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Pharm
Penn Foster Veterinary Techician Program
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the difference between an opioid agonist and an opioid antagonist? | Opioid agonists will bind to opioid receptors, thus blocking/displacing narcotic molecules that are already present |
| What is a neurotransmitter? | A chemical signaler that relays chemical signals across a synapse to other cells/organs in the body |
| What is the area of the brain that serves to relay information from the spinal cord and brainstem to the interpretation center of the cerebrum? | The thalamus |
| How do most CNS drugs act on neurotransmitters? | They either excite or inhibit |
| What are the four primary ways in which drugs affect the autonomic nervous system? | -They mimic neurotransmitters - they interfere with neurotransmitter release - they block the attachment of neurotransmitters - they interfere with the breakdown/reuptake of neurotransmitters at the synapse |
| What are the five indications for the use of cholinergic agents? | -treatment of myasthenia gravis - treatment of urinary atony - treatment of decreased GI motility - treatment of glaucoma - reversal of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockade |
| Atropine, scopolamine, glycopyrrolate and animopentamide are all examples of what? | Anticholinergics |
| What category of drug is used to treat cardiac arrest and anaphylactic shock? | Adrenergic |
| Propanolol is an example of what kind of drug? | Beta blocker |
| Why would you be concerned about using thiobarbituate to induce anestheis in a very thin dog? | -thiobarbituates are extremely fat soluble and rapidly redistribute into the fat of the patient. A thin patient will not be able to distribute it properly leading to rough recovery |
| what are some adverse effects of xylazine and what drug may be used to antagonize its effects? | -bradycardia - cardiac arrhythmias - hypotension (following transient hypertension) - respiratory depression - hypoxemia (in sheep) - vomiting - bloat - hyperglycemia the effects of this drug can be reversed using alpha-2 adrenergic antagonists An |
| What are some characteristics of a cat anesthetized with ketamine? | - minor cardiac stimulation - ataxia - hallucinations - tremors - convulsions |
| List some clinical signs of a narcotic overdose | - extreme CNS depression characterized by bradycardia, hypotension, respiratory depression |
| List two narcotic antagonists | -Naloxone - Naltrexone |
| Why should glyceryl guaiacolate not be mixed until just before use? | Potential for precipitation Stability concerns |
| You are assisting in the delivery of a litter of puppies and you deliver one that is not breathing. What drug would you give and by what route? | -Doxapram - Give SL or via umbilical vein |
| Why are euthanasia solutions containing only phenobarb classified as class II whereas those that contain phenobarb and other additives classified as class III? | - Having other substances in the solution decreases the likelihood that the drug will be abused |
| All psychotherapy drugs are thought to produce their effects by altering what in the brain? | Neurotransmitters |
| Dissociative agents such as ketamine and tiletamine may cause what at the injection site? | burning |
| A hypnotic known for its very short duration is called? | Propofol |
| A benzo that is used as an antianxiety medication and as an appetite stimulant is | Diazepam |
| An example of a tricyclic antidepressant used in vet med for sep anx is what? | Clomicalm |
| What is used to treat old-dog dementia? | Anipryl |
| The nervous system carries out activity very rapidly by sending electric like messages over a network of nerve fibers. Tje ___ system works much more slowly by sending chemical messengers through the blood stream | Endocrine |
| The ___ nervous system is under voluntary control | Somatic |
| the ___ is the fundamental unit of the nervous system | neuron |
| Axons carry electric like messages ___? Dendrites carry messages__? | Away from the nerve cell; to the nerve cell |
| Neurotransmitters cannot be mimicked or blocked by the use of appropriate drugs and this is why patients with nervous system disorders do not have a very good prognosis. T or F? | F |
| The ANS os that portion of the nervous system that controls ___ movement in the body | unconscious |
| the neurotransmitter for cholinergic sites is | acetylcholine |
| What structures would a molecule of o2 pass over or through as it travels from the environment to the alveoli? | Bronchioles |
| What are the four primary functions of the respiratory tract? | ventillation, distribution of gas, diffusion of gas, and perfusion |
| describe the function of the three basic defense mechanisms of the resp tract | turbinates in the nasal cavity provide large SA for warming and humidifying. hair in the nasal cavity also catches particles. Sneezing expels irritants. Mucociliary mechanisms clear debris |
| List the principles of respiratory therapeutics | Control secretions, control reflexes, maintain airflow to the alveoli |
| Expectorants are indicated when what type of cough is present? | productive cough |
| Mucolytics decrease the viscosity of resp. mucous by what mechanism? | alter the chemical composition of mucous through the breakdown of disulfide bonds |
| Acetylcysteine is administered by what method for pulmonary uses? | nebulization |
| What is the mechanism of action for most antitussives in veterinary medicine? | Most effective antitussives are centrally acting drugs that interfere with the reflex arc that causes coughing. They elevate the Cough Threshold. |
| Codeine is classified as what category of controlled substance? | Class V |
| List three mechanisms that can cause smooth muscle contractions in the bronchioles | Parasympathetic Nervous System Activation (Acetylcholine). Release of Inflammatory Mediators (Histamine and Leukotrienes), Blockade of beta2-adrenergic receptors. |
