated childhood trauma or abuse |
| Patients with DID often lose memory for daily events. What is this called? | Dissociative amnesia |
| A milder stress reaction to major life changes, such as job loss, is what? | Adjustment disorder |
| Adjustment disorder must occur within what timeframe? | Within 3 months of the stressor |
| A patient shows intense grief, yearning, and difficulty moving on after 12 months. What is this? | Complicated grieving |
| Somatic symptom disorder involves what? | Psychological distress expressed as physical symptoms |
| Somatic symptom disorder focuses on what? | Excessive thoughts and anxiety about health |
| Illness Anxiety Disorder involves what? | Fear of having or acquiring a serious illness |
| Two types of Illness Anxiety Disorder: | Care-seeking and care-avoidant |
| Illness Anxiety Disorder is diagnosed when symptoms are what? | Mild or not present |
| A patient frequently checks their body for illness despite normal exams. What is this? | Illness Anxiety Disorder |
| Conversion Disorder causes what kind of symptoms? | Neurological symptoms with no medical cause |
| Examples of Conversion Disorder symptoms include what? | Paralysis, blindness, seizures, gait issues |
| A key feature of Conversion Disorder is lack of concern about symptoms. What is this? | La belle indifference |
| A patient loses vision after a traumatic argument but is calm. What is this? | Conversion Disorder |
| MRI and labs in Conversion Disorder will show what? | No neurological explanation |
| Factitious Disorder involves what? | Intentional fabrication of symptoms to assume sick role |
| Malingering differs from Factitious Disorder because motivation is what? | Secondary gain (money, avoiding work) |
| Factitious Disorder imposed on another is also called what? | Munchausen by proxy |
| A caregiver induces illness in a dependent. What is this? | Factitious Disorder imposed on another |
| Somatic disorders often respond to what treatments? | SSRIs and CBT |
| Numbing of emotional response is typical of what disorder? | PTSD |
| Which medication can stop conversion symptoms during interview? | Amobarbital |
| Patients with somatic disorders often seek what? | Repeated medical evaluation |
| Important nursing approach for somatic disorders? | Build therapeutic relationship and set limits on discussion time |
| Patients with somatic disorders benefit from what type of therapy? | CBT |
| Patients with conversion disorder require what from the nurse? | Nonjudgmental reassurance and support |
| Key predictor of somatic disorder misdiagnosis? | Clinician frustration or bias |
| A patient believes physical symptoms are deserved punishment. This is associated with? | Somatic disorders |
| Paranoid personality disorder is defined by what core feature? | Distrust and suspiciousness of others |
| Paranoid personality patients often interpret others’ actions as what? | Malevolent and threatening |
| Best nursing approach with paranoid personality? | Be straightforward, clear, and avoid being too friendly |
| Which personality disorder involves lifelong social withdrawal and emotional detachment? | Schizoid personality disorder |
| Schizoid personality patients typically appear how? | Cold, aloof, indifferent, solitary |
| Best therapy choice for schizoid personality? | Psychotherapy, then group therapy after trust established |
| Schizoid patients benefit from which medication if depressed? | Wellbutrin |
| Which personality disorder shows odd beliefs, magical thinking, and social anxiety? | Schizotypal personality disorder |
| Schizotypal patients may have what unusual features? | Bizarre speech, odd appearance, perceptual distortions |
| Best nursing intervention for schizotypal personality? | Respect need for isolation and avoid challenging beliefs |
| Cluster A disorders share what common theme? | Odd or eccentric behavior |
| Borderline personality disorder is defined by what? | Emotional instability, impulsivity, and unstable relationships |
| Splitting is a hallmark of which personality disorder? | Borderline personality disorder |
| Borderline patients often struggle with what dangerous behaviors? | Self-harm and suicide attempts |
| Best therapy for borderline personality disorder? | DBT (Dialectical Behavior Therapy) |
| Nursing priority for borderline personality disorder? | Safety and consistent boundaries |
| Which medication can reduce self-injury in borderline personality disorder? | Naltrexone |
| Narcissistic personality disorder centers around what? | Grandiosity, entitlement, lack of empathy |
| Narcissistic patients react strongly to what? | Criticism or perceived rejection |
| Best approach with narcissistic personality disorder? | Stay neutral, avoid power struggles, model empathy |
| Histrionic personality disorder is defined by what? | Attention-seeking, emotional, dramatic behavior |
| Histrionic patients often use what behavior to get attention? | Seductive or provocative actions |
