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Oral Med Quiz 2
Slideshows
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is a bisphosphonate? | Bone Strengthening Drugs that are given to patients with Degenerative Bone Conditions. |
| How do they work? | Inhibit osteoclasts. |
| 5 examples of conditions that are treated with bisphosphonates? | Osteoporosis, Paget’s Disease, Multiple myeloma, Bone metastasis, Undergoing Chemotherapy |
| Most common degenerative bone disease? | Osteoporosis |
| What is osteoporosis? | It is a deterioration of bone mineral density and strength. |
| How is osteoporosis diagnosed? | DXA scan: (Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry) |
| Are all bone strengthening medications bisphosphonates? | No. |
| How do bone strengthening medications effect osteoblasts and osteoclasts? | Slows osteoclastic activity (bone resorption). Allows osteoblastic activity to catch up or lay down new bone. |
| What is a rare dental side effect of bone strengthening medications? | Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (ONJ) |
| What is the new and updated acronym for Osteonecrosis of the Jaw caused by a drug? | MRONJ (medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw)~ |
| How do bisphosphonates effect osteoclast activity? | They inhibit it. |
| Describe how ONJ can happen due to bisphosphonates (3) | Causes over suppression of bone turnover creating microdamage to bone. Less blood supply, reduced healing Exposed bone in the jaw that does not heal w/in 6-8 week |
| Where are antiresorptive drugs (bisphosphonates) absorbed? | A tiny bit in the intestines, but high absorbency in bone & settles in hydroxyapatite of bone |
| Where are they excreted? | Kidneys. |
| Half life can be up to blank years in the bone. | 12 |
| What puts a patient at greater risk of developing ONJ? | Taking a BIS for more than 4-5 years. |
| What form of BIS delivery is more risky? | Through an IV |
| What form of BIS delivery is less risky? | Orally |
| 3 Risk Factors that increase chances of ONJ? | 1.) Periodontal Disease 2.) Poor oral hygiene 3.) Trauma to tori, palate and mandibular ridge |
| Where does ONJ most often appear? | mandibular lingual aspect of the Mylohyoid ridge |
| More risk factors (9) | Dental abscesses diabetes smoking age 65 and older Corticosteroid therapy Chemotherapy Oral surgery (invasive dental procedures; extractions, implants) Frequent alcohol consumption Denture wearing |
| Early signs and symptoms of ONJ? (6) | Pain Tooth Mobility Mucosal Swelling Erythema Ulcerations Can cause tooth mobility, swelling, erythema and/or ulceration |
| True or false: Radiographic evidence will always be present when there is ONJ | FALSE |
| True or false: ONJ is always painful | FALSE |
| 4 ways that radiographic evidence can appear as an indication of ONJ? | Can appear as classic radiolucencies Mottled bone Widened PDL space Long term, osteosclerosis can be evident |
| Three things to keep in mind when diagnosing a pt. with ONJ? | 1. Is pt. taking or have taken Bisphosphonates/Antiresorptives for more than 4 years. 2. No history of radiation therapy 3. Bone exposure that has not healed in 8 weeks |
| What are the 3 main goals to achieve as a provider when someone has ONJ? | Eliminate pain. Control Infection of soft and hard tissue. Minimize progression or occurrence of bone necrosis. |
| How should you educate your patients when they are on bone strengthening medication? | Tell them to maintain as healthy an oral environment as possible. Recommend having all major dental treatment completed prior to beginning medication |
| If patient is on bone strengthening meds and has an invasive dental procedure coming up, what should you advise? | Consider a ‘Drug Holiday’ for invasive dental procedures then post-healing, resume medication. |
| What 4 things can be done to treat pt. with ONJ? | 1.) Refer to Oral Surgeon for Evaluation & possible Tx. 2.) Antibiotics and Chlorhexidine rinses-if peripherally infected 3.) Possible surgical removal of necrotic bone (sequestrum) |
| What is key in the prevention of ONJ? | Partnership between dentists, hygienists, physicians, and oral surgeons. Being aware of signs and symptoms. |
| When prosthetic joint infections (PJI) occur, what two things are at higher risk of happening? | Health risk and mortality |
| Cost of replacement & treatment of infection is generally blank times higher than original surgery. | 3 |
| What is bacteremia? | bacteria in the blood |
