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Clinical Procedures
Final in Clinical Procedures
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What percent of the daily caloric intake of an individual should come from fat? A) Approximately 45% to 65% B) No more than 20% to 35% C) Less than 7% D) Between 70% to 80% | B) No more than 20% to 35% |
| What is the function of carbohydrate in the body? A) Primary source of energy for the body B) Build and repair of body tissue C) Assists in blood clotting D) Production of blood cells | A) Primary source of energy for the body |
| Which of the following is a symptom of lactose intolerance? A) Abdominal bloating B) Diarrhea C) Flatulence D) Abdominal cramping E) All of these | E) All of these |
| Which of the following is recommended nutrition therapy for type 1 diabetes? A) Exchange list system B) Reduced calorie diet C) Low fat diet D) Low sodium diet | A) Exchange list system |
| Which of the following minerals provide an increased resistance to dental cavities? A) Phosphorus B) Chloride C) Fluoride D) Copper | C) Fluoride |
| Nutritional treatment for a person diagnosed with anorexia nervosa include A) gradual increase in calorie intake B) mandatory nutrition supplements C) frequent small meals and snacks D) all of the above | D) all of the above |
| All of the following are high in dietary cholesterol except: A) Egg whites B) Milk C) Liver D) Shellfish | A) Egg whites |
| All of the following are characteristics of cholesterol except: Dietary cholesterol is found in both animal and plant products It helps to make up cell membranes It is needed for the production of hormones and bile It is manufactured by the liver | Dietary cholesterol is found in both animal and plant products |
| All of the following contain saturated fat except: A) Nuts B) Butter C) Bacon D) Cheese | A) Nuts |
| Which of the following occurs with celiac disease? A) Erosion of the lining of the stomach B) Inflammation of the colon C) Shortness of breath D) Damage to the villi of the small intestine | D) Damage to the villi of the small intestine |
| How are ingredients listed on a food label? | In descending order of weight from highest to lowest |
| All of the following are performed by the medical assistant using a knowledge of nutrition except: | Conducting a nutritional assessment of a patient and recommending nutrition therapy |
| Which of the following may occur if high blood pressure is not brought under control? A) Heart attack B) Kidney damage C) Stroke D) Damaged vision E) All of these | E) All of these |
| Which of the following vitamins is required for the formation of prothrombin needed for normal blood clotting? A) Vitamin D B) Vitamin C C) Vitamin K D) Vitamin E | C) Vitamin K |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of soluble fiber? A) It helps to lower blood cholesterol. B) Good food sources include oatmeal, applies, broccoli, and legumes. C) It makes an individual feel full longer. D) All of these. | D) All of these. |
| Which of the following vitamins is needed for healthy skin and to maintain vision in dim light? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin D C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin K | A) Vitamin A |
| Which of the following requires a food label? A) Fresh fruits B) Packaged foods C) Fresh vegetables D) Restaurant food | B) Packaged foods |
| Also known as lipids, and are organic compounds that do not disolve in water A) carbohydrates B) fat C) vitamin D) protein | B) fat |
| Which of the following individuals may require a multivitamin and mineral supplement? A) An individual consuming less than 1,200 kcal per day B) An individual with Crohn’s disease C) A pregnant woman D) An elderly individual E) All of these | E) All of these |
| Naturally occurring inorganic substance that is essential to the proper functioning of the body A) mineral B) vitamin C) carbohydrate D) fiber | A) mineral |
| Name an example of an eating disorder; A) anorexia nervosa B) bulimia nervosa C) compulsive overeating D) all of the above | D) all of the above |
| How much of MyPlate should consist of the protein group? A) 10% B) 25% C) 30% D) 50% | B) 25% |
| What is the disadvantage of trans fat? A) It increases the HDL cholesterol level. B) It increases the risk of liver disease. C) It interferes with the absorption of iron. D) It increases the risk of cardiovascular disease. | D) It increases the risk of cardiovascular disease. |
| A food with a high nutrient density is A) High in calories and low in nutrients. B) Fortified with vitamins and minerals. C) Low in calories and high in nutrients. D) High in protein and low in fat. | C) Low in calories and high in nutrients. |
| Which of the following is an advantage of an ingredients list? | Can make healthy food choices Can scan for ingredients that may cause food allergies Assists consumers in selecting unprocessed foods that promote good health Consumers can scan for ingredients that they should avoid for religious or cultural reasons |
| Type 1 diabetes is caused by an inability of the body to A) Break down carbohydrates into glucose. B) Produce insulin. C) Break down fat. D) Store glycogen. | B) Produce insulin. |
| What is the term for the application of the science of nutrition to promote optimal health and treat illness? A) Dietitian B) Malnutrition C) Nutrition therapy D) Weight management | C) Nutrition therapy |
| All of the following are benefits of a vegetarian diet except ; A) lowers risk of developing chronic disease B) Helps to maintain a healthy weight C) Prevention of certain types of cancers D) Increase in triglycerides | D) Increase in triglycerides |
| All of the following are key elements in the treatment of obesity except: A) Reduced calorie eating plan B) Physical exercise program C) Fad diets D) Behavior modification plan | C) Fad diets |
| Which of the following may result in an elevated triglyceride level in the body? A) Type 2 diabetes B) Excess alcohol consumption C) Being physically inactive D) Smoking E) All of these | E) All of these |
| How many kilocalories make up 1 pound of body fat? A) 1,200 B) 2,500 C) 3,500 D) 5,000 | C) 3,500 |
| Which of the following is a function of water? Transportation of substances in and out of cells Cools the body through perspiration Provides a solvent for ridding the body of waste products Cushions the shock to bones and joints All of these | All of these |
| What occurs with a rotation diet? | Gradual desensitization of the body to the food allergen by limiting the number of times it is ingested |
| All of the following are good food sources of protein except: A) Pasta B) Milk C) Eggs D) Meat | A) Pasta |
| What is the name of the condition in which the body produces insulin but does not use it effectively? A) Malnutrition B) Hypoglycemia C) Insulin resistance D) Insulin shock | C) Insulin resistance |
| A diet for a cancer patient would include ; A) foods high in protein B) vitamins and minerals C) healthy fats D) all of the above | D) all of the above |
| How many kilocalories are provided by one gram of carbohydrate? 4 6 9 12 | 4 |
| Which of the following is the primary function of protein in the body? To build, repair, and maintain body tissue To provide energy for the body To assist in regulating body processes To maintain a healthy immune system | To build, repair, and maintain body tissue |
| Which of the following foods is low in sodium? Pickles Fruit juice Hot dogs Canned soup | Fruit juice |
| Which of the following minerals is needed for healthy bones and teeth? Calcium Potassium Iodine Zinc | Calcium |
| Which of the following is not a common food allergen? Milk Apples Eggs Wheat | Apples |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of vitamins? Provide energy for the body Consists of inorganic compounds Needed in small amounts for normal growth and development Can be produced by the body All of these | Needed in small amounts for normal growth and development |
| Most water is lost from the body through Urine. Feces. Perspiration. Breathing. | Urine. |
| All of the following are functions of fat in the body except: It provides energy for the body. It assists in the transmission of nerve impulses. It insulates and cushions the body. It transports water soluble vitamins in the body. | It transports water soluble vitamins in the body. |
| How many minutes each week should a healthy adult spend in moderate-intensity physical exercise? 60 minutes 100 minutes 150 minutes 180 minutes | 150 minutes |
| Is essential to the survival of an indivdual, is the universal solvent of the body minerals water fat proteins | water |
| What type of nutrition therapy is typically used for a patient with a severe food allergy to peanuts? Elimination diet Rotation diet Denaturation Allergy injections | Elimination diet |