| Best communication approach with histrionic personality disorder? | Keep communication professional and structured |
| Antisocial personality disorder is also called what? | Sociopath |
| Core features of antisocial personality disorder? | Deceitful, manipulative, no remorse |
| Nursing priority with antisocial personality disorder? | Safety and firm boundaries |
| Medication that may be used for aggression in antisocial personality disorder? | Lithium or valproic acid |
| Cluster B personality disorders share what trait? | Dramatic, emotional, erratic behaviors |
| Avoidant personality disorder is defined by what? | Extreme shyness, fear of rejection, low self-esteem |
| Best therapy for avoidant personality disorder? | Individual and group therapy with trust building |
| Medication that helps avoidant personality disorder with anxiety? | SSRI or SNRI (venlafaxine) |
| Dependent personality disorder centers on what? | Need to be taken care of and fear of separation |
| A dependent patient may have difficulty doing what? | Making decisions without reassurance |
| Nursing concern with dependent personality disorder? | High risk for manipulation and boundary issues |
| Best therapy for dependent personality disorder? | Psychotherapy and CBT |
| OCPD is defined by what? | Rigid perfectionism, control, orderliness |
| Difference between OCD and OCPD? | OCD has true obsessions/compulsions; OCPD is personality-based perfectionism |
| Patients with OCPD struggle with what? | Flexibility and accepting unexpected changes |
| Medication helpful for OCPD symptoms? | Clomipramine or fluoxetine |
| Cluster C disorders share what core trait? | Anxiety and fearfulness |
| A patient rehearses social interactions repeatedly and avoids downtime. What disorder? | OCPD |
| A patient refuses social events due to fear of humiliation. What disorder? | Avoidant personality disorder |
| A patient becomes extremely attached to staff and demands extra time. What disorder? | Dependent personality disorder |
| Physical abuse involves what behaviors? | Slapping, hitting, choking, pushing, restraining, burning |
| Emotional abuse includes what? | Criticism, humiliation, name-calling, intimidation, isolation |
| Sexual abuse is defined as what? | Any sexual contact or exposure without consent |
| Economic abuse involves what? | Controlling access to money or preventing employment |
| Neglect is defined as what? | Failure to provide physical, emotional, medical, or educational needs |
| Children who are neglected often appear how? | Underweight, dirty, poorly clothed, untreated medical issues |
| What percentage of rape victims know their attacker? | About 69% |
| True or False: Most rape victims are attacked by strangers. | False |
| True or False: Rape is about violence and control, not sex. | True |
| Most rapes are what? | Planned |
| Rape myths include what false belief? | Women “ask for it” |
| Is there a time limit that defines rape? | No |
| Can men be rape victims? | Yes |
| Neglect of an older adult may show how? | Poor hygiene, malnutrition, untreated medical conditions |
| What type of abuse includes controlling all finances? | Economic abuse |
| Which type of abuse is hardest to detect because it leaves no visible marks? | Emotional abuse |
| Victim ignores early incidents due to fear during which phase? | Tension-building phase |
| Abuser apologizes and offers gifts in which phase? | Honeymoon phase |
| Violence occurs during which phase? | Acute battering phase |
| In the tension-building phase, the victim often does what? | Attempts to calm or minimize the abuser’s anger |
| In the acute battering phase, what usually happens? | Attack triggered by stress or abuser’s emotional state |
| Why might victims provoke violence in some cases? | To get the fear and tension over with and reach the honeymoon stage |
| During the honeymoon phase, what does the abuser do? | Shows remorse, apologizes, makes promises to change |
| Why do victims stay during the honeymoon phase? | Hope for change and emotional attachment |
| Key nursing priority for IPV victims? | Ensure immediate safety N SUPPORT |
| What is the nurse’s legal duty regarding suspected child abuse? | Mandatory reporting |
| What is the nurse’s duty when an adult discloses abuse? | Support, assess safety, offer resources (not mandatory to report unless vulnerable adult) |
| A patient with repeated injuries and vague explanations may indicate what? | Intimate partner violence |
| What is the first step when a patient discloses abuse? | Ensure privacy and safety |
| What is the nurse’s role if the patient denies abuse? | Document findings objectively and offer resources |
| What screening tool is useful for IPV? | HITS (Hurt, Insult, Threaten, Scream) |
| Delirium is defined as what? | Acute fluctuating disturbance in attention and awareness |
| Delirium develops over what time frame? | Hours to days |
| Primary feature of delirium? | Inability to focus, sustain, or shift attention |