| What is bacteremia cause by? (5 major and 1 minor) | illnesses~ pneumonia, meningitis, Surgeries, Catheters, IV drug use, Dental procedures (extractions, SRP, routine prophylaxis w/significant bleeding or tissue manipulation), Brushing/flossing/chewing (Generally, harmless, localized, transient) |
| What are Hematogenous Bacteremias? | Bacteria that use the blood supply to spread to other parts of the body |
| What can Hematogenous Bacteremias cause? | Prosthetic joint infections (PJI), endocarditis, osteomyelitis |
| Hip replacement? | |
| Why doesn't the ADA recommend antibiotic premedication? | Risk of patient being sensitized to the drug, making it ineffective if another infection occurs down the road. |
| What must be done if risk factors for bacteremia are present in pt. with joint replacement? | MUST consult with the surgeon. |
| What does ADA think about antibiotic premedication? | Lack of evidence-based research indicating oral bacteria introduced into the bloodstream causes prosthetic joint infections. |
| What do orthopedic surgeons feel about antibiotic premedication? | orthopedic surgeons still feel antibiotic prophylaxis outweighs the risk of infection. |
| True or False: There is no current data that proves dental bacteremias cause hematogenic prosthetic join infections (PJI)s. | TRUE |
| How should treatment considerations differ with pt.s who have pins, plates and screws | They DO NOT require antibiotic prophylaxis prior to dental procedures. |
| WHO DOESN’T NEED ANTIBIOTIC PROPHYLAXIS? Why specify two years?? | 1.)Patients with pins, screws or plates 2.)TJR patients with no comorbidities or immunocompromised conditions. 3.)All healthy patients with TJRs over two years old. Some orthopedic surgeons want this.. |
| Should you still consult with orthopedic surgeon if pt. falls under these categories? | YES |
| What must be done to make treatment decisions that protect our patients when they have a joint replacement? | An accurate MHx must be taken. |
| The more bacteria in your mouth, the more what? | Bacteria being exposed to your bloodstream when flossing/brushing/dental trtmnts |
| 3 CONDITIONS INDICATING INCREASED RISK FOR INFECTION AFTER TJR | 1.) Immunosuppression (ie. rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, poorly controlled diabetes, kidney or liver disease, uncontrolled HIV infection) 2.) Previous prosthetic joint infections 3.) Malignancies |
| ANTIBIOTIC PROPHYLAXIS REGIMENS FOLLOWED IN THE CLARK COLLEGE DENTAL HYGIENE CLINIC | Amoxacillin (2g) 30 min to 1 hr before treatment |
| What are alternatives if pt. is allergic to penicillin? | Cephalexin (2 mg) Azithromycin or clarithromycin (500 mg) Both 30 min to 1 hr before treatment |
| What are the 2 systems of immunity? | Innate Immune System Adaptive Immune System (Acquired Immune System) |
| Two characteristics of innate immune system? | Pre-programmed to respond to most common pathogens Quick response: First responders! |
| What does the innate immune system activate? | The adaptive immune system |
| What can the innate system NOT do? | Form cellular memory to pathogens |
| How does the response time of the adaptive immune system compare to the innate immune system? | Slower response that involves more specific methods of defense. |
| What types of immunity does the adaptive system use? (2) | Humoral and cell-mediated immunity. |
| Define allergy? | A hypersensitive state acquired through exposure to a particular allergen, then upon re-exposure produces a heightened capacity to react. |
| What is an allergen? | Any substance which induces a hypersensitivity response, by triggering the production of antibodies in the body |
| 4 ways that allergens can enter the body? | ingested, inhaled, injected or touch |
| What is an antigen? | A protein molecule that triggers a specific response from the body's immune system. |
| Antigens are ________ specific. | Site |
| What cell type produces and secretes antibodies? | B lymphocyte plasma cells |
| When do B lymphocytes secrete antibodies? | As a response to an antigen in the body. |
| How do antibodies work? | binds to the antigen to neutralize foreign bodies |
| How do antibodies and antigens differ in structure? | Antigens are specific, like a lock and key. |
| What is atopy? | A genetic predisposition to developing allergic conditions. |
| People with atopy are more susceptible to what? | Allergic responses |
| Why do people are people with atopy at higher risk of allergic reaction? | They tend to produce an exaggerated Inherited immunoglobulin E (Ig E) response to various allergens. |
