Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Path Micro Exam 3
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Type II necrotizing fasciitis is most commonly caused by which organism? A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Clostridium perfringes C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Group A streptococcus | D. Group A streptococcus |
| Type I necrotizing fasciitis is generally characterized as what type of infection? A. Viral B. Monomicrobial C. Polymicrobial D. Fungal | C. Polymicrobial |
| 3. The clinical manifestation of Necrotizing Fasciitis (Type II) caused by Group A strep often begins at the site of trauma or what? A. Dental abscesses B. Insect bites C. Surgical incisions D. Inhalation of spores | C. Surgical incisions |
| Diagnosis of NF caused by Group A strep may reveal Gram-positive cocci in aspirated fluid with few or no what? A. Red Blood Cells (RBCs) B. White Blood Cells (WBCs) C. Endospores D. Hyaluronic acid capsules | B. White Blood Cells (WBCs |
| Necrotizing fasciitis caused by group A streptococcus is sometimes referred to by which common term? A. Hot tub folliculitis B. Spontaneous gangrene C. Lion-like syndrome D. Streptococcal gangrene | D. Streptococcal gangrene |
| Ecthyma gangrenosum is associated with sepsis and bacteremia caused by P. aeruginosa most often in which patient group? A. Infants B. Older adults with diabetes C. Healthy children D. Immunocompromised patients | D. Immunocompromised patients |
| P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative bacillus commonly found in the environment, especially in which habitat? A. Soil and sediment B. The human GI tract C. Mammalian upper respiratory tract D. Water | D. water |
| Hot tub folliculitis caused by P. aeruginosa typically develops within what timeframe after exposure to contaminated water? A. 1–3 hours B. 8–48 hours C. 3–5 days D. 1–2 weeks | B. 8–48 hours |
| Which color pigment produced by P. aeruginosa is described as fluorescent green? A. Pyocyanin B. Endotoxin C. Exotoxin A D. Pyoverdin | D. Pyoverdin |
| 10. Which virulence factor of P. aeruginosa functions by inhibiting elongation factor 2 (EF-2), thereby paralyzing host cell protein synthesis? A. Pyocyanin pigment B. Exotoxin A C. Endotoxin D. Phospholipase C | B. Exotoxin A |
| What is the appear. of lesions of Ecthyma gangrenosum after macules appear? A. fluid bullae B. Papules progressing to vesicles with golden crusts C. Rapid evolution into areas of induration develop into pustules/ bluish bullae, leads to gangrenous ulcers | Rapid evolution into areas of induration that develop into pustules and/or bluish bullae, leading to gangrenous ulcers |
| In P. aeruginosa burn infections, a colony count of how many organisms per gram of tissue, obtained from a biopsy, indicates infection rather than normal colonization? A. 10 ^3 B. 10 ^4 C. 10^5D. 106 | C 10^5 |
| 14. In the United States, which animal serves as a reservoir for Mycobacterium leprae? A. Raccoons B. Armadillos C. Dogs D. Cats | B. Armadillos |
| What advanced physical feature is associated with the lepromatous form of leprosy? A. Punched-out ulcers with purplish margins B. Golden crusts on the face C. Tachycardia in the absence of fever D. Lion-like facial appearance | D. Lion-like facial appearance |
| Clostridium perfringes and Clostridium septicum are classified as Gram-positive bacilli characterized by what distinct shape? A. Club-shaped B. Pleomorphic C. Oval D. Boxcar-shaped | D. Boxcar-shaped |
| What is the common term for Clostridial myonecrosis? A. Erysipelas B. Necrotizing fasciitis C. Gas gangrene D. Cutaneous anthrax | C. Gas gangrene |
| Which clinical sign of clostridial myonecrosis is directly related to the gas produced in the infected tissues? A. Leukocytosis B. High fever C. Crepitus D. Nikolsky sign | C. Crepitus |
| Traumatic gas gangrene, often associated with contaminated wounds like compound fractures, is usually caused by which organism? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Clostridium septicum C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Clostridium perfringes | D. Clostridium perfringes |
| Spontaneous gas gangrene, which originates from the GI tract via muscle seeding, is usually caused by which organism? A. Clostridium perfringes B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Bacillus anthracis D. Clostridium septicum | D. Clostridium septicum |
| What characteristic is associated with C. perfringes growth on blood agar? A. Beta-hemolysis (narrow zone) B. Gamma-hemolysis (non-hemolytic) C. “Double-zone” hemolysis D. Alpha-hemolysis | C. “Double-zone” hemolysis |
| A clinical manifestation of traumatic gas gangrene is rapid discoloration of the skin over the infected area in which sequence? A. Bronze → Purple → Pale → Red B. Pale Bronze Purple Red C. Red → Bronze → Pale → Purple D. Purple → Red → Bronze → Pale | B. Pale Bronze Purple Red |
| Bacillus anthracis is the only known bacterium to possess a polypeptide capsule composed of what material? A. PGA (poly-D--glutamic acid) B. Lipopolysaccharide C. M protein D. Hyaluronic acid | A. PGA (poly-D--glutamic acid) |
| Colonies of Bacillus anthracis on culture media are often described as having which appearance? A. Honey-colored crust B. Boxcar-shaped C. “Medusa head” or “comet-tail” D. Double-zone hemolysis | C. “Medusa head” or “comet-tail” |