| Which of the following enables glucose to enter the body cells and be converted to energy? Glycogen Insulin Beta cells of the pancreas Lactase | Insulin |
| Organic compound that is required in small amounts by the body for normal growth and development fiber minerals vitamins water | vitamins |
| What is a complete protein? | A protein that contains all of the essential amino acids needed by the body |
| How do supplemental digestive enzymes assist in treating food allergies? | They break down food into smaller, less allergenic molecules. |
| A patient who is lactose intolerant would choose which of the following to eat.? Soy milk Cheese Ice cream Whole milk | Soy milk |
| All of the following are good food sources of the B vitamins except: Citrus fruits Whole grain bread and cereals Legumes Dark green leafy vegetables | Citrus fruits |
| Organic compounds that consist of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen fat fiber protein carbohydrates | carbohydrates |
| All of the following are recommendations of the TLC (Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes) eating plan except: | Sodium: At least 5,000 mg per day |
| Complex carbohydrates are made up of Many sugar units strung together in a long chain. One sugar unit. Two sugar units. Amino acids. | Many sugar units strung together in a long chain. |
| Which of the following may result from atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries? Narrowing of the coronary arteries Partial blockage of the coronary arteries Hardening of the arterial walls All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following conditions can result from a deficiency of vitamin B12 (cobalamin)? Dermatitis Pernicious anemia Muscle cramps Night blindness | Pernicious anemia |
| What is the term for an amino acid that is required by the body and must be obtained from food? Nonessential amino acid Incomplete amino acid Essential amino acid Micronutrient | Essential amino acid |
| Which of the following are symptoms of a food allergy? Skin rash Hives Swelling Shortness of breath All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following is a function of the B vitamins? To regulate metabolism To facilitate nervous system function To maintain healthy skin To assist enzymes in converting food into energy All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following conditions can result from a deficiency of vitamin B1 (thiamine)? Pellegra Scurvy Osteoporosis Beriberi | Beriberi |
| Which of the following are good food sources of polyunsaturated fat? Walnuts Flax seeds Corn oil Fatty fish All of these | All of these |
| What occurs in the body when more calories are used for energy by the body than are consumed? Calorie surplus Malnutrition Insulin resistance Calorie deficit | Calorie deficit |
| Which of the following is an example of an empty calorie food? Candy Cake Cookies Soft drinks All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following conditions can result from a deficiency of iron? Hemophilia Osteomalacia Goiter Anemia | Anemia |
| Which of the following is recommended for the prevention and control of hypertension? TLC eating plan MyPlate eating plan DASH eating plan Exchange list system | DASH eating plan |
| Which of the following conditions can result from a deficiency of vitamin C? Bleeding gums Easy bruising Poor wound healing Muscle cramps All of these | All of these |
| All of the following are characteristics of lactose intolerance except: Body doesn’t produce enough lactase Caused by an allergy to lactose Body cannot fully digest lactose Usually begins during late adolescence or adulthood | Caused by an allergy to lactose |
| Often considered the special force macronutrient proteins minerals fat electrolytes | proteins |
| What is the term for a food that has vitamins and minerals added to it to replace those lost during processing of that food? Whole-grain food Enriched food Pasteurized food Fortified food | Enriched food |
| All of the following are examples of monosaccharides except: Glucose Fructose Galactose Sucrose | Sucrose |
| Which of the following nutrients (listed on a food label) should be limited in the diet for a patient with cardiovascular disease? Total fat Calcium Iron Dietary fiber | Total fat |
| What percentage of an adult is made up of water? 10% to 20% 20% to 25% 60% to 65% 80% to 85% | 60% to 65% |
| Which of the following risk factors contributes the most to the development of type 2 diabetes? Smoking High blood pressure Lack of physical activity Excess body weight | Excess body weight |
| The function of the prostate gland is to Store sperm. Secrete fluid that transports sperm. Secrete testosterone. Produce sperm. | Secrete fluid that transports sperm. |
| All of the following conditions can cause an elevated PSA level except: Prostatitis Testicular cancer Benign prostatic hyperplasia Prostate cancer | Testicular cancer |
| Patient instructions for a gFOBT include | Beginning the diet modifications 3 days before collecting the first stool specimen. Protecting the slides from heat and sunlight. Collecting a sample from two different parts of each stool specimen. Spreading a thin smear of the stool specimen over the fi |
| All of the following are symptoms of prostate cancer that is more developed except: Difficulty in urinating Painful urination Weak urinary flow Thick, yellow discharge from the penis | Thick, yellow discharge from the penis |
| What is the function of the mucus secreted by the large intestine? To protect the wall of the large intestine from substances moving through it To protect the large intestine from pathogens To break down nutrients To prevent constipation All of these | To protect the wall of the large intestine from substances moving through it |
| Which of the following is not a responsibility of the medical assistant during a sigmoidoscopy? | Insufflating air into the colon |
| All of the following conditions can be detected during a colonoscopy except: Colorectal polyps Fissures Appendicitis Colorectal cancer | Appendicitis |
| According to the ACS, individuals at average risk for colorectal cancer should be screened between the ages of 20 and 65. 45 and 75. 50 and 80. 60 and 85. | 45 and 75. |
| What parts of the colon are viewed during a colonoscopy? Sigmoid colon Descending colon Transverse colon Ascending colon All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following is a function of the large intestine? Secretion of digestive enzymes Digestion of food Absorption of nutrients Absorption of water All of these | Absorption of water |
| What is the name for an abnormal growth that protrudes from the inside wall of the large intestine? Fissure Hemorrhoid Peptic ulcer Polyp | Polyp |
| Any trace of blue appearing on or at the edge of the gFOBT smear is interpreted as A positive reaction. A negative reaction. No reaction. An invalid result. | A positive reaction. |
| Which of the following tests may be performed if a stool-based CRC screening test is positive? MRI Colonoscopy Upper GI x-ray study Colposcopy All of these | Colonoscopy |
| All of the following are risk factors for colorectal cancer except: A diet high in fat Family history of colorectal cancer GI ulcers Adenomatous polyps | GI ulcers |
| The appendix is attached to the Ascending colon. Cecum. Sigmoid colon. Duodenum. | Cecum. |
| A normal prostate gland feels Lumpy. Firm. Soft. Hard. | Soft. |
| What is the purpose of the DRE before a sigmoidoscopy? | To palpate the rectum for tenderness To palpate the rectum for hemorrhoids, polyps, and tumors To relax the sphincter muscles of the anus To prepare the patient for insertion of the endoscope |
| Testicular cancer occurs most commonly Between age 15 and 34. Between age 30 and 50. After age 40. After age 50. | Between age 15 and 34. |
| What is the PSA level for most men? Below 4 ng/mL 4–10 ng/mL Above 10 ng/mL Negative | Below 4 ng/mL |
| What is the purpose of insufflating air into the colon during a sigmoidoscopy? To distend the lumen of the colon for better visualization To remove fecal material from the colon To remove mucus from the colon To remove gas from the colon All of these | To distend the lumen of the colon for better visualization |
| Why should a patient consume a high-fiber diet before a gFOBT? To add bulk to the stool To promote bowel elimination To encourage bleeding from intestinal lesions To help ensure adequate specimen collection All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following positions is used for a flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscopy? Modified left lateral recumbent Lithotomy Prone Supine | Modified left lateral recumbent |
| A stool specimen for a stool-based CRC screening test should not be collected if which of the following conditions is present? Diarrhea Rectal bleeding Blood in the urine Menstruation All of these | All of these |