| 6 examples of atopy allergic reactions? | rhinitis, asthma, eczema, atopic dermatitis, allergic conjunctivitis, food allergies. |
| What are two types of general reactions that can occur due to hypersensitivity reaction? | mild, immediate or delayed reactions occurring within minutes to several days after exposure, or immediate life-threatening reactions that occur within seconds after exposure. |
| There are _________ types of hypersensitivity reactions. | 4 |
| What is a Type I reaction? | An immediate IgE reaction. |
| How fast do symptoms occur with a Type I reaction? | seconds to minutes after exposure. |
| What type of reaction is a Type I reaction? | antigen-antibody reaction |
| What does a Type I reaction cause the release of? | Histamines, leukotrienes and prostaglandins. |
| What does release of histamines, leukotrienes and prostaglandins during a Type I reaction result in? (4) | Urticaria, Rhinitis & Pruritis Edema Vasodilation Bronchiole constriction |
| What 3 things can a Type I reaction result in? | laryngeal edema, suffocation, death |
| Examples of Possible Type I Hypersensitivity IgE Mediated Reactions? (4) | Food allergy, penicillin allergy, Allergic Rhinitis (hay fever), Anaphylaxis |
| What hypersensitivity reaction type is anaphylaxis? | Extremely acute Type I IgE mediated rxn |
| Anaphylaxis can occur as a response to a previous exposure with a milder rxn or..... | As an anaphylactoid rxn (non Ig rxn) |
| What is an anaphylactoid rxn (non Ig rxn) | No prior sensitization is necessary to have life threatening symptoms. |
| How are Anaphylaxis/Anaphylactoid reactions similar? | Both can exhibit the same severe and immediate life-threatening symptoms |
| What reaction type is anaphylactic shock? | Type I IgE mediated response |
| Anaphylactic shock is an _________ rxn. | immediate |
| Anaphylactic shock leads quickly to.... (10 steps) | Vasodilation Hypotension Extreme swelling (edema) Bronchospasm Laryngeal edema Dyspnea Tachycardia Unconsciousness Bradycardia death |
| Anaphylactoid rxs occur after _____ exposure. | first |
| Are anaphylactoid reactions IgE mediated? | No. |
| How do the signs and symptoms of an anaphylactoid reaction compare to a type I anaphylactic IgE mediated reaction? | Signs and symptoms are exactly the same. |
| 4 steps to complete in event of anaphylactoid reaction and type I anaphylactic IgE mediated reaction? | Keep airway open if possible, administer epinephrine via epi-pen, monitor vitals, call 911. |
| 3 ways that an anaphylactoid rxn and type 1 anaphylactic IgE mediated reaction can effect the bronchioles? | Bronchodilation, bronchoedema, bronchospasm |
| Bronchodilation? | Widening of airway in the lungs. |
| Bronchoedema? | The swelling and thickening of the bronchial tubes, causes dyspnea. |
| Bronchospasm? | Muscles lining the airways (bronchi) constrict, causing the airways to narrow. |
| What causes the choking feeling when people have an anaphylactic reaction? | The 6 chords that support the bronchi are not flexible. So when bronchi swell, breathing is constricted. Mucous also thickens in the airway. |
| What is sensitization? | The initial exposure of an allergen. |
| Steps to sensitization & then Type I IgE Rxn | 1.) Antigen enters body 2.) Antigen finds B cell 3.) B cell creates antibodies 4.) Antibodies collect antigens and become mast cells 5.) Upon 2nd exposure to same antigen, mast cells activate and release cell mediators, which are responsible symptoms |
| What is angioedema? | Acute or sudden onset edema involving the skin, subcutaneous tissue, underlying muscle & mucous membranes of the face, mouth, tongue and/or lips |
| What reaction type is angiodema likely caused by? | Type I immediate hypersensitivity reaction |
| Where is angiodema most critical? | Larynx |
| How long does it take for angiodema to occur? | Minutes to hours |
| What is a Type II reaction? | Cytotoxic Mediated Reaction |
| What reaction type is a Type II Cytotoxic Mediated Reaction | Complement dependent reaction |
| 1st step in Type II cytotoxic reaction? | Attachment of antigen to cell surfaces begins the activation of IgG and IgM antibodies, which bind to cellular antigen. |
| 2nd step in Type II cytotoxic reaction? | This cell bound antigen targets the body’s own tissues, causing lysis of cells. An example being hemolytic anemia. It is therefore often called a cytotoxic (cell destroying) allergic reaction.cytotoxic (cell destroying) allergic reaction. |
| What else is phagocytized during Type II cytotoxic reaction? | Tagged cells with the surface antigen. |
