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Physio Weeks 1-6

QuestionAnswer
Extrinsic control usually involves which mode of regulation? Nervous and endocrine
To accomplish self-regulation, a highly complex and integrated communication control system or network is required. This type of network is called a(n) Feedback control loop
The concept that information may flow ahead to another process to trigger a change in anticipation of an event that will follow is called Feed forward
The normal reading or range is called the Set point
What term describes a signal traveling toward a particular center or point of reference? Afferent
Processes for maintaining or restoring homeostasis are known as Homeostatic control mechanisms
Events that lead to an immune response to an infection or the formation of a blood clot are examples of Positive feedback
The body naturally changes some set points to different values at different times of the day. These daily cyles are called Circadian circles
The impact of effector activity on sensors may be positive or negative. Therefore, homeostatic control mechanisms are categorized as Organs that are directly influenced by physiological variables or mechanisms.
Local control or _____, intrinsic mechanisms often make use of chemical signals. Autoregulation
Because negative feedback control systems oppose changes that are opposite in direction to the initial disturbance, they are Slowed or maintained in the homeostatic range.
The relatively constant state maintained by the body is known as Homeostasis
Which level of control operates at the cell level, often using genes and enzymes to regulate cell function? Intracellular regulation
Which of the following is a basic component of every feedback control loop? Sensor mechanism, integrating center, effector, feedback (All of the above)
Many complex processes of the body are coordinated at many levels. These include Intracellular, intrinsic, extrinsic (all of the above)
Effectors can be described as Organs that directly influence controlled physiological variables.
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: The body trying to maintain homeostasis. A negative-feedback mechanism. (A & C)
The term that literally means self-immunity is: Autoimmunity
Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? Prion
Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? Tapeworms
Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? Reproductive
The body’s thermostat is located in the: Hypothalamus
Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? Transmitter
Negative-feedback control systems: Oppose a change
Negative-feedback mechanisms: Minimize changes in blood glucose levels, maintain homeostasis, are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature. (all of the above)
Pathogenesis can be defined as: The course of disease development.
The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback. Positive
Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. Occurrence, distribution, transmission (All of the above)
Homeostasis can best be described as: A state of relative constancy.
Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: Viruses
Intrinsic control: Is sometimes called autoregulation
Positive-feedback control systems: Accelerate a change
Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? Environment, stress, lifestyle (All of the above)
The normal reading or range of normal is called the: Set point
If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions? Oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions.
The most important monosaccharide is Glucose
All proteins have which four elements? Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen
When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed and an H+ ion is released. False
A very large molecule composed of subunits of sugar, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate bond is a Nucleic Acid
Any large molecule made up of many identical small molecules is called a(n) Polymer
Chaperone proteins assist in the proper folding of other proteins so they can have the correct functional shape. True
What term is often used to describe certain arrangements of atoms attached to the carbon core of many organic molecules? Functional group
A saturated fatty acid is one in which All available bonds of its hydrocarbon chain are filled.
Proteins are polymers of Amino acids
RNA and DNA have the same pyrimidine bases but different purine bases. False
Which term means “water loving” and applies to the phospholipid head? Hydrophilic
In base pairing of DNA molecules, _____ is bound to _____. Adenine; thymine
A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three of the same type of fatty acid. False
DNA and RNA are important because Information molecules
The carbon-containing molecules formed by living things are often called Organic molecules
Which of these is not a lipid? Polysaccharide
Which of the following is polymer of glucose that is sometimes referred to as animal starch? Glycogen
What determines how a protein performs? Shape
ATP Is the form of energy that cells generally use.
The lipid that is often referred to as a tissue hormone is Prostaglandin
A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a: Phospholipid, steroid (Both B & C)
The amino group in an amino acid is: NH3+
The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are: Steroids
Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called: Essential amino acids
What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? Degree of saturation
The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates is: Nitrogen
The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? Secondary
Unsaturated fats: Will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms.
The basic building blocks of fats are: Fatty acids and glycerol.
When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? Maltose
Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end.
DNA is a double-helix strand of nucleotides.
The roles played by proteins can be divided into which categories? Structural and functional
All of the following substances are organic except: Electrolytes
The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is: LDL
Which lipid is part of vitamin D? Steroids
Amino acids frequently become joined by: Peptide bonds
Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics? Both have a ring structure in their molecule.
Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body. Glycogen
Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis? Two haploid gametes
Proteins that act as catalysts are called Enzymes
Replication of DNA occurs in which phase of interphase? S phase
Facilitated diffusion is not an active transport process because it does not depend on cell energy.