| All of the following are symptoms of colorectal cancer except: Bleeding from the rectum Change in bowel habits Abdominal pain Unexplained weight gain | Unexplained weight gain |
| All of the following can cause failure of the expected control results on a gFOBT except: Outdated slides Performing the control procedure after the slides have been developed Error in technique Outdated developing solution | Performing the control procedure after the slides have been developed |
| Which of the following is determined by a FIT-DNA (Cologuard) test? | Detects the presence of altered DNA and/or human hemoglobin in the stool |
| What type of bowel preparation may be required before a sigmoidoscopy? | Not consuming any solid food the day before the procedure Drinking only clear liquids the day before the procedure Taking a laxative the evening before the procedure Performing cleansing enemas on the day of the procedure |
| The purpose of sigmoidoscopy is to detect the presence of Lesions of the sigmoid colon. Inflammatory bowel disease. Polyps of the sigmoid colon. Hemorrhoids. All of these. | All of these. |
| When should a testicular self-examination be performed? In the morning After taking a warm shower After sexual intercourse After vigorous exercise | After taking a warm shower |
| All of the following make up the large intestine except: Cecum Ileum Colon Rectum | Ileum |
| What is occult blood? Less than 5 ml of blood in the stool Digested blood Blood that is not visible Visible red blood | Blood that is not visible |
| Which of the following medications does not need to be discontinued before and during a gFOBT? Ibuprofen More than 1 adult aspirin a day Iron supplement Vitamin C greater than 250 mg/day | Iron supplement |
| The most common sign of testicular cancer is A small, hard, painless lump on the front or side of the testicle. Bleeding during urination or ejaculation. A change in bowel habits. Difficulty in urinating. | A small, hard, painless lump on the front or side of the testicle. |
| What is done if an abnormal lesion is observed during a colonoscopy? The lesion is cauterized. Another colonoscopy is performed in 6 months. An upper GI x-ray study is performed. A biopsy of the lesion is performed. | A biopsy of the lesion is performed. |
| How should a gFOBT testing kit be stored? At room temperature In the freezer In an airtight container In the refrigerator | At room temperature |
| All of the following are advantages of a fecal immunochemical test (FIT) as compared with a gFOBT except: | FIT is less expensive. |
| Why might a colorectal polyp be removed during a colonoscopy? To prevent Crohn’s disease To prevent it from developing into colorectal cancer To prevent diverticulitis To prevent obstruction of the colon | To prevent it from developing into colorectal cancer |
| What is the interpretation of a PSA level greater than 20 ng/mL? The patient has a 25% chance of having prostate cancer. The patient has a 50% chance of having prostate cancer. The patient has prostate cancer. The patient needs to be retested. | The patient has a 50% chance of having prostate cancer. |
| Which of the following elevates the PSA level? Fasting Smoking Vigorous physical exercise Alcohol consumption | Vigorous physical exercise |
| When the physician is finished with the sigmoidoscope, it should be Sterilized in an autoclave. Sanitized and returned to its storage case. Sterilized in a dry heat oven. Sanitized and disinfected. | Sanitized and disinfected. |
| All of the following are risk factors for testicular cancer except: Family history of testicular cancer Undescended testicles Being an African American male Cancer of the other testicle | Being an African American male |
| All of the following tests may be ordered if a patient has an elevated PSA level except: Transrectal ultrasound Double-contrast barium enema radiographic examination Biopsy of the prostate gland MRI | Double-contrast barium enema radiographic examination |
| Which of the following is accomplished through sanitization? Organic and inorganic matter is removed from the item. All microorganisms are removed from the item. The item is sterilized. Spores are killed. | Organic and inorganic matter is removed from the item. |
| What type of water should be used in the autoclave? Salt water Tap water Distilled water Mineral water | Distilled water |
| The rubber gasket on the inside door of the autoclave should be wiped every day with A damp cloth. A disinfectant. A low-sudsing detergent. A scouring pad. | A damp cloth. |
| How should sterilization indicators be stored? In a cool, dry area In the refrigerator In a warm, moist area In an airtight container | In a cool, dry area |
| The proper time for sterilizing an item in the autoclave depends on the Type of autoclave being used. Type of load. Type of sterilization indicator being used. Intended use of the item. | Type of load. |
| The period of time that a disinfecting solution is effective after it has been activated is known as its Reuse life. Shelf life. Use life. Expiration date. | Use life. |
| Which of the following is removed from an item during sanitization? Blood Body fluids Tissue Soil All of these. | All of these. |
| Which of the following items requires high-level disinfection? Stethoscope Flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscope Surgical instruments Examining table | Flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscope |
| Which of the following is true regarding an SDS? | It provides information regarding hazardous chemicals. It must be kept on file for each hazardous chemical stored in the workplace. It must be readily available to employees. It must be developed by the manufacturer of the hazardous chemical. |
| The length of time a chemical disinfectant may be stored before use and still retain its effectiveness is known as Reuse life. Shelf life. Use life. Expiration date. | Shelf life. |
| Which of the following is an example of a chemical health hazard? Skin corrosion Serious eye damage Reproductive toxicity Respiratory sensitization All of these | All of these |
| According to the HCS, which of the following must be included on the label of a hazardous chemical? Product identifier Precautionary statements Signal word Hazard statements All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following represents an error in technique during the sanitization procedure? | Using steel wool to remove stains from instruments |
| Which of the following is used most often to sterilize items in the medical office? Dry heat oven Ethylene oxide sterilizer Autoclave Chemical agents | Autoclave |
| All of the following are characteristics of sterilization pouches except: They provide good visibility of the contents. A sterilization indicator is usually present on the pouch They can be labeled. They are reusable. | They are reusable. |
| Which of the following is true regarding the Globally Harmonized System (GHS)? | It provides consistency in the classification and labeling of chemicals It classifies chemicals according to their health and physical hazards It enables employees to understand information regarding hazardous chemicals It is an international standard |
| Which of the following is a guideline when working with glutaraldehyde (Cidex)? Work in a well-ventilated area. Wear safety goggles. Wear utility gloves. Rinse hands thoroughly if they come in contact with glutaraldehyde. All of these. | All of these. |
| All of the following are examples of noncritical items except: Percussion hammer Vaginal speculum Stethoscope Crutches | Vaginal speculum |
| Which of the following alcohol concentrations is the most effective disinfectant? 50% isopropyl alcohol 60% isopropyl alcohol 70% isopropyl alcohol 100% isopropyl alcohol | 70% isopropyl alcohol |
| Why should a chemical not be used past its expiration date? It may cause stains on an instrument. It may lose its potency. It may cause an instrument to malfunction. It may leave residue on an instrument. | It may lose its potency. |
| At the least, an autoclave must be operated at what temperature and pressure? | 250 °F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch |
| Which section of SDS includes information on the signs and symptoms of overexposure to the hazardous chemical? Exposure Controls/Personal Protection Physical and Chemical Properties Stability and Reactivity Toxicological Information | Toxicological Information |
| Which section of SDS includes information on the personal protective equipment that should be used with the hazardous chemical? Exposure Controls/Personal Protection Accidental Release Measures Stability and Reactivity Regulatory Information | Exposure Controls/Personal Protection |
| Why should all organic matter be removed from an item before it is disinfected? To prevent the item from rusting To prevent stains on the item To allow the disinfectant to reach all parts of the item To ensure the proper working condition of the item | To allow the disinfectant to reach all parts of the item |
