Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Tsigereda Nadew
Anatomy week 6 - 14
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which type of receptor detects tissue damage? | Nociceptor (pain receptor) |
| What type of receptor detects body position and movement? | Proprioceptor |
| Where are proprioceptors located? | In muscles, tendons, and joints (muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs) |
| Name two examples of touch receptors. | Meissner’s corpuscles (light touch) and Pacinian corpuscles (deep pressure) |
| Which type of receptor is most numerous in the fingertips? | Mechanoreceptors (especially tactile corpuscles) |
| Why are the fingertips more sensitive than the back? | They have a higher density of sensory receptors. |
| List the three layers (tunics) of the eye. | Outer: Sclera and Cornea Middle: Choroid, Ciliary Body, Iris Inner: Retina |
| Which photoreceptors detect color? | Cones |
| What is the function of the iris? | Controls the size of the pupil and regulates the amount of light entering the eye. |
| What are the auditory ossicles? | Malleus, Incus, and Stapes — transmit vibrations to the inner ear |
| Which structure in the inner ear is responsible for hearing? | Cochlea (contains the organ of Corti) |
| Which structures detect balance and equilibrium? | Vestibule (utricle and saccule) and Semicircular canals |
| What type of receptors detect movement and position in the inner ear? | Mechanoreceptors (hair cells) |
| Which gland is known as the “master gland”? | Pituitary gland |
| Which gland sits on top of the kidneys? | Adrenal glands |
| What hormones are secreted by the adrenal medulla? | Epinephrine and Norepinephrine |
| Which gland produces melatonin? | Pineal gland |
| Why is the thymus gland larger in children? | It is active in immune system development (T-cell maturation). |
| Give one example each of a steroid and nonsteroid hormone. | Steroid: Cortisol Nonsteroid: Insulin |
| Name the four types of cells in the pancreatic islets. | Alpha, Beta, Delta, and PP (F) cells |
| What hormone do alpha cells secrete, and what does it do? | Glucagon — raises blood glucose levels. |
| What hormone do beta cells secrete, and what does it do? | Insulin — lowers blood glucose levels. |
| What is the function of somatostatin (from delta cells)? | Inhibits secretion of insulin and glucagon; regulates digestion. |
| Which pancreatic hormone helps regulate digestive activity? | Pancreatic polypeptide (from PP/F cells). |
| What type of feedback mechanism controls blood glucose levels? | Negative feedback. |
| A patient’s blood sugar is very high. Which pancreatic cells are likely malfunctioning? | Beta cells (not enough insulin) |
| Which hormone increases during long-term stress? | Cortisol (from adrenal cortex). |
| If the parathyroid glands are accidentally removed, what condition could result? | Hypocalcemia (low blood calcium). |
| Describe the shape of a red blood cell and explain why it helps function. | Biconcave disc → increases surface area for gas exchange & flexibility. |
| Why do mature RBCs lack nuclei and mitochondria? | To maximize space for hemoglobin and prevent O₂ use by the cell. |
| List the five types of WBCs and classify them. | Granulocytes: Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils Agranulocytes: Lymphocytes, Monocytes |
| Which WBC releases histamine and heparin? | Basophil. |
| Where is the heart located? | In the mediastinum of the thoracic cavity, behind sternum, above diaphragm. |
| Name the three layers of the heart wall. | Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium. |
| What is the function of the pericardium? | Protects and anchors the heart; reduces friction. |
| Which side of the heart pumps to the lungs? | Right side. |
| What prevents backflow between right atrium and ventricle? | Tricuspid valve. |
| What prevents backflow from pulmonary trunk to right ventricle? | Pulmonary semilunar valve. |
| Which chamber has the thickest wall and why? | Left ventricle – pumps blood to entire body. |
| Trace blood flow through the heart. | Vena cava → RA → tricuspid → RV → pulmonary valve → lungs → LA → mitral → LV → aortic valve → aorta → body. |
| Which arteries supply the heart muscle? | Right and left coronary arteries (LAD, circumflex, marginal). |
| Which vein collects most venous blood from myocardium? | Great cardiac vein. |
| What is the function of the foramen ovale? | Allows blood to flow from right atrium to left atrium. |
| What is the ductus arteriosus? | Connects pulmonary trunk to aorta, bypassing lungs |
| What happens to these shunts after birth? | They close and become ligaments (fossa ovalis, ligamentum arteriosum). |
| Which fetal vessel carries oxygenated blood from the placenta? | Umbilical vein |