| List two bronchodilators that are beta2-adrenergic agonists | Epinephrine, terbutaline |
| The methylxanthines bring about bronchodilation by inhibiting what cellular enzyme? | phosphodiesterase |
| List two potential uses for antihistamines in veterinary medicine | heaves in horses, allergic reactions |
| what suffix is found at the end of the name of most antihistamines? | "-amine" |
| List two potential uses of dopram | stimulation of respiration during or after anesthesia |
| List two uses of acetylcysteine in veterinary medicine | mucolytic agent in respiratory disease. Antidote for acetominophen tox |
| Particles of what size are capable of reaching the alveolar region? | <5um |
| Give an example of a beta2-adrenergic bronchodilator | Albuterol |
| All of the following are functions of the respiratory system except: a. o2-co2 exchange b. regulation of acid/base balance c. production of sodium bicarbonate to aid in regulation of acid-base balance d. body temperature regulation | c. production of sodium bicarbonate |
| What are drugs that liquefy or dilute viscid secretions from the respiratory tract thereby helping to evacuate these secretions? | expectorants |
| what are drugs that suppress coughing? | antitussives |
| what is used in the relief of a chonic nonproductive cough in dogs and for analgesia/preanesthesia in dogs and cats? | butorphanol |
| drugs with codeine alone are in what schedule of controlled substances? | Class V |
| Temaril P is a combination product that contains a centrally acting antitussive and what other drug? | prednisolone |
| animophylline and theophylline are ___ derivatives | methylxanthines |
| what are drugs that decrease swelling in nasal cavities? | decongestants |
| what are substances used to block the effects of histamine | antihistamine |
| Solu-Delta-Cortef is a brand name for | prednisolone |
| What structures constitute the urinary system? | two kidneys, two ureters, a urinary bladder and a urethra |
| Name two drugs that are contraindicated in uremic patients | xylazine and ketamine are contraindicated |
| renal damage may be characterized as | prerenal, renal, or postrenal |
| How do diuretics work? | remove excess extracellular fluid by increasing urine flow and sodium excretion and by reducing hypertension |
| What supplements would be given with loop diuretics? | potassium supplements |
| ACE inhibitors prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to ___ | angiotensin II |
| Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing the formation of what kind of uroliths? | struvite |
| The renal cortex produces what? | erythropoietin |
| Why is furosemide referred to as a loop diuretic? | Furosemide inhibits the tubular reabsorption of sodium and promote the excretion of Cl-, K+. and water |
| Where is ADH secreted? | posterior pituitary |
| Finish the sentence: the ureters... | originate from the kidneys and connect to the urinary bladder |
| Persistently high blood pressure is called what? | hypertension |
| Diuretics are used to remove ___ fluid | extracellular fluid |
| Antidiuretic hormone is normally secreted by the ___ | posterior pituitary |
| What supplement may be administered in conjuction with loop diuretics? | K+ |
| Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine which assists in the prevention and dissolution of | struvite crystals |
| what part of the kidney is responsible for reabsorption, or the secretion, of certain substances? | the nephon |
| Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular resorption of | sodium |
| Why is the heart considered to be two pumps, functionally? | The heart is divided into a right and left side which are each responsible for circulating blood through a separate circuit in the body |
| Where do the right and left pumps circulate blood to, respectively? | The right sided pump is responsible for moving deoxygenated blood to the lungs. The left sided pump is responsible for moving oxygenated blood from the lungs and out into the organs and tissues |
| Cardiac cells are connected by intercalated discs and a fusion of cell membranes to form a what? | a functional syncytium |
| Depolarization of cardiac cells is characterized by the rapid influx of what ion? Slower influx of what ion? And outflow of what ion? | Rapid influx of sodium. Slower influx of calcium. And outflow of potassium. |
| A relatively long ___ is important to cardiac cells to prevent constant state of contraction from recycling impulses | refractory period |
| Define chronotropic and inotropic effects in relation to the heart | Chronotropic effects refer to an agent's influence on the heart rate. Inotropic effects refer to the agents influence on the force or strength of myocardial contraction. |
| Define preload and afterload in relation to the pumping mechanism of the heart | Preload (stretch) is the degree of stretch of the ventricular muscle fibers at the end of diastole just before the heart contracts. Afterload is the resistance that the ventricles must overcome to eject blood into the major arteries during systole |
| List the four major compensatory mechanisms of the cardiovascular system | increase in heart rate, increase in stroke volume, increase efficiency of the heart, and cardiac remodeling |
| List five objectives of treatment for heart failure | Control rhythm disruptions, maintain or increase output, increase contraction strength, decrease afterload, increase oxygenation of the blood. |
| List four beneficial effects and one potential toxic effect of the use of cardiac glycosides | benefits: improved cardiac contractility, decrease heart rate, antiarrhythmic effects, and decreased signs of dyspnea. Adverse effects include high serum levels, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea and arrhythmias. |
| Catecholamines such as epinephrine are used in veterinary medicine primarily for | getting the heart going during CPA and treating anaphylaxis |