| Which of the following is the best means of determining the effectiveness of the sterilization process? The temperature gauge on the autoclave Biologic indicators Sterilization strips Autoclave tape | Biologic indicators |
| Which of the following is an example of a critical item? Percussion hammer Stethoscope Surgical instrument Tongue blade | Surgical instrument |
| What is the term for an item that is free of all living microorganisms and spores? Aseptic Sanitized Sterile Clean | Sterile |
| Sterilized packs should not be stored In a clean area. In an area free from dust and insects. With the most recently sterilized item placed in front. In a dry area. All of these. | With the most recently sterilized item placed in front. |
| Which of the following is a recommended exposure time and temperature for a dry heat oven? 250 °F for 1 hour 320 °F for 2 hours 320 °F for 15–20 minutes 212 °F for 20–30 minutes | 320 °F for 2 hours |
| Which of the following does OSHA recommend for the decontamination of a blood spill? 70% isopropyl alcohol 10% household bleach in water 2% glutaraldehyde Lysol | 10% household bleach in water |
| What should be used when cleaning the surface of an instrument? Antiseptic wipe Nylon brush Stainless steel wire brush Soft cloth | Nylon brush |
| Which of the following does the CDC recommend be documented in a log for each autoclave cycle? Date and time of the cycle Description of the load Exposure time and temperature Results of the sterilization indicator All of these | All of these |
| High-level disinfection is a process that Destroys all pathogenic microorganisms. Destroys all microorganisms and spores. Only destroys spores. Destroys all microorganisms, but not spores. | Destroys all microorganisms, but not spores. |
| What is the purpose of lubricating an instrument? It makes the instrument last longer and function better It prevents rusting of the instrument It assists in killing pathogens on the instrument It reduces the time needed to sterilize the instrument | It makes the instrument last longer and function better |
| Which of the following must be resterilized? A pack that has been dropped A pack that has opened up A pack that has been crushed A pack that is torn All of these | All of these |
| Dry heat is preferred for sterilizing Disposable syringes. Vaginal specula. Flexible sigmoidoscopes. Instruments with sharp cutting edges. | Instruments with sharp cutting edges. |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of autoclave tape? Ensures whether sterilization has occurred Indicates whether the item was in the autoclave Can be used only to close the pack Plays “Jingle Bells” when it has been exposed to steam | Indicates whether the item was in the autoclave |
| Which section of SDS includes information on the initial care an untrained responder can provide to an individual who has been exposed to the hazardous chemical? | First-Aid Measures |
| Which of the following represents an error in technique when loading the autoclave? | Positioning small packs 1/2 inch apart |
| Heavy duty utility gloves over clean disposable gloves should be worn during the sanitization procedure to protect the hands from | Bloodborne pathogens. Other potentially infectious materials. Irritating chemicals. Accidental cuts from instruments. |
| What should be done if a sterilization indicator does not change properly? | Check for a problem with the sterilization technique. Check the working order of the autoclave. Review the manufacturer’s guidelines for proper operation of the autoclave. Resterilize the item. |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial spores? | They consist of a hard, thick-walled capsule. They represent a resting and protective stage of bacteria. They are more resistant to heat and disinfectants than vegetative bacteria. They cannot reproduce. |
| The agent used to destroy microorganisms on an item depends on the Size of the item. Intended use of the item. Number of microorganisms present on the item. Weight of the item. All of these. | Intended use of the item. |
| The wrapper used to autoclave items should | Prevent contaminants from getting in during handling and storage. Be made of a substance that does not tear or puncture easily. Be made of a substance not affected by the sterilization process. Allow steam to penetrate it. |
| The purpose of wrapping items before they are sterilized in the autoclave is to | Protect the items from recontamination during handling and storage. |
| Low-level disinfection cannot be used to disinfect which of the following? Examining tables Countertops Floors Medical instruments | Medical instruments |
| Removing a wet pack from the autoclave results in Rusting of surgical instruments. Dulling of sharp instruments. Contamination of the sterile item in the pack. Invalid results on the sterilization indicator. All of these. | Contamination of the sterile item in the pack. |
| The purpose of the Hazard Communications Standard (HCS) is to ensure that employees | Are informed of the hazards associated with chemicals in the workplace. |
| Which of the following sterilization methods is often used by medical manufacturers to sterilize disposable items? Cold sterilization Dry heat oven Ethylene oxide gas Autoclave | Ethylene oxide gas |
| What is the term for a phrase that describes the recommended measures to be taken to minimize or prevent adverse effects resulting from exposure to a hazardous chemical? Product identifier Hazard statement Precautionary statement Signal word | Precautionary statement |
| Which of the following is the recommended method for diagnosing chlamydia and gonorrhea? Culture test antigen-antibody test NAA test blood test | NAA test |
| The absence or cessation of the menstrual period is known as perimenopause dysfunctional uterine bleeding Amenorrhea Pregnancy | Amenorrhea |
| When collecting a specimen for a Pap test, the ectocervical specimen can be obtained using | The S-shaped end of the cytospatula |
| The purpose of a bimanual pelvic examination is to | Determine the size, shape, and position of the uterus and ovaries |
| Why should a patient be instructed not to douche before having a cervical cancer screening test? | Reduces the number of cells available for analysis |
| Which of the following is the preferred ACS cervical cancer screening recommendation for women between the ages of 30 and 45 years of age | Pap test plus an HPV test every 5 years |
| Chlamydia infection often occurs in association with | Gonorrhea |
| What is the primary purpose of a Pap test? | Detection of abnormal cells that may develop into cervical cancer |
| A precancerous condition that may or may not develop into cancer is known as | Dysplasia |
| The causative agent of trichomoniasis is a | Motile protozoan |
| Gynecology is the branch of medicine that deals with the | Health maintenance and diseases of the reproductive system of women |
| What is the purpose of prenatal care? | To prevent disease To promote health To provide prenatal education Early detection of problems |
| Which of the following patients is most likely to develop vulvovaginal candidiasis? | A patient on prolonged antibiotic therapy |
| Why is it important that the patient be relaxed during a pelvic examination? | For easier insertion of the vaginal speculum To make the examination easier for the patient To make it easier for the provider to perform the bimanual pelvic examination To reduce patient discomfort |
| What preparation is required to examine Trichomonas vaginalis under the microscope? | The vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of isotonic saline |
| What is the term for the lower narrow end of the uterus that opens into the vagina? | Cervix |
| All of the following are characteristics of the HPV test except: | It should be performed on women under the age of 30 |
| In preparation for a gynecologic examination the patient should be instructed to | Empty her bladder, if needed Undressed completely Wear the examining gown with the opening in front Breathe deeply slowly and evenly during the examination |
| The function of a vaginal speculum is to | Hold the walls of the vagina apart |
| What is the drug commonly used to treat vulvovaginal candidiasis? | nystatin (Mycostatin) |
| Pain associated with the menstrual period is known as | Dysmenorrhea |
| What is the LMP? | The date of the first day of the last menstrual period |
| If left untreated a chlamydial infection in a woman may result in | Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) |
| What is the cause of most abnormal pap test results? | Infection or inflammation |
| All of the following are characteristics of genital herpes except: | Can be cured with antibiotics |
| In what position is the patient placed for a breast examination performed by a provider? | Supine |