| Examples of Type II Hypersensitivity Responses? (3) | Rheumatic fever, hemolytic disease of newborns, mismatched blood type transfusion. |
| What is Rheumatic Fever? | Body’s own cells (specifically cardiac proteins) look similar to Strep. Pyogenes bacteria cells and can trigger a life-threatening Type II Hypersensitivity |
| What is a Type III Hypersensitivity rxn called? | IgG complex reaction |
| What is Type III rxn caused by? | Caused by IgG when accumulation of immune complexes (Ag/Ab complexes) do not clear the body & lead to an inflammatory response (known as an 'Arthus reaction). |
| Where do the Ag/Ab complexes settle? | Tissues of vascular linings, joints & glomeruli. |
| What does settling of the Ag/Ab complexes in the tissues of vascular linings, joints & glomeruli cause? | Complement and ineffective phagocytosis due to inability to access the small Ag/Ab complexes. PMNs begin causing localized tissue complexes causing localized tissue damage. |
| 4 examples of Type III Hypersensitivity Responses | Lupus Erythematosus, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Post Strep. Glomerulonephritis, Bacterial Endocarditis |
| Lupus Erythematosus | Attack on own body’s tissues, causing widespread inflammation & tissue damage. Can affect blood vessels, skin, brain, lungs, joints, kidneys |
| Rheumatoid arthritis | Healthy cells are mistakenly attacked by body causing extreme pain and swelling of the joints. |
| Is Type IV (4) Hypersensitivity antibody mediated? | No it is T cell mediated |
| What type of immune response is Type IV hypersensitivity? | Delayed immune response |
| Why does Type IV have a delayed immune response? | Cytotoxic T cells have to gather |
| Steps to a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction? | 1.) Antigen activates T-Helper lymphocytes. 2.) Causes release of cytokines, which activate macrophages & cytotoxic T-cells 3.) Immune response is delayed while Cytotoxic T cells gather. 4.) The release of lymphokines causes an inflammatory response. |
| What is the most common type of allergic response in dentistry? | Type IV (4) |
| What is an example of a Type IV delayed reaction? | Contact dermatitis, which can take up to 72 hours to develop. |
| 3 examples of common things that cause Type IV delayed reactions? | latex gloves, metals, soaps |
| 2 symptoms of a Type IV delayed reaction? | Urticaria & Pruritus |
| What is urticaria? | Wheals (hives) which are smooth elevated patches surrounded by erythematous areas |
| Urticaria is the most _______ allergic symptom. | common |
| What is pruritus? | Itching |
| Drugs in Dentistry that may cause Hypersensitivity Rxns? (5) | Local Anesthetics Aspirin Products Penicillin & other Antibiotics Codeine & other Narcotics Latex Products |
| What type of anesthesia did we used to use that a lot of ppl had allergies to? | Esters |
| What anasthesia type do we use now? | Amides |
| Who is more likely to have an aspirin/NSAID allergy? | Ppl with asthma |
| What is the most allergenic drug in dentistry? | Penecillin |
| What side effects of codeine and other narcotics do ppl mistake for allergic reaction? | Vomiting, nausea |
| What questions would you ask about a latex allergy? | |
| Best way to prevent allergic reaction? (3) | Detailed MHx that lists prior allergic reactions before starting treatment. Asking follow-up questions about the MHx responses. Being prepared to manage allergic reactions of all severity types. |
| What are 3 other ways to prevent allergic reaction? | Medical consultation with allergy specialist. Allergy testing Allergy shots |
| True or False: All positive responses to an allergy history are considered true until exact nature is determined | True |
| True or False: Patients reporting allergies should be critically evaluated and then referred for allergy testing. | True |
| What hypersensitivity type can a latex sensitivity be? (2) | Type I or Type IV |
| Exampled of foods with high prevalence of cross- reactivity with latex? | Bananas, avocado, kiwi, apples, tomatoes |
| Type I | IgE-mediated hypersensitivity |
| Type II | IgG-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity |
| Type III | Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity |
| Type IV | Cell-Mediated hypersensitivity |
| What is epilepsy? | A neurological condition of brief, disorganized disturbances in electrical impulse functions that result in recurrent seizures over time |