| List five factors that might predispose a heart to arrhythmias | Conditions that may cause hypoxemia, electrolyte imbalances, increased levels or increased sensitivity to catecholamines, drugs like digitalis compounds, and cardiac trauma/disease that results in altered cardiac cells. |
| List six categories of antiarrhythmic drugs and give examples of each | Class IA (quinidine), Class 1B (lidocaine), class 1C (flecainide), Class II (propranolol), Class III (bretylium) and class IV (verapamil) |
| List four vasodilator drugs and classify each as arteriolar dilator, venodilator, or mixed | hydralazine (arteriolar dilator), nitroglycerine ointment (venodilator), prazosin (mixed), benazepril (mixed) |
| Why is lasix considered a loop diuretic? | Because the mechanism of action specifically targets thick ascending limb of the loop of henle in the kidney |
| The use of many diuretics can lead to the dangerous loss of what electrolyte? | Can lead to the loss of potassium |
| List five ancillary treatments for cardiovascular disease | bronchodilators, oxygen therapy, asprin, sedation, and therapeutic procedures like abdominocentesis and thoracocentesis |
| What is characterized by the rapid influx of sodium ions, the slower infux of Calcium ions, and the outflow of potassium ions? | Depolarization |
| The amount of blood that the heart is capable of pumping per minute is called? | cardiac output |
| What results when the pumping ability of the heart is impaired to the point that sodium and water are retained in an effort to compensate for inadequate cardiac output? | congestive heart failure |
| Angiotensin converting enzymes causes the conversion of what into what? | Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II |
| Nitroglycerine can be applied as an ointment. List precautions to take when administering | Gloves should be worn. Rotate application sites. DO not pet animals at application sites. |
| What diuretic is used most commonly in the treatment of heart failure? | Furosemide |
| What is hypokalemia? | Low potassium |
| What are the primary goals of dietary management of heart disease? | Sodium restriction and maintenance of good body weight and condition |
| List the three effects of catecholamine administration | increase the force and rate of contraction, constrict peripheral blood vessels, elevate blood glucose levels |
| The heart is a ___ chambered pump | Four |
| Quinidine is an alkaloid used in the treatment of ventricular arrhythmia, ventricular tachycardia, and atrial fibrilation. Quinidine doses must be increased or decreased when the patient is being treated with digoxin? | decreased |
| Concurrent use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs may increase or decrease the effectiveness of catopril? | decrease |
| Furosemide might cause what condition in patients? | Hypokalemia |
| Autonomic Nervous System | Controls involuntary, unconscious bodily activity and responses |
| Dissociative Agent | An anesthetic characterized by catalepsy, catatonia, analgesia, and amnesia (but loss of consciousness may not occur) |
| Neuroleptanalgesic | A combination of a narcotic analgesic and tranquilizer (neuroleptic) that provides strong analgesic and tranquilizing effects |
| Expectorant | A drug that loosens mucus to facilitate its expulsion from the respiratory tract |
| Monoamine Oxidase | An enzyme that degrades dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine |
| Methylxanthines | Bronchodilators that work by inhibiting phosphodiesterase enzyme |
| Erythropoietin | A hormone produced by the kidney that stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells |
| Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitors | Used to prevent urate urolithiasis in Dalmatians due to a defect in uric acid metabolism |
| Stroke Volume | The volume of blood that's pumped by the heart's left ventricle in a single contraction |
| Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System | Controls blood pressure and sodium homeostasis |
| Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone | A zone in the medulla of the brainstem that can induce vomiting when stimulated |
| Hematemesis | Vomiting of blood |
| What's a behavioral pharmacologic agent used to control anxiety and urine spraying that doesn't possess anticonvulsant or sedative effects? | Buspirone |
| What's a methylxanthine drug used for bronchodilation that also has cardiac stimulatory effects? | Aminophylline |
| Xylazine is a common anesthetic used in dogs that can cause vomiting. What's the autonomic nervous system mechanism of the antidote for xylazine overdose? | Alpha-adrenergic antagonist |
| A cat with pleural effusion was diagnosed with cardiomyopathy. What angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor can be used to treat cats with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? | Enalapril |
| As part of a workup to assess the cause of colic in a horse, the veterinarian first plans to administer the horse an anticholinergic quaternary ammonia compound to reduce peristalsis. Which of the following is used for this purpose? | Propantheline |
| What value is a measure of inhalant anesthetic potency? | MAC (minimum alveolar concentration ) |
| Nebulized mucolytics are often used in veterinary medicine to reduce the thickness of respiratory secretions. Which mucolytic is used most often for this purpose, while also usable as an antidote for acetaminophen toxicity? | Acetylcysteine |
| A combination of acepromazine and morphine can be used to provide tranquilizing and strong analgesic effects to relieve surgical pain. What's the name for this type of drug combination? | Neuroleptanalgesic |
| Chronic renal failure is associated with a reduction in erythropoietin production, which is necessary to stimulate red blood cell production by the bone marrow. What's a treatment that can promote red blood cell production with renalfailureinduced anemia | Testosterone enanthate |
| A compound used in horses to prolong anesthesia but that has expectorant effects is | guaifenesin. |