| All of the following place a woman at higher risk for cervical cancer except: | Women who begin menstruating at an early age |
| What is the most common cause of an abnormal vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age | Bacterial vaginosis |
| The Bethesda System for reporting the results of the Pap test includes | A detailed cytologic description of the results |
| Which of the following is a CDC screening recommendation for chlamydia and gonorrhea? | Annual screening of women older than 25 with multiple sex partners Annual screening of all sexually active females ages 25 or younger Annual screening for women older than 25 with a sexual partner who has an STI |
| A woman should report all of the following to her provider except: | Lumpy feeling breast tissue |
| A complete gynecologic examination consist of | Breast examination and pelvic examination |
| What is the term for the dome-shaped upper portion of the uterus between the fallopian tubes | Fundus |
| It is recommended that a Pap specimen not be collected | During the patient's menstrual period |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of Gonorrhea in a male | Enlargement of the prostate gland |
| The American Cancer Society recommends that women between ages 44 to 54 obtain a mammogram | Every year |
| Which of the following is not a symptom of trichomoniasis? | Lower abdominal pain |
| The maturation index can be used evaluate which of the following conditions? | The cause of infertility Amenorrhea Postmenopausal bleeding Results of treatment with hormones |
| Which of the following can be used to collect a scraping of cells from both the ectocervix and the endocervix at the same time? | A cytobroom |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of a woman who is at average risk for breast cancer? | Does not have a personal history of breast cancer Does not have a family history of breast cancer Does not have a genetic mutation known to increase the risk of breast cancer Has not had chest radiation therapy before the age of 30 |
| Symptoms of chlamydial infection in a female (if they occur) include: | Dysuria Itching Irritation of the genital area Yellowish, odorless vaginal discharge |
| What is the term for the permanent cessation of menstruation? | Menopause |
| What is the term used to describe anything that increases an individuals chance of developing a disease? | Risk factor |
| Which of the following is included in a pelvic examination? | Inspection of the external genitalia, vagina, and cervix Collection of a specimen for cervical cancer screening bimanual pelvic examination Rectal vaginal examination |
| Which of the following is a symptom of vulvovaginal candidiasis? | Thick, odorless, cottage cheese-like discharge |
| Which of the following is a symptom of bacterial vaginosis? | Grayish-white vaginal discharge that has a fishy odor |
| Gonorrhea is transmitted through? | Sexual intercourse |
| Which of the following positions is used to perform a pelvic examination? | Lithotomy |
| What is the term for the external region between the vaginal orifice and the anus? | Perineum |
| Which of the following increases the risk of developing bacterial vaginosis? | Vaginal douching Multiple sexual partners IUDs Use of antibiotics |
| Which of the following is not an example of a sexually transmitted infection? | Vulvovaginal candidiasis |
| Almost all cervical cancers are caused by? | HPV |
| When measuring blood pressure, the patient’s arm should be positioned Above heart level. At heart level. Across the chest. With the palm facing downward. | At heart level. |
| What term is used to describe an abnormal decrease in the rate and depth of respiration? Tachypnea Hypopnea Orthopnea Bradycardia | Hypopnea |
| When measuring blood pressure, the first clear tapping sound represents The systolic pressure. Phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds. The diastolic pressure. The palpatory blood pressure reading. | The systolic pressure. |
| Blood pressure measures The contraction and relaxation of the heart. The number of times the heart beats per minute. The force exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood. The expansion and recoiling of the aorta. | The force exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood. |
| One respiration consists of One inhalation. One exhalation. One inhalation and one exhalation. The opening and closing of the valves of the heart. | One inhalation and one exhalation. |
| You are measuring the pulse rate and find it feels weak and rapid. How would you record this? Bounding Thready Tachycardia Bradycardia | Thready |
| Which of the following represents the average normal body temperature? 37.8° C 96.8° F 98.6° F 99.6° F | 98.6° F |
| What is the normal range for body temperature? 96° F to 98° F 97° F to 99° F 98° F to 99° F 97° F to 100.4° F | 97° F to 99° F |
| Which of the following are symptoms that may occur during the course of a fever? Headache Increased pulse and respiratory rate Increased thirst Loss of appetite All of these | All of these |
| What type of breathing may occur with a panic attack? Wheezing Bradypnea Hyperventilation Eupnea | Hyperventilation |
| Which of the following symptoms are experienced by a patient when his or her temperature begins to rise? Coldness and chills Perspiration Bradycardia Hyperventilation All of these | Coldness and chills |
| Which of the following individuals has the fastest pulse rate? Infant School-age child Adolescent Adult | Infant |
| The phase in the cardiac cycle in which the heart relaxes between contractions is known as Diastole. Systole. Pulse pressure. Baseline recording. | Diastole. |
| What is the name given to the type of fever in which the temperature fluctuates minimally but always remains elevated? Stadium Remittent Intermittent Continuous | Continuous |
| Most of the heat produced in the body is through Shivering. Perspiration. Voluntary muscle contractions. Digestion. | Voluntary muscle contractions. |
| Over which artery should the stethoscope be placed when taking manual blood pressure? Radial Brachial Apical Carotid | Brachial |
| Pulse oximetry provides the physician with information on The amount of carbon dioxide being removed from the tissues. Cardiac dysrhythmias. The amount of oxygen being delivered to the tissues. Circulation to the extremities. | The amount of oxygen being delivered to the tissues. |
| Treatment to bring hypertension under control includes Lowering sodium intake. Stress management. Antihypertensive medication. Increasing potassium intake. All of these. | All of these. |
| Internal respiration is the | Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and body cells. |
| The forehead site can be used to measure body temperature in Infants. Children. Adults. Elderly. All of these. | All of these. |
| The process by which microorganisms are unintentionally transferred from one person, object, or place to another is known as Infection. Decontamination. Disease. Cross-contamination. | Cross-contamination. |
| When taking axillary body temperature, the arm should be held close to the body to Allow for proper placement of the thermometer. Prevent irritation to the skin. Prevent the transfer of pathogens. Prevent air currents from affecting the reading. | Prevent air currents from affecting the reading. |
| All of the following are risk factors for developing hypertension except: Obesity Tobacco use Physical exercise Alcohol consumption | Physical exercise |
| If a patient’s pulse rate is 80 beats/min, the patient’s respirations would most likely be 14 respirations per minute. 16 respirations per minute. 18 respirations per minute. 20 respirations per minute. | 20 respirations per minute. |
| If a rectal temperature of 99° F was taken orally, it would register as 97° F. 98° F. 99° F. 100° F. | 98° F. |
| Excessive pressure should not be applied when measuring the radial pulse rate because The pulse rate may increase The pulse rate may decrease It could close off the radial artery, and the pulse may not be felt It could affect the rhythm of the pulse | It could close off the radial artery, and the pulse may not be felt |
| Normal blood pressure for an adult is a reading of 120/80 mm Hg or higher. Less than 120/80 mm Hg. 110–140 over 60–90 mm Hg. 70–80 beats/min. | Less than 120/80 mm Hg. |
| Which of the following terms refers to a fever? Hypothermia Febrile Dehydration Afebrile | Febrile |
| How does physical exercise temporarily affect the pulse rate? Increases the pulse rate Decreases the pulse rate Has no effect Results in a dysrhythmia | Increases the pulse rate |
| The transfer of heat from one object to another by direct contact is known as Conduction. Radiation. Convection. Microwaves. | Conduction. |
| What term is used to describe temporary cessation of breathing? Hypoxia Hypopnea Apnea Anoxia | Apnea |