| What are the three main functions of the lymphatic system? | Returns excess interstitial fluid to blood, transports dietary lipids, and provides immune defense. |
| What are the primary lymphatic organs and their functions? | Bone marrow (produces and matures B cells) and thymus (matures T cells). |
| What are the secondary lymphatic organs? | Lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, Peyer’s patches, and MALT. |
| Where are major lymph node clusters located? | Cervical (neck), axillary (armpit), and inguinal (groin) regions |
| How do lymphatic vessels differ from veins? | Lymphatics are blind-ended, carry lymph (not blood), have thinner walls, and rely on muscle movement not the heart to move fluid. |
| What is lymph made of? | Interstitial fluid, proteins, lipids, and lymphocytes. |
| Name the major immune cells and their roles. | B cells: Produce antibodies T cells: Coordinate and kill infected cells NK cells: Destroy abnormal cells Macrophages/Dendritic cells: Engulf and present antigens |
| Which immune defenses are adaptive? | Humoral (B-cell) and cell-mediated (T-cell) immunity. |
| What are the five classes of immunoglobulins? | IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, and IgE. |
| Which immunoglobulin is most abundant and crosses the placenta? | IgG. |
| Which immunoglobulin appears first in an infection? | IgM |
| Which immunoglobulin protects mucosal surfaces? | IgA. |
| Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergic reactions? | IgE. |
| Which immunoglobulin serves as a B-cell receptor? | IgD. |
| What is humoral immunity? | Immunity mediated by antibodies produced by B cells. |
| What is cell-mediated immunity? | Immunity involving T cells that destroy infected or abnormal cells |
| What is active immunity? | The body produces its own antibodies after infection or vaccination. |
| What is passive immunity? | Antibodies are transferred from another source (e.g., mother to baby, serum). |
| What is the role of the spleen in immunity? | Filters blood, removes old red blood cells, and activates lymphocytes. |
| What organs make up the respiratory system? | Upper respiratory tract: Nose, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, and pharynx Lower respiratory tract: Larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli Lungs: Contain the bronchial tree and alveoli for gas exchange |
| What is the main function of the nasal conchae? | Increase surface area to warm and humidify air |
| Which region of the pharynx serves as a passage for both food and air? | Oropharynx Laryngopharynx |
| Which cartilage prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing? | Epiglottis |
| correctly list the air pathway from the trachea to the alveoli? | Trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli |
| The trachea remains open because of | C-shaped rings of cartilage |
| The right lung differs from the left lung in that it: | Is larger and has three lobes |
| the primary muscle of inspiration? | Diaphragm |
| In what way does the thoracic cavity change during inspiration? | Pressure decreases and volume increases |
| n COPD, which process is most impaired? | Gas exchange in alveoli |
| Which cells produce surfactant in the alveoli? | Type II alveolar cells |
| What structure separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity? | Diaphragm |
| Week 13 – Digestive System | |
| Which process involves muscular contractions that move food through the GI tract? | Peristalsis |
| What are the four layers of the GI tract wall? | Mucosa: Inner lining; secretes mucus, enzymes, hormones; absorbs nutrients Submucosa: Connective tissue layer containing blood vessels, nerves, glands Muscularis externa: Smooth muscle for peristalsis and segmentation Serosa (or Adventitia): Outer |
| Which GI layer contains the nerves that control motility and secretion? | Submucosa |
| Which modification increases surface area for nutrient absorption? | Villi and microvilli |
| What prevents backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus? | Lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincter |
| Which stomach cell secretes hydrochloric acid | Parietal cell |
| Which division of the small intestine receives bile and pancreatic juice? | Duodenum |
| Which section of the large intestine is attached to the appendix? | Cecum |
| What is the peritoneum | Serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity and covering organs |
| week 14 Urinary System | |
| The kidneys are located in which position relative to the peritoneum? | Retroperitoneal |
| The functional unit of the kidney is the: | Nephron |
| Which process occurs first in urine formation? | Glomerular filtration |
| Urine flows from the renal papilla into the | Minor calyx |