| After terminating orthopedic surgery in a cat, profound respiratory depression was noted and supported with the injection of a CNS stimulant. Choose the common drug used in situations such as this. | Doxapram |
| _______ mimic the action of natural acetylcholine by directly stimulating cholinergic receptors. | Cholinergic agonists |
| _______ mimic the action of natural acetylcholine by directly stimulating cholinergic receptors. | Cholinergic agonists |
| A 1200-lb horse with heaves (RAO) will be treated with Ventipulmin syrup (72.5 mcg/mL) at a dosage of 0.8 mcg/kg daily for three days. How many milliliters will you dispense? | 18 mL |
| A 1200-lb horse with heaves (RAO) will be treated with Ventipulmin syrup (72.5 mcg/mL) at a dosage of 0.8 mcg/kg daily for three days. How many milliliters will you dispense? | 18 mL |
| Which category of urinary drug reduces internal sphincter tone and is used in the treatment of urinary retention? | Alpha-adrenergic antagonists |
| Which category of urinary drug reduces internal sphincter tone and is used in the treatment of urinary retention? | Alpha-adrenergic antagonists |
| When situations cause spontaneous depolarization of cardiac muscle or abnormalities of the conduction system, _______ may occur. | arrhythmias |
| When situations cause spontaneous depolarization of cardiac muscle or abnormalities of the conduction system, _______ may occur. | arrhythmias |
| An osmotic diuretic used to treat oliguric acute renal failure and reduce intracranial pressure is | mannitol. |
| An osmotic diuretic used to treat oliguric acute renal failure and reduce intracranial pressure is | mannitol. |
| Which of the following hormones is secreted by the kidney and communicates with the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells? | Erythropoietin |
| Which of the following hormones is secreted by the kidney and communicates with the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells? | Erythropoietin |
| _______ are drugs that reduce the congestion of nasal membranes by reducing associated swelling. | Decongestants |
| _______ are drugs that reduce the congestion of nasal membranes by reducing associated swelling. | Decongestants |
| Telazol is an injectable anesthetic that consists of a combination of which two drugs? | Tiletamine and zolazepam |
| Telazol is an injectable anesthetic that consists of a combination of which two drugs? | Tiletamine and zolazepam |
| Two veterinary technicians are learning about the nervous systems. Technician A says that the somatic nervous system is under voluntary control. Technician B says that the autonomic nervous system is under involuntary control. Who is correct? | Both technicians are correct. |
| Two veterinary technicians are learning about the nervous systems. Technician A says that the somatic nervous system is under voluntary control. Technician B says that the autonomic nervous system is under involuntary control. Who is correct? | Both technicians are correct. |
| Which of the four chambers in a ruminant's stomach is the "true" stomach? Omasum, Rumen, Reticulum, Abomasum | Abomasum |
| Which of the four chambers in a ruminant's stomach is the "true" stomach? Omasum, Rumen, Reticulum, Abomasum | Abomasum |
| A 1000-lb horse will be treated with detomidine at a dosage of 10 mcg/kg IV for abdominal pain. The concentration of detomidine is 10 mg/mL. What quantity will you prepare? | 0.46 mL |
| A 1000-lb horse will be treated with detomidine at a dosage of 10 mcg/kg IV for abdominal pain. The concentration of detomidine is 10 mg/mL. What quantity will you prepare? | 0.46 mL |
| Which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor used for the treatment of gastric ulcers in horses? | Omeprazole |
| The nervous system carries out activity very rapidly by sending electric-like messages over a network of nerve fibers. The _______ system works much more slowly by sending chemical messengers through the bloodstream to target structures. | endocrine |
| Which of the following drugs liquefies and dilutes viscid secretions of the respiratory tract? | Expectorants |
| Your hospital is out of digitalis liquid and the client needs a refill immediately. All you have in stock is digitalis pills. The dose for digitalis pills would probably need to be | increased for pills to be effective. |
| List three general functions of the GI tract | intake food, absorb nutrients, excrete waste |
| List three examples of monogastric animals | humans, dogs, cats |
| What is the GI configuration of ruminant animals? | Ruminants possess three forestomach (the reticulum, the rumen, and the omasum. The true stomach is the abomasum |
| What is the difference between vomiting and regurgitation? | Vomiting is the forceful ejection of stomach contents and is initiated by the medulla. Regurgitation is not forceful |
| Ruminants are animals that use ___ to digest coarse plant material | microorganisms |
| what are the three basic control mechanisms for the GI tract? | the autonomic nervous system, GI hormones (gastrin), and substances such as histamine, serotonin and prostaglandin. |
| What is the significance of the presence of bacterial endotoxins in the GI tract? | they may increase the permeability of intestinal blood vessels and cause increased fluid loss and fever |
| The CRTZ stimulates vomiting when acted upon by? | the cerebral cortex, peripheral receptors of the pharynx, GI tract, urinary system or heart. |
| List two examples of centrally acting emetics and two examples of peripherally acting emetics | centrally acting: apomorphine and xylazine. Peripherally acting: hydrogen peroxide |
| H2 receptor antagonists promote the healing of GI ulcers by? | they reduce the release of hydrochloric acid |
| List two H2 receptor antagonists | cimetidine, famotidine |
| what are two types of intestinal motility patterns? | peristalsis and segmental contractions |
| acute vomiting and diarrhea in dogs and cats often respond to conservative management such as: | dietary changes |