| During exhalation Oxygen is taken into the lungs. The diaphragm descends. The lungs expand. Carbon dioxide is removed from the lungs. | Carbon dioxide is removed from the lungs. |
| What term is used to describe a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by a lack of oxygen? Cyanosis Hypoxia Apnea Ischemia | Cyanosis |
| Where is the radial pulse located? On the thumb side of the wrist In the center of the antecubital space On the little finger side of the wrist On the anterior side of the neck | On the thumb side of the wrist |
| What term designates a decrease in the oxygen saturation of the blood? Apnea Hypoxemia Hypopnea Hypoxia | Hypoxemia |
| When measuring blood pressure, the Korotkoff phase in which the sounds disappear is Phase I. Phase III. Phase IV. Phase V. | Phase V. |
| A vague sense of body discomfort, weakness, and fatigue is known as The blahs. Malaise. Crisis. Adventitious. | Malaise. |
| A temperature of 100° F is classified as Normal. Hyperpyrexia. Hypothermia. Low-grade fever. | Low-grade fever. |
| The probe of a rectal thermometer must be lubricated before insertion to prevent The transfer of pathogens. An inaccurate temperature reading. The thermometer from breaking. Irritation of the rectal mucosa. | Irritation of the rectal mucosa. |
| Which of the following individuals may normally exhibit bradycardia? A trained athlete An infant An elderly person A diabetic patient | A trained athlete |
| How does a temporal artery temperature reading compare with an oral body temperature reading? | Approximately 0.5 °F to 1 °F lower than an oral reading |
| Which of the following terms describes an abnormally fast heart rate? Tachypnea Bounding Tachycardia Bradycardia | Tachycardia |
| The function of hemoglobin is to Transport oxygen in the body. Defend the body against infection. Assist in blood clotting. Transport nutrients to the cells. | Transport oxygen in the body. |
| You are measuring the pulse rate and find it has a normal rhythm and volume. How should you document this? Dysrhythmia and regular Bounding and strong Regular and strong Thready and regular | Regular and strong |
| Which of the following represents an error in (manual) blood pressure technique? | Releasing the air in the cuff as slowly as possible |
| What name is given to the heat-regulating center of the body? Medulla Hypothalamus Pituitary gland Olfactory lobe | Hypothalamus |
| What effect can finger movement have on the pulse oximetry procedure? | Prevents the probe from picking up the pulse signal |
| The systolic blood pressure represents the Pressure in the arteries when the ventricles contract. Pressure in the arteries when the heart relaxes. Pressure in the arteries when the atria contract. Expansion and recoiling of the aorta. | Pressure in the arteries when the ventricles contract. |
| Which of the following will not cause a decrease in the SpO2 reading? Pneumonia Asthma Emphysema Gastritis | Gastritis |
| The purpose of measuring the pulse rate includes all of the following except: | To determine if the patient is developing hypertension |
| For an artery to be considered as a pulse site, it must be Located in a closed cavity. Located away from major nerves and blood vessels. Located over a firm tissue such as bone. Located close to the heart. | Located over a firm tissue such as bone. |
| If a patient’s blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg, the patient’s pulse pressure would be 45. 85. 130. 215. | 45. |
| Which of the following tests might be ordered for a patient with a dysrhythmia? MRI Heart catheterization Electrocardiogram Blood gas analysis | Electrocardiogram |
| What is the normal range for the resting pulse rate of an adult? 60–100 beats/min 60–80 beats/min 70–90 beats/min 80–100 beats/min | 60–100 beats/min |
| The oxygen saturation level of a healthy individual is 75–85%. 85–90%. 90–95%. 95–99%. | 95–99%. |
| The rectal site should not be used to take the temperature of A newborn. An unconscious patient. An infant. A mouth-breathing patient. | A newborn. |
| What term is used to describe the point of lesser pressure on the arterial walls when assessing blood pressure? Systolic pressure Diastolic pressure Pulse pressure Hypotension | Diastolic pressure |
| The control center for involuntary respiration is the Medulla. Thalamus. Hypothalamus. Olfactory lobe. | Medulla. |
| How far should the probe be inserted when measuring the rectal temperature of an infant? 1/2 inch 5/8 inch 1 inch 1 1/2 inches | 1/2 inch |
| Which of the following may occur if the sensor lens of a tympanic membrane thermometer is dirty? The lens may break. The reading may be falsely low. The tympanic membrane may become irritated. The reading may be falsely high. | The reading may be falsely low. |
| The normal respiratory rate of an adult ranges from 8–16 respirations per minute. 10–18 respirations per minute. 12–20 respirations per minute. 16–22 respirations per minute. | 12–20 respirations per minute. |
| Before taking body temperature with an electronic thermometer, what must happen? | The probe must be covered with a disposable cover. |
| The apical pulse site is located | In the fifth intercostal space, at the junction of the left midclavicular line. |
| A temperature of 95.6° F is classified as Hyperpyrexia. Pyrexia. Hypothermia. Low-grade fever. | Hypothermia. |
| The lens of a tympanic membrane thermometer should be cleaned with A mild detergent. An abrasive cleanser. An antiseptic wipe. A soft tissue. | An antiseptic wipe. |
| If an axillary temperature of 100° F was taken orally, it would register as 98° F. 99° F. 100° F. 101° F. | 101° F. |
| Blood pressure is measured in Units. Degrees. Beats/min. Millimeters of mercury. | Millimeters of mercury. |
| Which of the following increases body temperature? Crying Vigorous physical exercise Pregnancy Hot weather All of these | All of these |
| The axilla is recommended as the preferred site for taking the temperature of Newborns and infants. Toddlers and preschoolers. Adults. Elderly patients. | Toddlers and preschoolers. |
| Which of the following should not be used as a probe placement site for pulse oximetry? Big toe Earlobe Finger of an arm to which an automatic blood pressure cuff is applied Index finger | Finger of an arm to which an automatic blood pressure cuff is applied |
| What term is used to describe an irregularity in the heart’s rhythm? Fibrillation Ectopic beat Bradycardia Dysrhythmia | Dysrhythmia |
| Which of the following can temporarily increase the blood pressure? Pain A full bladder Physical exercise Anger and fear All of these | All of these |
| Why is the temporal artery a good site for measuring body temperature? It is easily accessible. It has a constant, steady flow of blood. It is located close to the surface of the skin. All of these. | All of these. |
| What may occur if a blood pressure cuff is too small? The reading may be falsely low. The patient may experience discomfort. The cuff may slip down on the patient’s arm. The reading may be falsely high. | The reading may be falsely high. |
| What is the name given to the type of fever in which a wide range of temperature fluctuations occurs, all of which are above normal? Crisis Remittent Intermittent Continuous | Remittent |
| How much time should the patient be given to identify the number on each Ishihara color plate? 3 seconds 10 seconds 1 minute As long as is needed | 3 seconds |
| An optometrist performs all of the following except: Diagnoses and treatment of eye disorders Prescribing of corrective lenses Measurement of visual acuity Eye surgery | Eye surgery |
| Which of the following transmits light rays to the brain to be interpreted? Retina Suspensory ligaments Optic nerve Aqueous humor | Optic nerve |
| What is the name of the colored part of the eye? Sclera Iris Pupil Choroid | Iris |
| When not in use, Ishihara color plates must be protected from High humidity. Light. Cold temperatures. Loud music. | Light. |
| Which of the following is a condition in which there a decrease in the elasticity of the lens as a result of the aging process? Glaucoma Presbyopia Hyperopia Cataracts | Presbyopia |
| What is the most common color vision defect? Acquired color vision defects Total color blindness Congenital color vision defects Green-blue color vision defect | Congenital color vision defects |
| How long is the external auditory canal? 1/2 inch 1 inch 1 1/2 inch 2 inches | 1 inch |
| Which of the following can result in conductive hearing loss? Serous otitis media Foreign body in the ear Impacted cerumen Polyps All of these. | All of these. |
| Impacted cerumen can be softened by Irrigating the ear with an antiseptic solution. Inserting a moistened cotton-tipped applicator into the ear. Instilling several drops of warm mineral oil into the ear. Placing a heating pad next to the ear. | Instilling several drops of warm mineral oil into the ear. |