| What 3 things must happen for person to be diagnosed with epilepsy? | 1.) At least 2 unprovoked seizures occurring >24 hrs apart. 2.) Another unprovoked seizure that occurs over the next 10 years. 3.) Diagnosis of epilepsy syndrome |
| When is epilepsy considered to be resolved for someone? (2) | When they've gone 10 years without a seizure without taking seizure meds for 5 of those years. When they had an age-dependent epilepsy syndrome but now they are past that age. |
| What is a seizure? | Body's response to abnormal electrical discharges within the brain that override the brain’s normal electrical inhibitory function. |
| What do these ‘uncoordinated’ electrical impulses cause? | Brief episodes of convulsions, twitches, or forms of unconsciousness. |
| What is seizure a sign or symptom for? | Idiopathic or acquired epilepsy |
| What does "active" mean? | Patient has had a seizure within past 12 years, and is on medication. |
| Etiology of seizure disorders? Two types. | Idiopathic (primary) and Acquired (secondary) |
| What is the criteria for idiopathic etiology of seizure disorders? (3) | Genetics, no other causative factors, most people with seizures have this etiology. |
| What are some causative factors for acquired etiology of seizure disorders? | Head trauma, high fever/infection (meningitis), medications, systemic conditions (diabetes, hypertension) |
| What usually happens before someone has a focal seizure? | Aura that can include visual, auditory, olfactory or taste hallucinations. Pt. usually knows that they're about to have a seizure. |
| Do focal seizures arise from the whole brain? | No, only a localized area. |
| What is the most common form of epilepsy? | Focal seizure |
| What is the difference between a simple focal seizure and a complex focal seizure? | “simple” if consciousness is not lost, and “complex” if consciousness is impaired |
| How big of an area of the brain does a simple focal seizure effect? | Very small. |
| Symptoms of a simple focal seizure? (6) | Staring, dizziness Tingling sensation in the extremities, Unintelligible speech, Perception of a bad odor, strange taste or smell Seeing flashing lights. Muscle twitch movements |
| True or False: Loss of consciousness may occur during focal seizure. | False, consciousness never lost |
| How does a person behave when having a complex focal seizure? | Person could be in a trance-like state or may move or behave oddly or repetitively |
| What parts of the brain are effected by a complex focal seizure? | Starts in one side of the brain but could progress to both sides. |
| How is a persons consciousness effected by a complex focal seizure? | They remain conscious. |
| What happens if the stimulation crosses over to the other side of brain too during a complex focal seizure? | Seizure could progress to a convulsive seizure. |
| How does a generalized seizure effect consciousness? | Consciousness is ALWAYS lost. |
| What are the 4 types of generalized seizures? | Generalized tonic-clonic convulsive seizure (grand mal) Generalized absence seizure (petit mal) Myoclonic seizure Atonic |
| How does a petit Mal seizure differ from a grand Mal seizure? | Petit mal is only clonic or tonic, grand Mal is clonic and tonic |
| How is consciousness effected during a generalized absence seizure? | Brief lapse or impairment of consciousness. |
| Are people aware that they are having a seizure when it is a generalized absence seizure? | No. |
| How does someone behave when having a generalized absence seizure? | They abruptly stop normal ongoing behavior and develop a blank stare or blink their eyes rapidly. |
| Is a person conscious during a generalized absence seizure? | No, but they appear conscious. |
| How does a person react after generalized absence seizure? | Resume events like nothing ever happened. |
| How long does a generalized absence seizure usually last? | 5-30 seconds |
| Is a generalized absence seizure a medical emergency? | No. |
| Can a person who has a generalized absence seizure still receive treatment? | Yes. |
| What happens during a Generalized Myoclonic Seizure? | Brief contraction of body muscles. |
| Does a generalized myoclonic seizure effect one or both sides of the brain? | Both |
| How does a person act during a Generalized Myoclonic Seizure? | Sudden jerking, or uncoordinated muscle clumsiness. |
| Is a generalized myoclonic seizure a medical emergency? | No |
| How is consciousness effected by a Generalized Tonic-Clonic Convulsive seizure? | Consciousness is suddenly lost. |
| What happens during a Generalized Tonic-Clonic Convulsive seizure? | Tonic posturing and then clonic jerks. |