| two species that do not vomit are: | horses and rats |
| what is the mechanism of action of saline/hyperosmotic laxatives? | These laxatives generally contain magnesium or phosphate ions that are poorly absorbed. These anions hold water in the GI tracts osmotically. Increased water in the tracts lends to softer stool and stimulation of receptors in the gut wall. |
| what is the active ingredient in metamucil? | psyllium |
| Direct cholinergic drugs stimulate the GI tract by what mechanism? | horses and rats |
| what is the mechanism of action of saline/hyperosmotic laxatives? | These laxatives generally contain magnesium or phosphate ions that are poorly absorbed. These anions hold water in the GI tracts osmotically. Increased water in the tracts lends to softer stool and stimulation of receptors in the gut wall. |
| what is the active ingredient in metamucil? | psyllium |
| Direct cholinergic drugs stimulate the GI tract by what mechanism? | mimic acetylcholine |
| list four products used in dentrifice/oral cleansing | Nolvadent, OraVet, Friskees chewsm and Hills td treats |
| what is the difference between peristalsis and segmentation? | peristalsis: wavelike, unidirectional. segmentation: localized, back and forth |
| stimulation of the parasympathetic portion of the autonomic nervous system increases or decreases intestinal motility? | increases |
| About what percent of the stomachs contents do emetics usually remove? | about 80% |
| How does sucralfate work to treat/prevent ulcers? | forms a paste that covers the inside of the stomach and sticks to ulcers |
| bismuth subsalicylate compounds should be used with caution in what species? | cats, as it can be converted to asprin |
| what species has no gallbladder? | horses |
| mg sulfate is found in | epsom salts |
| Describe the relationship between hormonal releasing factors, trophic hormones, and the hormones produced by specific tissues or glands | Releasing factors: stimulate the pituitary gland. Trophic hormones target specific peripheral gland. Target gland hormones: act on non-endocrine cells to produce a physiological effect. |
| List the major endocrine glands | Pituitary, adrenals, thyroid, kidneys, ovaries, testes and pancreas |
| What are the reasons for using hormonal therapy in veterinary medicine? | Correct deficiencies, obtain desired effects |
| Endogenous hormones are produced where? | in the body |
| Exogenous hormones come from what sources? | external |
| Where is the pituitary gland located and what is its function? | Located below hypothalamus. It's primary function is to produce, store and release hormones that monitor and regulate the activity of many other endocrine glands and body systems |
| What is the difference between a negative and positive feedback mechanisms in the endocrine system? | Negative feedback opposes a stimulus whereas positive feedback reinforces the stimulus. Negative feedback is the most common and is primarily seen to maintain a state of homeostasis |
| The release of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary is controlled through what mechanism? | Neurohormonal reflex |
| GnRH is classified as a what? | Gonadotropin |
| Hormonal products with "gest" in their name are classified as what? | Progestins |
| List three potential uses for prostaglandins | Regulation of activity in the treatments of female reproductive conditions. Rid the animal of the corpus luteum and initiate a new estrus cycle. tx mummified fetus. |
| Human skin contact or injection with prostaglandins can be a serious health risk to what demographics of people? | Pregnant women and those with asthma |
| Before oxytocin can exert effects on the uterus, the uterus must first be primed by what two hormones? | Estrogen and progesterone |
| What precautions should be taken before oxytocin is administered? | the cervix must be sufficiently dilated before administration? |
| What two active hormones are produced by the thyroid gland? | T3 and T4 |
| List two drugs used in the treatment of hypothyroidism | Levothyroxine and Liothyronine |
| List three major classes of insulin | Short acting, intermediate acting and long acting |
| Which form of insulin is used to treat DKA? | Regular (short acting) |
| Which forms of insulin must be resuspended before administration? | Intermediate and long acting |
| What are some signs of an insulin overdose? | Shaking, seizures |
| Growth promoters generally should not be used in animals intended for | food |
| why are anabolic steroids classified as controlled substances? | because they have a high likelihood of abuse by body buiders |
| which insulin product should be haken prior to administration? | vetsulin |
| What precautions should be taken by pregnant women when Regu-Mate is administered? | pregnant women shouldn't handle it at all |
| Why is synthetic DES banned from use in food-producing animals? | there is a proven association with cancer |
| prostaglandin causes the lysis of what? | the corpus luteum |
| What does the endometrium line? | the uterus |
| A ___ hormone is one that results in the production of a secondary hormone within a target gland | trophic |
| GnRH is produced by? | the hypothalamus |
| All of the following are gonadotropins except: Estradiol cypionate, Cystorelin, Factrel, Fertagyl | Estradiol |
| Androgens are female sex hormones produced in the ovaries, adrenal cortex, and testicles: T or F? | Flase. Androgens are male sex hormones, |
| Prostaglandins are a group of natually occurring long-chain fatty acids that mediate various physiologic events in the body. T or F | T |
| What causes uterine contractions? | Oxytocin |
| Corticosteroids are produced where? | adrenal cortext |
| Levothyroxine is used in the treatment of what in all species? | hypothyroidism |
| Cushings syndrome if caused by an excessive amount of circulating what? | Cortisol |
| Pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism in dogs may be treated with | Lysodren and Vetoryl |