| The function of the ear auricle is to Transmit sound waves to the brain. Maintain balance and equilibrium. Receive and collect sound waves. Prevent the entrance of microorganisms into the ear. | Receive and collect sound waves. |
| The conjunctiva Lines the retina. Covers the front of the eye, including the cornea. Covers the iris. Covers the front of the eye, except for the cornea. | Covers the front of the eye, except for the cornea. |
| An eye instillation may be performed to Remove a foreign object from the eye. Remove eye drainage. Flush out a harmful chemical. Treat an eye infection. All of these. | Treat an eye infection. |
| Which of the following is the most specific type of hearing test? Tuning fork test Audiometry Whisper test Otoscopy | Audiometry |
| The Snellen eye chart is used to Assess distance visual acuity. Diagnose conjunctivitis. Assess peripheral vision. Diagnose glaucoma. All of these. | Assess distance visual acuity. |
| The external auditory canal of an adult is straightened by Pulling outward on the ear auricle. Pulling the ear upward and backward. Asking the patient to look up. Pulling the ear downward and backward. | Pulling the ear upward and backward. |
| What is the function of vitreous humor? To lubricate the eyes To maintain the shape of the eyeball To protect the eye from trauma To absorb stray light rays | To maintain the shape of the eyeball |
| A near visual acuity test is used to detect which of the following conditions? Glaucoma Cataracts Hyperopia and presbyopia Detachment of the retina | Hyperopia and presbyopia |
| The range of frequencies for normal speech is 80–120 db. 512–1,024 Hz. 300–4,000 Hz. 6,000–8,000 Hz. | 300–4,000 Hz. |
| A patient has a distance visual acuity of 20/40 in the left eye. At what distance would a person with normal visual acuity be able to read this line? 20 feet 30 feet 40 feet 60 feet | 40 feet |
| Which of the following is located in the middle ear? Semicircular canals Cochlea Malleus, incus, and stapes Tympanic membrane | Malleus, incus, and stapes |
| When performing an eye irrigation, the solution should be released At the outer canthus. Toward the upper eyelid. Directly onto the cornea. At the inner canthus. | At the inner canthus. |
| Which of the following is an example of a tuning fork test? Decibel test Whisper test Weber test Piano test | Weber test |
| Which of the following structures functions in maintaining equilibrium? Cochlea Auditory nerve Ear ossicles Semicircular canals | Semicircular canals |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of an error of refraction? | The light rays are not adequately focused on the retina. The light rays are not being bent properly. Caused by a defect in the shape of the eyeball. Can be improved with corrective lenses. |
| During an ear irrigation, which of the following techniques is performed to prevent injury to the tympanic membrane? | Injecting the irrigating solution toward the roof of the ear canal |
| Which of the following represents an error in Snellen eye testing technique? | Asking the patient to close the eye not being tested |
| A person who cannot see objects at a reading or working distance has a condition known as Myopia. Strabismus. Cataracts. Hyperopia. | Hyperopia. |
| The outer layer of the eye, composed of tough, white, fibrous connective tissue, is the Sclera. Cornea. Choroid. Conjunctiva. | Sclera. |
| The function of cerumen is to Inhibit the growth of pathogens. Lubricate and protect the ear canal. Facilitate the transmission of sound waves. Stabilize air pressure in the middle ear. All of these. | Lubricate and protect the ear canal. |
| The transparent part of the eye that covers the pupil and the iris is the Sclera. Cornea. Choroid. Lens. | Cornea. |
| Which of the following permits the entrance of light rays into the eye? Ciliary body Retina Iris Pupil | Pupil |
| The Snellen Big E chart is used for assessing distance visual acuity in Elderly individuals. Individuals with cataracts. Preschoolers. School-age children. | Preschoolers. |
| An ear instillation may be performed to Apply heat to the ear. Remove discharge from the ear. Remove cerumen. Treat an ear infection. All of these. | Treat an ear infection. |
| A person who cannot see objects at a distance has a condition known as Hyperopia. Presbyopia. Myopia. Amblyopia. | Myopia. |
| After performing an ear instillation, the patient is instructed to lie on the unaffected side to | Allow complete distribution of the medication. |
| A Snellen eye test is conducted at a distance of 30 inches. 10 feet. 20 feet. 40 feet. | 20 feet. |
| What is the function of the lens of the eye? To permit the entrance of light rays into the eye To control the size of the pupil To focus light rays on the retina To transmit light rays to the brain | To focus light rays on the retina |
| Which of the following can result in sensorineural hearing loss? Impacted cerumen Intense noise exposure Otitis media Otosclerosis All of these | Intense noise exposure |
| The structure located at the end of the external auditory canal that functions in receiving and transmitting sound waves is the External auditory meatus. Incus. Cochlea. Tympanic membrane. | Tympanic membrane. |
| Which of the following individuals interprets and fills ophthalmic prescriptions such as a prescription for eyeglasses? Optician Optometrist Oculist Orthopedist | Optician |
| Which of the following refers to a gradual loss of hearing as an adult ages? Otosclerosis Mastoiditis Presbycusis Tinnitus | Presbycusis |
| Tympanometry is most useful in diagnosing patients with Serous otitis media. Conductive hearing loss. Sensorineural hearing loss. Auditory nerve damage. | Serous otitis media. |
| A patient has a distance visual acuity of 20/15 in the right eye. At what distance would a person with normal acuity be able to read this line? 10 feet 15 feet 20 feet 25 feet | 15 feet |
| Visual acuity refers to Sharpness of vision. The ability to distinguish colors. An error of refraction. A weakness in muscle tone of the eye. | Sharpness of vision. |
| The eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the Nasopharynx. Inner ear. Pharynx. Cochlea. | Nasopharynx. |
| Near visual acuity testing is conducted with the patient holding the test card At a distance of 14–16 inches At a distance of 30 inches Parallel to the patient’s line of vision In a vertical position for 10 seconds | At a distance of 14–16 inches |
| Which of the following represents an error in the eye instillation technique? | Instilling drops onto the center of the cornea |
| An electrocardiogram is a recording of the Electrical activity of the heart. Opening and closing of the valves of the heart. Force of the blood against the walls of the blood vessels. Contraction and relaxation of the ventricles. | Electrical activity of the heart. |
| What term is used to refer to an electrocardiogram result that is within normal limits? Sinus arrhythmia Baseline recording Normal sinus rhythm WNL | Normal sinus rhythm |
| The purpose of pulmonary function testing is to Dilate the bronchial tubes to increase airflow. Remove mucus from the bronchial tubes. Detect cardiac dysrhythmias. Assess lung functioning. | Assess lung functioning. |
| Which of the following artifacts appears as small, straight, spiked lines that are consistent in nature? Muscle artifacts Wandering baseline artifacts 60-cycle interference artifacts Interrupted baseline artifacts | 60-cycle interference artifacts |
| What is the name of the structure in the heart that distributes the electrical impulse to the ventricles? Epicardium Endocardium Bundle of His Purkinje fibers | Purkinje fibers |
| Peak flow measurements can be used for all of the following except: | To determine if lung damage has occurred |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PVST)? Rapid fluttering of the atrium Sudden onset and termination of symptoms Increase in heart rate of the patient Patient weakness and acute apprehension | Rapid fluttering of the atrium |
| Chest lead V2 is located at the | Fourth intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum. |
| Leads 1, 2, and 3 are the Bipolar leads. Chest leads. Augmented leads. Precordial leads. | Bipolar leads. |
| Where is chest lead V5 located? | At the horizontal level of V4 at the left anterior axillary line |
| Which of the following may cause a 60-cycle interference artifact? Patient movement Lead wires not following body contour A broken patient cable Parkinson’s disease | Lead wires not following body contour |
| The purpose of a peak flow meter is to Diagnose asthma. Prevent an asthma attack. Determine how well a patient’s asthma is being controlled. Deliver asthma medication to the lungs. | Determine how well a patient’s asthma is being controlled. |