Which of the following is an active transport process? Endocytosis
Diffusion moves Down a concentration gradient
The two processes of protein synthesis are transcription and translation.
In the electron transport system, the final electron acceptor is Oxygen
Osmosis can be defined as the net movement of water molecules from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration.
A chemical that reduces the amount of activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction is a(n) Catalyst
A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing its shape is called a(n) Allosteric effector
If red blood cells containing 10% solute are placed in a solution containing 10% solute, what will happen? Water will move into and out of the cells at equal rates.
The result of meiosis is Four daughter cells that are haploid.
In the DNA molecule, a sequence of three base pairs forms a(n) Codon
Transcription can best be described as the synthesis of mRNA.
Water pressure that develops in a solution as a result of osmosis into that solution is called _____ pressure. Osmotic
Red blood cells are placed in an unknown solution. After 45 minutes, the cells are examined and determined to have decreased in size. The unknown solution is Hypertonic
Glycolysis occurs in what part of the cell? Cytoplasm
Which of the following phases is NOT correctly matched with its description? Anaphase – mitosis is complete
The total number of 46 chromosomes per cell is referred to as _________ number. Diploid
Meiosis is called “reduction division” because the number of chromosomes is reduced by half.
The cell process in which microorganisms or other large particles are engulfed is called Phagocytosis
Normal mitosis results in cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
The component that distinguishes one nucleotide from another is the Nitrogen base
Meiotic division occurs in Primitive sex cells.
If oxygen is available, the pyruvate molecules formed by glycolysis are prepared to enter the next phase of aerobic cellular respiration, called the Citric acid cycle
Mitosis is subdivided into four phases, including all of the following except Karyophase.
In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to the opposite ends of the cells along the spindle fibers? Anaphase
Diffusion can be defined as the net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
RNA makes proteins by Translation
Which is not true about the sodium and potassium pump? Sodium moves into the cell and potassium moves out of the cell.
NaCl would move through the cell membrane in which direction? Both into and out of the cell
The correct order of the phases of mitosis is: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.
A DNA molecule is characterized by all of the following except: Ribose sugar
Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through: Active transport
Which of the following terms is synonymous with tumor? Neoplasm
The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs? TAGC
Water will move through the cell membrane by: Osmosis
Which of the following is not true of RNA? It contains deoxyribose sugar.
Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to: Hypertrophy
All of the following are examples of passive transport except: Endocytosis
Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: facilitated diffusion.
Which of the following statements is true? The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm.
The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: Filtration
An individual’s entire set of DNA can be referred to as a: Genome
When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers, it is characteristic of which phase of mitosis? Metaphase
A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be: Hypertonic
Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: Haploid
Diffusion requires: A concentration gradient
Apocrine sweat glands can be found in all of the following areas except the: Soles of the feet
The nail body forms at the nail root, which has a matrix of proliferating cells from the _____________ that enables the nail to grow continuously. Stratum basale
The hair follicle is found in the: Dermis
Which cells of the skin act as a type of antigen-presenting cell in the skin? Dendritic cells
Smooth muscles that produce goose pimples when they contract are the _____ muscles. Arrector pili
Which skin layer contains closely packed, clear cells that contain a gel-like substance called eleidin? Stratum lucidum
In which skin layer does the process of keratinization begin? Stratum granulosum
Which is not part of a hair? Lanugo
Which cells of the skin are filled with a tough, fibrous protein and account for most of the epidermal cells of the skin? Keratinocytes
The gland responsible for the waxy secretion in the external ear canal is: Ceruminous
Hair: Alternates between periods of growth and rest, consists of keratinized cells, is formed from cells of the germinal matrix (All of the above
Which skin layer has cells that look prickly because of the desmosomes that join the cells together? Stratum spinosum
The hair papilla consists of _____ tissue. Dermal
Which skin layer is called the barrier area? Stratum corneum
Fingernail growth is the result of the mitosis of the cells in the stratum: germinativum
Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum: Basale
Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: Bones
Which cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells (Both A & B)
What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? Basement membrane
Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain? Microglia
Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. True
The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called: Nervous
The hypodermis: connects the dermis to underlying tissues.
A tissue is: a group of similar cells that perform a common function.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of connective tissue? Typically holds its cells together tightly by means of desmosomes
The area referred to as true skin is the: Dermis
The papillary layer of the dermis: produces the ridges that make fingerprints.
Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? Connective
Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by _____ tissue. Connective and epithelial (Both B & C)
Which is not a function of connective tissue? Communication
Which of the following is not a characteristic of skeletal muscles? Having one nucleus per cell
Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: Mesenchyme
Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? Epithelial
Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? Astrocytes
What is are the two types/functions of bone marrow? Red & yellow – produces red blood cells and stores energy as fat.
The external portion of the bone is known as Cortical bone
Bones grow due to activity in the Epiphyseal plates
Which of the following is NOT CONSIDERED a long bone. C5
When an astronaut is in space for 2 months what may happen to their bone density as compared to a person living on earth? The astronaut will experience bone loss at an increased rate as a person on earth
Why is cartilage slow to heal? Because it is semi-solid and flexible & Because cartilage calcifies at a slow rate (Both B & D)
Which of the following is a location in which you would find fibrous cartilage? Public symphysis & Interverbal discs (Only C &D)
Select the answer that best describes the axial skeletal structure. Provides framework for muscles that anchor and stabilize the appendicular bones
Adipocytes, found in the yellow bone marrow, stores and releases ____________________________ for energy. Fat and triglycerides
Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident? Protection of internal organs
Without red bone marrow, bones would not be able to ________. Make blood cells
Which of the following provide flexibility and smooth surfaces for movement? Cartilages
The fontenelles of an infant's skull consists of Fibrous membrane
Which statement below is correct regarding fontanelles? Allows for brain growth, The anterior fontanelle closes at about 2 years of age, The fontanelles are fibrous membranes (All of the above)
Hematopoietic stem cells that are found in red bone marrow can develop into a variety of different blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. True
Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone. False
Which of the following is not one of the primary functions performed by bones? Hormonal production
In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the: Osteoblasts
If there is an injury to the occipital bone you may expect that which sense is damaged? Vision
The humerus articulates proximally with the Scapula
Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when complex calcium salts are deposited in the matrix.
The ulna articulates proximally with the: Humerus
One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe. False
As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the: amount of calcium in bone increases & level of calcium in the blood decreases (Both B & C)
Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete Additional matrix
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? Cylindrical in shape
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the: Thumb
The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle. False
The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the diaphysis? Provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle
Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis. epiphyseal plate
The following are functions of bone except for Support, protection, mineral storage, hematopoiesis (All of the above)
A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the: Knee
After the age of 50, the density of bone: decreases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity.
Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. 35-40
Which of the following is an example of a uniaxial joint? Elbow joint
Joints joined by fibrocartilage are called symphysis
The four kinds of protein that make up myofilaments are myosin, actin, tropomyosin, and troponin.
According to the sliding filament theory actin moves past myosin.
Which of the following is not a function of muscles? Storage
The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the Sarcomere
Anaerobic respiration results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule called Lactate
Which of the following is not among the structures that characterize synovial joints? Tendons
Which subtype of fibrous joints is found only in the skull? Suture
Synovial joints are Freely movable
Which structure allows the electrical signals to travel along the sarcolemma and move deeper into the cell? Transverse tubule
The minimal level of stimulation required to cause a fiber to contract is called the threshold stimulus.
The muscle’s ability to stretch or extend and to return to its resting length is called Extensibility
Synarthrotic joints are immovable
Three phases of the twitch contraction are the latent period, contraction phase, and relaxation phase.
The more muscle fibers contracting at the same time, the stronger the contraction of the entire muscle. The number of muscle fibers contracting depends on how many motor units are Recruited
The joints between the articulating surfaces of the vertebral processes are classified as what type of joint? Gliding
Muscle tone is maintained by Negative feedback mechanisms
The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by hydrolysis of ATP
The structure of the knee joint permits movements of Flexion and extension
If a structural classification is used, joints are named according to the type of _____ tissue that joins the bones together. Connective
_____ occurs when the foot is tilted upward, thus decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg. Dorsiflexion
The largest and most commonly injured joint in the body is the _____ joint. Knee
Repeated stimulation of muscle in time lessens its excitability and contractibility and may result in Fatigue
Some synovial joints contain a closed pillow-like structure called a(n) Bursa
The joint present during the growth years between the epiphyses of a long bone and its diaphysis is the synchrondrosis
Which type of movement occurs between the carpal and tarsal bones and between the articular facets of adjoining spinal vertebrae? Gliding
The shoulder joint is an example of a _____ joint. Multiaxial, freely movable, ball & socket (All of the above)
A contraction in which muscle length remains the same but muscle tension increases is called an Isometric contraction
Created by: amandasteel
 

 



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