| Delirium symptoms typically do what throughout the day? | Fluctuate with periods of lucidity |
| Delirium onset is typically what? | Abrupt |
| Delirium is considered what type of emergency? | Medical emergency |
| Main priority in delirium care? | Keep patient safe |
| Common cause of delirium? | Medical illness, infection, dehydration, medications |
| Delirium often includes what perceptual disturbance? | Visual hallucinations |
| Patients with delirium often show what behavior? | Agitation, restlessness, disorientation |
| Dementia onset is typically what? | Gradual and progressive |
| Most common cause of dementia? | Alzheimer’s disease |
| Early sign of Alzheimer’s disease? | Trouble remembering new information |
| Patients with dementia may lose ability to perform what? | ADLs |
| Alzheimer’s disease causes decline in what functions? | Memory, judgment, problem solving, language |
| What is confabulation? | Unconscious creation of stories to fill memory gaps |
| What is agraphia? | Loss of ability to read or write |
| What is apraxia? | Inability to perform purposeful movements |
| What is agnosia? | Inability to recognize objects despite intact senses |
| What is perseveration? | Repetition of a word or phrase after stimulus ends |
| What is aphasia? | Loss of language ability |
| What is sundowning? | Increased confusion and agitation in evening hours |
| What is hyperorality? | Putting objects in mouth, tasting/eating inappropriate items |
| Priority nursing approach for dementia? | Provide safety, structure, and predictable routine |
| Key communication with dementia? | Use simple, short sentences and one-step directions |
| Which medication class provides temporary cognitive improvement in dementia? | Cholinesterase inhibitors |
| Example of cholinesterase inhibitor for dementia? | Donepezil (Aricept) |
| Cholinesterase inhibitors should be taken when? | At bedtime |
| A major side effect of cholinesterase inhibitors? | Bradycardia and syncope |
| NSAIDs should be used cautiously with what medication? | Cholinesterase inhibitors |
| Patients with dementia may show what type of affect? | Apathy or flat affect |
| Main difference: delirium vs dementia onset? | Delirium = acute; dementia = gradual |
| Main difference: delirium vs dementia attention? | Delirium = impaired attention; dementia = usually intact early |
| Best initial intervention for delirium? | Identify and treat underlying cause |
| What should be minimized in delirium care? | Restraints (increase confusion) |
| What environmental factors help delirium? | Clocks, calendars, adequate lighting |
| In delirium, unconditional positive regard promotes what? | Calmness and reduced anxiety |
| Which disorder shows disorganized thinking with fluctuating alertness? | Delirium |
| Which disorder shows progressive cognitive decline without fluctuation? | Dementia |
| A patient keeps misstating objects but is calm. This indicates what? | Agnosia |
| A patient repeatedly asks the same question without remembering answers. What is this? | Short-term memory loss from dementia |
| Nighttime wandering is common in what? | Dementia with sundowning |
| Delirium patients must be assessed frequently for what? | LOC |
| Least restrictive interventions must always be used before what? | more invasive restraints or seclusion |
| What is the least restrictive intervention? | Verbal de-escalation |
| What is the most restrictive intervention? | Seclusion or physical restraints |
| True or False: A patient has the right to refuse medication unless court-ordered. | True |
| What is required for restraints to be applied? | Provider order within required time frame |
| What must the nurse do after applying restraints? | Continuous assessment and documentation |
| Using restraints without justification is considered what? | False imprisonment |
| Touching a patient without consent is considered what? | Battery |
| Threatening a patient with harm is considered what? | Assault |
| What is required for informed consent? | Patient must understand risks, benefits, and alternatives |
| Who can sign informed consent? | Competent adult or legal guardian |
| If a patient is intoxicated, can they sign consent? | No |
| HIPAA protects what? | Patient privacy and health information |
| Can nurses discuss patient information in public spaces? | No |
| What is “duty to warn”? | Legal obligation to protect third parties from harm |
| Who does Tarasoff Law require the nurse to warn? | Identified potential victim |
| Involuntary commitment requires what two criteria? | Danger to self or others, or inability to meet basic needs |
| Patients admitted involuntarily still have what rights? | Refuse treatment (unless emergency), call lawyer, receive care |
| Emergency involuntary admission allows what? | Temporary detainment for evaluation |
| True or False: Involuntary patients cannot leave AMA. | True |
| Voluntary patients may leave unless what? | The patient is being evaluated for danger to self or others |