| Touching or moving electrodes during the Holter monitoring period may cause Malfunctioning of the recorder. Drying out of the electrolyte. A dysrhythmia. Artifacts. All of these. | Artifacts. |
| How high is the standardization mark when the electrocardiograph is properly standardized? 5 mm 10 mm 15 mm 20 mm | 10 mm |
| What is the name given to the portion of the ECG between two waves? Segment Baseline Interval Polarization line | Segment |
| Holter monitor electrocardiography is used to | Assess the rate and rhythm of the heart during daily activities. Evaluate patients with unexplained chest pain. Detect cardiac dysrhythmias that are intermittent in nature. Assess the effectiveness of a pacemaker. |
| The aVR, aVL, and aVF are known as the Standard leads. Chest leads. Augmented leads. Bipolar leads. | Augmented leads. |
| Which of the following is included in an asthma action plan? Asthma triggers that should be avoided Instructions for taking asthma medication Guidelines for determining the severity of an asthma attack What to do during an asthma attack All of these. | All of these. |
| Which of the following represents an error in technique when running an electrocardiogram? | Positioning the machine so that the power cord runs under the patient table |
| A device placed on the skin that picks up electrical impulses released by the heart is known as A lead wire. An amplifier. An electrode. An electrolyte. | An electrode. |
| All of the following can lead to inaccurate peak flow measurements except: | Not changing the disposable mouthpiece between patients |
| All of the following are examples of pulmonary function tests except: Coronary angiography Diffusion capacity Arterial blood gas studies Pulse oximetry | Coronary angiography |
| All of the following may require home oxygen therapy except: COPD Congestive heart failure Hepatitis Cystic fibrosis | Hepatitis |
| A disposable electrode is held in place by A rubber strap. Alligator clip. An adhesive backing on the electrode. Superglue. | An adhesive backing on the electrode. |
| What information is included on a prescription for home oxygen therapy? Amount of oxygen needed by the patient Duration of oxygen needed by the patient Recommended oxygen delivery system Administration device All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of quick-relief asthma medication? Gradually opens up the airways Usually taken every day Taken when the patient is experiencing asthma symptoms Helps to relieve bronchial inflammation All of these | Taken when the patient is experiencing asthma symptoms |
| Which of the following devices measures how much air is exhaled by the lungs and how fast it is exhaled? Tympanogram Spirometer Pulse oximeter Blood gas analyzer | Spirometer |
| What happens to the bronchial tubes during an asthma attack? They dilate and go into a spasm. They become hard and stiff. They become hyposensitive to allergens. They constrict, swell, and become clogged with mucus. | They constrict, swell, and become clogged with mucus. |
| What is the purpose of calibrating the spirometer? To prevent abnormal test results To prevent artifacts To make it easier for the patient to perform the breathing maneuvers To ensure accurate and valid test results | To ensure accurate and valid test results |
| What is the name of the knot of modified myocardium that initiates and regulates the heartbeat? Medulla AV node SA node Bundle branches | SA node |
| The left atrium receives Deoxygenated blood from the body. Oxygenated blood from the left ventricle. Oxygenated blood from the lungs. Deoxygenated blood from the lungs. | Oxygenated blood from the lungs. |
| All of the following result in muscle artifacts except: Patient discomfort An apprehensive patient Electrodes that have come loose Patient coughing or talking | Electrodes that have come loose |
| Which of the following are guidelines for wearing a Holter monitor? Do not consume alcohol or caffeinated beverages. Limit physical activity. Do not use a wool blanket for sleeping. Do not shower, bathe, or swim. All of these | Do not shower, bathe, or swim. |
| What is a cardiac cycle? Contraction of the atria One complete heartbeat Relaxation of the entire heart Contraction of the ventricles | One complete heartbeat |
| All of the following are characteristics of a low range peak flow meter except: Can be purchased OTC Is used by adults Used to measure a breathing maneuver Ranges from 0 to 300 | Is used by adults |
| Which of the following are asthma triggers? House dust Tobacco smoke Animal dander Vigorous physical exercise All of these | All of these |
| Which of the following is true regarding PVCs? | They are common with mitral valve prolapse. They are one of the most common rhythm disturbances. A wide and distorted QRS complex is present. They may be caused by anxiety, smoking, and caffeine. |
| All of the following are characteristics of asthma except: | Primarily affects the alveolar ducts and alveoli of the lungs |
| All of the following are characteristics of a nasal cannula except: | Used for patients who need a high flow of oxygen |
| Which chamber pumps the blood from the heart and into the aorta for distribution to all parts of the body? Right atrium Left atrium Right ventricle Left ventricle | Left ventricle |
| How many leads are there on a standard electrocardiogram? 5 7 12 15 | 12 |
| Electrocardiography is used to Detect a dysrhythmia. Evaluate chest pain or shortness of breath. Detect the presence of cardiac ischemia. Determine the presence of hypertrophy of the heart. All of these. | All of these. |
| Which of the following oxygen delivery systems separates oxygen from the air for use by the patient? Compressed oxygen gas Liquid oxygen Oxygen concentrator Oxygen compressor | Oxygen concentrator |
| All of the following are guidelines for measuring peak flow rate except: | Calculate an average of three acceptable breathing maneuvers. |
| All of the following are electrode guidelines except: Check the expiration date on the electrode pouch before use After use, reseal the electrode pouch and place it in a plastic bag Do not use a dried out electrode Store electrodes in the refrigerator | Store electrodes in the refrigerator |
| Which of the following may occur when the body cannot maintain an adequate oxygen level? Death of cells Organ failure Body system failure Death All of these | All of these |
| Oxygen combines with glucose in the cells of the body to produce Enzymes. Glycogen. Energy. Insulin. | Energy. |
| All of the following are patient preparation guidelines for an ECG except: | Do not engage in vigorous physical activity for 12 hours before the ECG. |
| Which of the following conditions can cause the ECG tracing to exhibit a larger than normal Q wave and an elevated S-T segment? Congestive heart failure Myocardial infarction Hypertrophy of the heart Coronary artery disease | Myocardial infarction |
| What are artifacts? The marking code recorded by the ECG to indicate which lead is being run Additional electrical activity picked up by the electrocardiograph A type of standardization mark Rare objects uncovered in ancient Peru | Additional electrical activity picked up by the electrocardiograph |
| All of the following are symptoms of a low oxygen level in the body except: Cyanosis of the lips and fingernails Erythema and hives Drowsiness and confusion Difficult or irregular breathing | Erythema and hives |
| Which of the following should be recorded in the Holter monitor diary notebook? Meals Emotional states Bowel movements Sleep periods All of these | All of these |
| Blood enters the right atrium from the Pulmonary artery. Superior and inferior venae cavae. Pulmonary veins. Aorta. | Superior and inferior venae cavae. |
| The chest leads record the heart’s voltage from Front to back. Side to side. At a diagonal. Top to bottom. | Front to back. |
| What structure in the heart delays the electrical impulse momentarily to allow for complete contraction of the atria and filling of the ventricles with blood from the atria? Bundle of His AV node SA node Cuspid valves | AV node |
| Which of the following is considered the most serious cardiac dysrhythmia? Atrial flutter Ventricular tachycardia Atrial fibrillation Ventricular fibrillation | Ventricular fibrillation |
| All of the following are guidelines for oxygen usage except: Store in a clean, dry, well-ventilated room. Store oxygen cylinders in an upright position. Never smoke while using oxygen. Use at least 50 feet of tubing with the oxygen delivery system. | Use at least 50 feet of tubing with the oxygen delivery system. |
| All of the following are indications for spirometry except: A patient complaining of dyspnea A patient with emphysema A patient who has worked in the coal mines for 20 years A patient with an upper respiratory infection | A patient with an upper respiratory infection |
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Diamond87