| U-40 syringes have what color top? | organge |
| Mydriatic agents are used to do what to the pupils? | Dilate the pupils |
| Atropine is contraindicated in? | primary or secondary glaucoma because of its potential to increase IOP, KCS because it can decrease tear production, and small breeds/cats due to its potential to be systemically absorbed |
| Miotic agents produce? | pupil constriction |
| Why are ophthalmic stains used? | to diagnose corneal ulcers |
| What is the most commonly used dye for the detection of corneal epithelial defects? | Fluoresceine stain |
| Patients with ear mites, whose ears are left untreated, often experience what kind of hematomas? | aural |
| Why do most topical ophthalmic medications require several applications per day? | Because of the body's natural ability to produce tears which, in turn, removes the medication from the eye, thus necessitating more frequent application |
| What type of administration method is used most frequently in treating disorders of the eye? | topical |
| What is Ophthaine used for? | local anesthetic |
| The nictitating membrane is also known as | third eyelid |
| Atropine ophthalmic agents are used to produce | mydriasis |
| Epinephrine is contraindicated in open or closed angle glaucoma? | closed |
| Anesthetic effects of proparacaine usually last for | 10-20 mins |
| What medication has been developed for the treatment of Otodectes spp.? | Acarexx |
| How many miligrams of tropicamine are in a 0.5% solution? | 500mg |
| Define Gonadotropins | Hormonal drugs that mimic the actions of gonadotropin-releasing hormone, luteinizing hormone, and follicle-stimulating hormone |
| The skin consists of how many layers? | Three |
| The skin is only part of the ___ system | Integumentaty |
| What is essential for healthy skin? | Vitamin A |
| Name seven functions of the skin | Provide physical barrier, senses things, regulate body temperature, immunologic defense, produces vitamin D, acts as a reservoir for electrolytes, excretion |
| Shampoos are more effective if left on the skin for how long? | Between 5 and 10 minutes |
| Keratolitics and Keratoplastics are known as what kind of agents? | Antiseborhheic agents |
| Name the four stages of wound healing | Inflammation, debridement, repair, and maturation |
| what does an astringent do to the skin? | dries skin and precipitates proteins |
| The debridement stage of wound healing usually begins to occur how many hours after injury? | About 6 hours |
| Different types of bacteria can be distinguished with the use of what kind of stain? | Gram |
| Gram-positive bacteria will stain what color? | Purple |
| Gram negative bacteria will stain what color? | Red or pink |
| What drugs can cause staining of teeth in young animals? | Tetracyclines |
| What drug should never be given to horses IV? | Procaine penicillin g |
| Some aminoglycosides may be what kind of toxic? | Nephrotoxic or ototoxic |
| Griseofulvin is used to treat what? | Ringworm |
| What term describes the range of bacteria affected by a drugs action? | A drug's spectrum of activity is the range of bacteria affected by it's action |
| T or F: Penicillin-G benzathine is a long-acting antibiotic that is approved for use in dairy animals | False |
| All of the following drugs are classified as penicillins except: Cephalexin, amoxicillin, ampicillin, cloxacin | Cephalexin |
| Naxcel is not approved for use in lactating dairy animals, T or F | false |
| Clindamycin is classified as a what? | Lincosamide |
| Do veterinarians commonly dispense aminoglycosides to patients with renal insufficiency? | No |
| Enrofloxacin is a what? | Fluoroquinolone |
| Amphotericin B may be used in the treatment of mycotic fungal infections T or F | True |
| Name five types of symbiotic relationships | Predator-Prey, commensalism, mutualism, parasitism, and phoresis |
| What is parasitiasis? | When an animal has a parasite but is not symptomatic |
| What is parasitosis? | When an animal has a parasite and is showing clinical signs |
| What are ectoparasites? | Parasites that live on the outside of the body (fleas/ticks) |
| What are endoparasites? | Parasites that live inside the animal (hookworms, whipworms) |
| An animal with endoparasites are said to be ___ and an animal with ectoparasites is said to be ___ | Infected and infested, respectively |
| What is an anthelmintic? | a type of anti infective drug that targets helminths |
| What kinds of dips should never be used on cats? | organophosphate dips |
| IGR is an acronym for | insect growth regulators |
| Praziquantel is a drug that is used to rid the body of what? | tapeworms, hookworms, roundworms and whipworms |
| An example of this type of symbiotic relationship is the bacterium M. bovis that is mechanically carried on the feet of flies | phoresis |
| Ivermectin, moxidectin, and doramectin are in what class? | Avermectins |
| All of the following are heartworm preventatives except: millnemycin oxime, selamectin, heartgard plus, diethylcarbamazine | Diethyncarbamazine |
| What is the most commonly used formamidine in veterinary medicine? | Amitraz |
| What is a topical solution that controls ascarids, hookworms, and tapeworms in felines? | Emodepside/praziquantel (Profender) |
| An aresenic compound administered by deep IM injection is what? | melarsomine dihydrochloride |
| Albensazole is the active ingredient found in what? | Valbazen |
| An organophosohate is a substance that can interfere with the function of the nervous system by inhibiting the enzyme cholinasterase T or F | true |
| Advantage has greater efficacy against___ and frontline has greater efficacy against ___ | fleas and ticks respectively |
| ___ are parasitic worms including intestinal roundworms, filarial worms, lungworms, kidney worms, heartworms and others | Nematodes |
| PAin sensation arises in free nerve endings called what? | Nociceptors |