| The ureters transport urine by: | Peristaltic contractions and gravity |
| The detrusor muscle is found in the | Urinary bladder |
| Which structure carries urine out of the body? | Urethra |
| The internal urethral sphincter is controlled by: | Involuntary (smooth) muscle |
| True or False The right kidney is positioned slightly higher than the left. | False – The right kidney is lower due to the liver. |
| The renal pelvis drains urine directly into the urethra. . | False – It drains into the ureter |
| Trace the path of urine from its formation to its elimination. | Nephron → Collecting ducts → Renal papilla → Minor calyx → Major calyx → Renal pelvis → Ureter → Urinary bladder → Urethra → External urethral orifice |
| List the four major organs of the urinary system and their main functions. | Kidneys – Filter blood and form urine. Ureters – Transport urine to the bladder. Urinary bladder – Store urine. Urethra – Expel urine from the body. |
| Name two hormones that influence kidney function and describe their effects. | Aldosterone: Increases sodium and water reabsorption, raising blood pressure. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH): Increases water reabsorption in the collecting ducts, reducing urine volume. |
| week 15 | |
| Which of the following is an essential organ of the male reproductive system? A. Epididymis B. Penis C. Testes D. Seminal vesicle | Testes |
| The main function of the testes is to: | Produce sperm and testosterone |
| The scrotum is important because it: | Keeps the testes at a temperature suitable for sperm production |
| Which structure is the site of fertilization? | Uterine (Fallopian) tube |
| The uterus functions to: | Serve as the site for embryo implantation and fetal development |
| The gland that secretes a milky, alkaline fluid that activates sperm is the | Prostate gland |
| the female external genitalia are collectively referred to as the | Vulva |
| Stores and matures sperm | Epididymis |
| Transports sperm from epididymis to ejaculatory duct | Vas deferens |
| Produces nourishing fluid for sperm | Seminal vesicle |
| secrete mucus to lubricate the urethra | bulbourethral glands |
| week 6 | |
| What are the origin and insertion of the biceps brachii? | scapula (coracoid process & supraglenoid tubercle); Insertion: radial tuberosity |
| What is the primary action of the biceps brachii? | Forearm flexion and supination. |
| What are the attachments of the triceps brachii? | Origin: scapula (long head) and humerus (lateral & medial heads); Insertion: olecranon of ulna |
| What is the function of the triceps brachii? | Forearm extension. |
| What are the attachments of the deltoid muscle? | Origin: clavicle & scapula; Insertion: deltoid tuberosity of humerus. |
| What movement does the deltoid produce? | Arm abduction. |
| Main action of latissimus dorsi? | Arm extension, adduction, internal rotation |
| Primary action of gluteus maximus? | Hip extension. |
| Function of quadriceps? | Knee extension. |
| Attachments of hamstrings? | Origin: ischial tuberosity; Insertion: tibia and fibula |
| Function of hamstrings? | Knee flexion; hip extension |
| Which appendicular muscle stabilizes the shoulder joint? | Rotator cuff muscles (e.g., supraspinatus). |
| Which muscles are primary posture stabilizers? | Erector spinae, abdominal muscles, gluteal, and deep neck flexor |
| How does posture influence lung efficiency? | Poor posture compresses the thoracic cavity, reducing lung expansion. |
| What is the epimysium? | The connective tissue layer surrounding the entire muscle. |
| What is the perimysium? | Connective tissue surrounding bundles of muscle fibers (fascicles) |
| What is the endomysium? | The thin connective tissue around each individual muscle fiber. |
| What do these connective layers form at the end of the muscle? | Tendons. |
| Name three types of fascicle (fiber) arrangement. | Parallel, convergent, pennate. |
| How do fiber arrangements affect function? | Parallel = greater range of motion; pennate = greater strength. |
| What are axial muscles? | Muscles of the head, neck, trunk, and spine |
| Action of sternocleidomastoid? | Neck flexion and rotation. |
| What is the main action of the erector spinae group? | Extends and stabilizes the spine |
| What is the function of the diaphragm? | Primary muscle of inspiration. |
| What do the external intercostals do? | Elevate ribs during inhalation. |
| What do the internal intercostals do? | Depress ribs during forced exhalation. |
| week 7 | |
| What is the sensory function of the nervous system? | Detects internal and external stimuli and sends information to the CNS. (Afferent (sensory) neurons) |
| What is the motor function of the nervous system? | Sends commands from CNS to muscles and glands. (Efferent (motor) neurons) |