| If a voluntary patient requests discharge but is unsafe, what happens? | Provider may file for involuntary hold |
| Chemical restraints include what? | Medications used to control behavior, not treat illness |
| What must be attempted before restraints? | De-escalation, diversion, comfort measures |
| Seclusion is used only when what? | Patient is violent and safety is at risk |
| Solid documentation must restraint include what? | Behavior leading to restraint and all alternatives attempted |
| Unnecessary seclusion or restraint is what legal violation? | False imprisonment |
| Which ethical principle means “do good”? | Beneficence |
| Which ethical principle means “avoid harm”? | Nonmaleficence |
| Which ethical principle means “patient chooses”? | Autonomy |
| Which ethical principle means “fair treatment”? | Justice |
| Which ethical principle means “tell the truth”? | Veracity |
| A patient states they plan to harm someone. What must the nurse do? | Notify provider and warn intended victim |
| Breaking HIPAA can lead to what? | Fines, job loss, legal consequences |
| When sharing patient info, nurse should follow what principle? | Minimum necessary disclosure |
| What should the nurse do if a patient refuses treatment? | Respect choice unless emergency exception |
| What is required for involuntary medication in psychiatric care? | Court order or emergency situation |
| Taking a patient’s phone without cause violates what? | Patient rights and autonomy |
| If a patient is placed in seclusion, what must occur first? | Provider must evaluate patient within required timeframe |
| Autism typically presents during what age range? | 18 months to 3 years |
| Autism is more common in which gender? | Boys (five times more than girls) |
| A major early sign of autism is what? | Delayed language or lack of eye contact |
| Autism involves difficulty with what three major areas? | Social interaction, communication, and restricted behaviors |
| True or False: Autism is caused by the MMR vaccine. | False |
| Autism often includes what unusual behaviors? | Stereotyped movements, rigid routines, fixated interests |
| Autism may include sensory issues like what? | Sensitivity to sound, lights, textures |
| A child with autism may struggle with what social skill? | Understanding nonverbal cues |
| Children with autism often benefit from what early intervention? | Speech, occupational, and behavioral therapy |
| What is the long-term goal of autism treatment? | Reduce behavioral symptoms and promote development |
| Autism commonly occurs with what comorbid condition? | Intellectual disability (IQ < 85) |
| Which medications may help autism-related anxiety or agitation? | Second-generation antipsychotics |
| Autistic children benefit from teaching using what approach? | Structured, predictable routines |
| Children with autism may have difficulty with what behavior? | Eye contact and reciprocal conversation |
| ADHD symptoms involve what three core features? | Inattention, hyperactivity, impulsivity |
| ADHD symptoms must occur in how many settings? | Two or more settings (home, school, work) |
| ADHD symptoms must be present before what age? | Age 12 |
| Main goal of ADHD treatment? | Reduce hyperactivity and impulsivity, increase attention |
| Which therapy helps with ADHD behavior patterns? | Behavioral therapy with rewards and consequences |
| Effective discipline for ADHD from parents includes what? | Rewards and consequences, consistent praise, time-out, verbal reprimands Daily report cards, point systems |
| Which ADHD medication decreases appetite? | Stimulants (methylphenidate, amphetamine) |
| When should parents give stimulant medications? | After meals to reduce appetite suppression |
| A major side effect of stimulant medications? | Insomnia and decreased appetite |
| Children taking stimulants should be monitored for what? | Weight loss and growth suppression |
| What medication is non-stimulant and used for ADHD? | Atomoxetine |
| What is a key risk of atomoxetine? | Liver injury or suicidal ideation in youth |
| ADHD children respond well to what structure? | Clear routines and predictable expectations |
| A child blurts out answers and interrupts. What symptom is this? | Impulsivity ADHD |
| A child cannot remain seated or sits fidgeting constantly. What symptom? | Hyperactivity |
| A child with ADHD may struggle with what academic skill? | Sustained attention to tasks |
| Reward systems work best when rewards are what? | Immediate and consistent |
| Time-out is useful to manage what ADHD behavior? | Impulsive or aggressive outbursts |
| Teacher reports the child cannot finish assignments or follow directions. What disorder? | ADHD |
| Parents of an ADHD child should avoid what discipline method? | Inconsistent or harsh punishment |
| A key nursing intervention for ADHD medication teaching? | Do not stop stimulants abruptly |
| Which professionals may be involved in ADHD care? | Teacher, pediatrician, psychologist, speech therapist, OT |