| List the signs associated with pain in animals | Increased HR/RR, Mydriasis, salivation, vocalization, change in facial expressions, aggressive behavior, guarding, restlessness, unresponsiveness, failure to groom, abnormal gait/stance |
| NSAIDs that preferentially inhibit what are thought to produce fewer GI signs | COX-2 |
| What is the mosy common side effect of NSAIDs? | GI signs (bleeding), hepatotoxicity and nephrotoxicity |
| Why are cats so susceptible to an asprin overdose? | Cats are extremely susceptible to aspirin overdose because they are metabolically deficient in the enzyme glucuronyl transferase. |
| T or F: Phenylbutazone should be administered parenterally by SQ route only | False. IV or oral administration only due to its potential to cause tissue necrosis and sloughing. |
| What class II opioid is administered via transdermal patch? | Fentanyl |
| T or F: Corticosteroid therapy involves treatment of the signs of disease and often cures the disease as well | False |
| What function do mineralcorticoids serve in the mody? | Regulate H2O and electrolyte balances. |
| List some principles that should be considered concerning corticosteroid therapy | Steroids treat the symptoms and not the cause; underlying issue should be investigated. Follow tapering instructions. Use the smallest effective dose, alternate-day therapeutic dosing, avoid use with NSAIDs, avoid in cases of infection. |
| What does the term "iatrogenic" mean? | Iatrogenic infections are those acquired in the hospital. Iatrogenic effects are those caused inadvertently by the clinician. |
| Describe the side effects of short term and long term corticosteroid use | Short term-pu/pd, polyphagia, restlessness, panting, lethargy.. Long term: muscle wasting, iatrogenic Cushings disease, skin and coat changes, immune suppression, diabetes mellitus, osteoporosis |
| What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetic drugs? | they act as "gatekeepers" that prevent a nerve from ever sending a pain signal to the brain. |
| What are some indications for the use of local anesthetics? | Topical applications (opthalmic, laryngeal, dermal), infiltration (surgical sites, line blocks), Regional nerve blocks. Epidurals, Systemic use (lidocaine and VPCs) |
| The body is able to produce its own opiate-like analgesics called what? | Endorphins |
| A substance that can initiate a fever is called a what? | Pyrogen |
| What is also known as acetylsalicylic acid? | Asprin |
| What is a pyrazalone derivative | Phenylbutazone |
| Flunixin meglumine is a what? | NSAID |
| DMSO causes what when it is applied topically? | Vasodilation |
| What is considered to be one of the most effective opioids? | Morphine |
| What is the major chemical mediator of the allergic response? | Histamine |
| T of F: A local anesthetic such as lidocaine may be a drug of choice when an epidural is performed to replaced a prolapsed uterus in a bovine | True |
| List the four steps involved in the production of a pain sensation | transduction, transmission, modulation, and perception |
| Define "wind-up" as it applies to pain production | A phenomena where the spinal cord becomes hypersensitive to pain signals due to repeated or chronic stimulation (think of it in terms of central sensitization). |
| Pain resulting from a tissue injury is called what? | pathologic |
| Pain arising from the abdominal cavity | visceral pain |
| List a class of drugs that would alter pain recognition and perception | Opiods, alpha-2 agonists, dissociative and general anesthetics |
| Pain control that utilizes combination drugs acting at different sites in the pain production pathway is called what kind of therapy? | Multimodal therapy |
| Define hyperkalemia | Higher than normal concentration of potassium in the blood. Normal potassium levels are between 3.5-5.5mEq/L |
| Intravascular fluid (plasma) makes up what percent of body weight? | 5% |
| Define a balanced solution as it pertains to fluid therapy | A balanced solution is defined as a fluid that resembled the electrolyte composition of extracellular fluid |
| What are the three units of measurement used for quantifying electrolytes in fluids? | mEq/L, mOsm/L, mg/dL |
| Therapeutic fluids with an osmolality of what are isotonic | 300mOsm/L |
| Give examples of sensible and insensible fluid losses | Sensible: urine, feces, vomit and diarrhea. Insensible: respiratory losses, cutaneous losses, and panting. |
| Underestimation of the degree of dehydration is sometimes a problem in what kind of animals? | Obese animals |
| One pound of fluid is equivalent to how many mililiters? One kilogram is equivalent to how many mililiters? | One pound is equal to 454 mL and one kilogram is equal to 1000mL |
| The three volumes that are calculated to arrive at the total fluid therapy volume are what? | Maintenance, ongoing losses, and hydration deficit |
| What is the purpose of the lactate in LRS? | Acts as a buffer to help normalize the patient's pH, namely to combat metabolic acidosis |
| What kind of fluid (tonicity) should not be given subcutaneously? | Hypertonic. Osmosis causes the water to be drawn out of the animal's cells and tissues and into the SQ space |
| Give an example of a balanced solution and an unbalanced solution | LRS (balanced). 0.9% NaCl (unbalanced) |
| What is defined as the determination of the osmotic pressure of a solution based on the relative number of solute particles in 1kg of the solution? | Osmolality |
| The osmolality of dog and cat serum is approximately what? | 290-310mOsm/kg |
| Commercial fluids with an osmolality of 300mOsm/L are defined as what? | Isotonic |
| How often should IV catheters be flushed? | 4-6 hours |
| What is the longest time that an IV catheter should remain in place before it is replaced? | 72 hours |
| What precaution should be observed when fluids are administered SQ | Use onlt isotonic fluids. Avoid high dextrose concentrations. Avoid in shock or severe dehydration. Monitor volume per site. Maintain sterility and temeprature. |
| Water represents what percentage of the total body weight in adult animals? | crystalloids |