| What is tonic posturing? | Continuous tension of the body |
| What are clonic jerks? | Alternate tension/ jerking movements of trunk and limbs |
| What did Generalized Tonic-Clonic Convulsive seizures used to be called? | Grand Mal |
| What is it called when a person can cry out during Generalized Tonic-Clonic Convulsive seizure? | An epileptic cry caused by air being forced through the contracting vocal cords. |
| After Generalized Tonic-Clonic Convulsive seizure how does person act? | fatigued, drowsy and confused |
| How long do Generalized Tonic-Clonic Convulsive seizures last? | 1-3 minutes |
| Is a Generalized Tonic-Clonic Convulsive seizure a medical emergency? | Yes. |
| What should you discuss with your patient after they have ANY TYPE of seizure? | Finding someone who can come and drive them home. |
| Why do they need a driver? | They are at high risk of having a subsequent seizure. |
| What is status epilepticus? | Term for a Tonic-clonic seizure that continues for more than 5 minutes. |
| What causes status epilepticus? | Continuous seizures occur, with one seizure followed by another. |
| Is status epilepticus life threatening? | YES CALL 911! |
| What is a generalized atonic seizure characterized by? | An abrupt loss of muscle tone. |
| What can happen to a person when having a generalized atonic seizure? | Sudden collapse, head drop, loss of posture. |
| What seizure is hardest to treat? | Atonic, it is often resistant to medication and treatment |
| When do you need to contact EMS? (5) | 1.) If seizures last longer than 5 minutes w/out regaining consciousness. 2.)pt. has breathing difficulties after a seizure 3.) Persistent confusion or unconsciousness > 5 mins. 4.) Injuries sustained during a seizure 5.) 1st seizure and no history of |
| What type of seizures pose no dental management problems? | Well-controlled seizures |
| 2 important things to know about a pt. who has seizures? | TYPE of seizure How consistently do they take their medication? |
| Patients who have seizures are likely on __________ medication. | Anticonvulsant |
| What is a common anticonvulsant medication? | Phenytoin |
| Common side effect of anticonvulsant medication? | Gingival Hyperplasia |
| What medication is associated with gingival hyperplasia in younger people? | Dilantin |
| What should we do to help with gingival hyperplasia? | Surgery may be needed and we can help them with a good plaque control program. |
| What are some common side effects of anticonvulsant meds? (6) | Drowsiness Slow mental activity Dizziness Ataxia (an inability to coordinate voluntary muscle movements) GI upset Allergic signs (rash, etc.) |
| What 3 seizure types are not a med emergency? | Simple focal, myoclonic, & absence seizure |
| What to do in the event of a focal complex or tonic-clonic seizure? (5) | 1.) Protect the pt. from injury 2.)Remove sharp instruments, 3.) Stabilize but allow pt. to move if needed 4.) Do NOT put anything in their mouth 5.) Keep track of Time the length of the seizure and note the symptoms |
| What to do if pt has an aura? | Move the patient to the floor, or leave in dental chair but turn on side to prevent choking |
| 3 other basic things to do during seizure? | Provide BLS, Maintain open airway, CPR is necessary |
| What is an issue with people who have seizures and their medication? | They may not take medication as directed, because you have to take it for entire life. |
| 5 questions to ask someone with seizures during MHx? (5) | 1.) Type of seizures 1.) Age at onset 2.) Cause if known 3.) Current medications, knowing side effects and interactions with tx. 4.) Frequency of physician visits |
| 2 more important questions? | 1.) Frequency of seizures and date of last seizure 2.) Any known precipitating (triggering) factors |
| Purpose of asking about frequency of seizures and date of last seizure? | Patients having more than one seizure a month are under poor control and treatment must be postponed! |
| When must you consult with a physician before treatment? | If patient has questionable history or poorly controlled seizures |
| What sleep disorders can exacerbate seizures? (3) | Sleep apnea, insomnia, narcolepsy |
| Most common complaint in dentistry? | Chronic pain. |
| What must you ask pt. who complains of chronic pain? | What type of pain? What meds are you on? (to assess tx contraindications) |
| 5 mental disorders commonly seen in dentistry? (5) | Phobias, anxiety, depression, bipolar, schizophrenic |
| Almost all drugs taken for mental disorders cause what? | xerostomia. |