| What are the two structural divisions of the nervous system? | CNS and PNS |
| What does the somatic nervous system control? | Voluntary skeletal muscle functions. |
| What does the autonomic nervous system control? | Involuntary actions (smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands) |
| Which subdivision prepares the body for “fight or flight”? | Sympathetic division. |
| Which subdivision supports “rest and digest”? | Parasympathetic division. |
| What is the enteric nervous system? | A network controlling digestive tract function. |
| Which systems are part of the functional PNS? | Somatic, autonomic, and enteric nervous systems. |
| What are neuroglia? | Supportive, protective, and nourishing cells for neurons. |
| What is the function of astrocytes? | Maintain the blood–brain barrier, support neurons, and form scar tissue. |
| What do oligodendrocytes do? | Form myelin sheaths in the CNS. |
| What is the role of microglia? | Act as phagocytes; remove debris and pathogens. |
| What do ependymal cells do? | Line ventricles, produce, and circulate cerebrospinal fluid. |
| Which glial cell forms myelin in the PNS? | Schwann cells. |
| What is another function of Schwann cells besides myelination? | Assist in PNS nerve regeneration. |
| Which neuroglial cells are found ONLY in the PNS? | Schwann cells and satellite cells (support cell bodies) |
| What is a multipolar neuron? | A neuron with many dendrites and one axon; most common type. |
| Where are bipolar neurons found? | Special senses (retina, olfactory epithelium, inner ear). |
| What is a reflex arc? | A rapid, automatic response pathway. |
| What does ipsilateral mean? | The reflex response occurs on the same side of the body as the stimulus. |
| Bundles of axons in the PNS | nerves |
| What are tracts? | Bundles of axons in the CNS. |
| What is white matter? | Myelinated axons; responsible for fast conduction. |
| What is gray matter? | Neuron cell bodies, dendrites, and unmyelinated fibers; for processing. |
| Which cells clean up debris after axonal injury? | Macrophages and Schwann cells. |
| What forms the regeneration tube in the PNS? | Schwann cells |
| What is the function of a regeneration tube? | Guides regrowing axons back to their target. |
| What major nervous system disorder affects CNS myelin? | Multiple sclerosis (destroys oligodendrocytes). |
| What disorder damages PNS myelin? | Guillain–Barré syndrome (affects Schwann cells). |
| week 8 | |
| What are the three layers of the meninges (superficial to deep)? | Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater. |
| What is the arachnoid mater? | Middle, web-like layer; contains CSF in the subarachnoid space. |
| Which meningeal layer contains blood vessels that nourish the CNS? | Pia mater |
| Where is the spinal cord located? | Within the vertebral canal, extending from foramen magnum to L1–L2. |
| What type of matter is found in the center of the spinal cord? | Gray matter (shaped like a butterfly or “H”). |
| What surrounds gray matter in the spinal cord? | White matter containing myelinated tracts. |
| How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? | 31 pairs |
| What does the medulla control? . | Vital functions (breathing, heart rate, blood pressure) |
| What does the midbrain regulate? | Reflexes related to vision, hearing, and movement. |
| What structures form the diencephalon? . | Thalamus, hypothalamus, pineal gland |
| What is the cerebellar cortex composed of? | Gray matter. |
| Damage to the cerebellum causes what type of problem? | Ataxia (loss of coordination). |
| What structure connects the two cerebral hemispheres? | Corpus callosum |
| What two roots form a spinal nerve? | Dorsal root (sensory) and ventral root (motor). |
| Give an example of a nerve from the cervical plexus. | Phrenic nerve (controls diaphragm). |
| Give an example of a nerve from the brachial plexus. | Radial, ulnar, or median nerve. |
| Give an example of a nerve from the lumbar or sacral plexus. | Femoral (lumbar), sciatic (sacral). |
| Which ANS division has short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers? | Sympathetic |
| Which ANS division has long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers? | Parasympathetic. |
| Where do sympathetic nerves originate? | Thoracolumbar region (T1–L2). |
| Where do parasympathetic nerves originate? | Craniosacral region (cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X + sacral nerves) |
| What are the main ANS neurotransmitters? | Acetylcholine (ACh) and norepinephrine (NE). |
| What are the major ANS receptor types and where are they found? | Adrenergic receptors (NE): Alpha & beta receptors on sympathetic target organs Cholinergic receptors (ACh): Nicotinic (ganglia), muscarinic (parasympathetic organs |
Created by:
user-1989590