| T or F: Colloids are able to hold fluid in the extracellular space | True |
| amenia in baby pigs can be treated by the administration of what? | iron dextran |
| 10 y/o K9 presenting for pu/pd and mild anemia. What is the possible cause and what would be used to treat the anemia? | Possible cause is kidney disease. Could be treated with Darbepoetin Alfa (arenesp) |
| why are hemanitics not indicated for case of acute blood loss? | they take too long to work |
| What is the antigoagulant of choice for collecting blood products for hematologic studies? | EDTA |
| How can you explain why clots form in the vascular system with no external trauma to the blood vessels? | There may be trauma to the endothelium of the blood vessel, thus causing clot formation. Stasis or turbulent blood flow similarly increases likelihood of clot formation. Hypercoagulability (blood has too many clotting ingredients and not enough thinners. |
| You have accidentally cut the quick of a puppies tail. What would you use to stop the bleeding and how does it work? | A styptic like Kwik-Stop. Perhaps Silver Nitrate Sticks or Gelfoam. Hemostat powder. |
| A 3-month-old puppy has ingested rat poison. What drug would the veterinarian use to treat this? | Vitamin K1 would be administered orally or subcutaneously (never IV) |
| An 8 y/o persian cat is brought in with an early onset of hind limb paralysis and tachycardia. What agent may be used to treat this? | A fibrinolytic or thrombolytic agent like Streptokinase or haparin (perhaps low molecular weight heparin). Clopidogrel (antiplatelet) |
| Briefly describe the phases of the cell cycle | S-phase (DNA synthesis) M-phase (mitosis) G1 and G2 phase (RNA synthesis) and G0 phase (rest phase) |
| List six categories of antineoplastic drugs and give examples of each | Alkylating agents (Cytoxan), Anthracyclines (Doxo), Antimetabolites (Methotrexate), Antitubulin agents (Vincristine), Cotricosteroids (prednisone) |
| A 12y/o lab has been through a tx protocol for lymphoma and the owner has opted for the use of a BRM. What agent could be used in this case? | Monoclonal antibodies or interferon |
| List four indications for the use of immunosuppressive agents | IMHA, IMPA, KCS, Atopic dermatitis |
| Why should you be very careful to avoid the extravasation of antineoplastic drugs | They are caustic and can result in sloughing of cells and limb loss |
| What drug may be used to treat anemia secondary to chronic renal failure? | Erythropoietin and androgens |
| what digests fibrin threads and other clotting products to cause clot lysis and the release of fibrin degradation products into circulation? | plasmin |
| which anticoagulant may be used to treat DIC? | Heparin |
| Why should heparin not be used as an anticoagulant when blood is collected for performance of a differential count? | it distorts WBC morphology and interferes with staining |
| How does EDTA work as an anticoagulant? | chelation |
| What are some potential adverse side effects associated with the use of antineoplastic drugs? | gastroenteritis, neutropenia, suppressed immune response, nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, cardiomyopathy |
| ON what dosage are most antineoplastic agents based? | body surface area |
| Corticosteroids have a lipolytic action, which makes them useful in treating what? | lymphoproliferative neoplasia |
| a substance with anti-tumor, antiviral, and immunoregulatory effects is? | Interferon |
| Cardiomyopathy is a potential side effects of what antineoplastic agent? | Doxorubicin |
| Erythrocytes are formed in the what in response to erythropoietin? | Bone marrow |
| what is the primary function of erythrocytes? | carry O2 |
| All of the following are androgens except: Winstrol-V, Equipoise, Deca-Durabolin, Regu-Mate | Regu-Mate |
| A heparin flush solution is prepared by diluting hep in saline at a concentration of what? | 5U/mL |
| Heparin test tubes what colored top? | Green top |
| What is the anticoagulant of choice when a WBC differential is performed? | EDTA |
| Fluorouracil is contraindicated in what species because of adverse side effects? | cats |
| name four drugs that naloxone reverses | fentanyl, oxymprphone/hydromorphone, butorphanol and morphine |
| Glycosaminoglycans are found naturally occurring where in the body? | Connective tissue, primarily in joint cartilage |
| Define nutraceutical | non-drug substance that is produced in a purified or extracted form and administered orally to provide agents required for normal body structure and function, with the intent of improving the health and well-being of the animal |
| Give an example of a nutraceutical | Glucosamine |
| what act defined dietary supplements such as vitamins, minerals, amino acids, herbal products and substances tgat supplement the diet by increasing the total dietary intake as "food" and excluded them from FDA regulation? | Dietary supplement Health and education act of 1994 (DSHEA) |
| ___ supplementation has been shown to be useful in treating certain dermatology conditions in dogs and cats? | Omega-3 fatty acids |
| what are two possible side effects of using fatty acids as supplements? | GI upset and increased bleeding times |
| what is activated charcoal used for? | Absorbent |
| in veterinary medicine, Ca-EDTA is used primarily in the treatment of what? | lead poisoning |
| petroleum jelly is not recommended as a lubricant because it is not ___ | it is not water soluble |
| Flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of what kind of drugs? | benzodiazepines |
| T or F echinacea may be used concurrently via the intraarticular route to prevent the infections resulting from possible contamination | FALSE |
| T or F ca-EDTA can be administered orally | FALSE |
| t OR f methylene blue should not be used in cats | true |
| ethanol is a competitive inhibitor of ethylene glycol metabolism | true |
| sodium bicarbonate is contraindicated in treatment of metabolic acidosis | false |
Created by:
mollycul3