| The tripartite anthrax toxin includes Protective Antigen (PA), Edema Factor (EF), and which other component? A. Exfoliatin B. Alpha-toxin C. Panton-Valentine Leucocidin (PVL) D. Lethal factor (LF) | D. Lethal factor (LF) |
| The characteristic lesion of cutaneous anthrax is a painless necrotic ulcer featuring what central element? A. A raised, sharply demarcated border B. A large bulla filled with clear fluid C. A black depressed eschar D. Golden crusts | C. A black depressed eschar |
| Non-bullous impetigo lesions classically progress to form thick adherent crusts with what appearance? A. Purplish hue B. Golden appearance C. Blue-green hue D. Black depressed | B. Golden appearance |
| Which skin infection is defined as a deep inflammatory nodule extending into subcutaneous tissue that develops from preceding folliculitis? A. Erysipelas B. Cellulitis C. Carbuncle (involves multiple follicles) D. Furuncle (or boil) | D. Furuncle (or boil) |
| Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS) is caused by S. aureus strains that produce which type of toxin? A. Endotoxin B. Lethal factor C. Exfoliative exotoxin D. Enterotoxin A | C. Exfoliative exotoxin |
| A positive Nikolsky sign (skin blistering from gentle mechanical pressure) is a diagnostic clue for which condition, typically seen in younger children? A. Lepromatous leprosy B. Scalded Skin Syndrome C. Cutaneous anthrax D. Necrotizing fasciitis | B. Scalded Skin Syndrome |
| S. aureus can typically be isolated from the primary site of infection (such as nasopharynx and conjunctiva) in SSSS, but what characteristic is true about intact bullae? A. contain S. aureus B. require PCR testing C. sterile D. They reveal Gram+ rods | C. sterile |
| Cellulitis is defined as an acute spreading infection of the skin involving which tissues? A. Fascia and muscle B. Hair follicles only C. Subcutaneous tissues D. The epidermis only | C. Subcutaneous tissues |
| The borders of S. aureus cellulitis, as described in the sources, are generally not raised but are what? A. Purplish B. Painless C. Fluctuant D. Well demarcated | D. Well demarcated |
| Which S. aureus secreted toxin is a protease that cleaves the epidermis specifically at the granular layer, causing Scalded Skin Syndrome? A. Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST) B. Enterotoxin A C. Exfoliatin D. Protein A | C. Exfoliatin |
| The S. aureus virulence factor Protein A prevents complement activation by binding to which fragment of IgG? A. The Fd fragment B. The Fab fragment C. The Fc fragment D. The Variable region | C. The Fc fragment |
| S. aureus Panton-Valentine Leucocidin (PVL) kills white blood cells (WBCs) by damaging what? A. DNA B. Ribosomes C. Hyaluronic acid D. Cell membranes | D. Cell membranes |
| Streptococcus pyogenes is the predominant member of which Lancefield antigen group? A. Group B B. Group A C. Group C D. Group D | B. Group A |
| Which virulence factor utilized by Group A streptococci helps prevent phagocytosis and is known for molecular mimicry? A. Exotoxin A B. Streptokinase C. Hyaluronidase D. M protein | D. M protein |
| Which GAS virulence factor digests fibrin, preventing blood clotting and thereby allowing the bacteria to spread? A. Streptodornase B. Exotoxin B C. Streptokinase D. Streptolysin O | C. Streptokinase |
| Erysipelas is a type of cellulitis usually caused by Group A streptococci and is characterized by a lesion with... A. Painless black eschar B. Clear, hemorrhagic bullae C. advancing raised border-sharply demarcated D. Generalized painful rash | C. An advancing raised border that is sharply demarcated |
| Ecthyma is described as the ulcerative form of which other skin infection? A. Folliculitis B. Impetigo C. Cellulitis D. Erysipelas | B. Impetigo |
| When Erysipelas appears on the face, which areas are usually involved? A. Chin and jawline B. Forehead and temples C. Cheeks and bridge of nose D. Lips and perioral area | C. Cheeks and bridge of nose |
| Which term describes a raised, circumscribed, fluid-filled skin lesion greater than 1 cm, exemplified by gas gangrene bullae? A. Vesicle B. Pustule C. Bulla D. Papule | C. Bulla |
| Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis most commonly affects the long bones in which patient group? A. Immunosuppressed adults B. Prepubertal children C. Adults with vertebral involvement D. Patients with prosthetic joints | B. Prepubertal children |
| Which Gram-negative bacillus is the most common cause of "tennis shoe osteomyelitis" resulting from a puncture wound through the sole of a shoe? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Pasteurella multocida C. Salmonella D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa | D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
| Osteomyelitis involving the vertebrae (vertebral osteomyelitis) is a form of hematogenous osteomyelitis most commonly seen in which patient group? A. Neonates B. Children C. Adolescents D. Adult | D. Adults |
| Which virulence factor produced by S. aureus prevents complement activation by binding to the Fc fragment of IgG? A. Coagulase B. Teichoic acid C. Panton-Valentine Leucocidin (PVL) D. Protein A | D. Protein A |
| The S. aureus Panton-Valentine Leucocidin (PVL) causes damage to host cells by targeting which component? A. Cell membranes (killing WBCs) B. Host cell DNA C. The fibrin matrix D. Elongation factor 2 (EF-2) | A. Cell membranes (killing WBCs) |
| The S. aureus virulence factor responsible for initiating fibrin polymerization, thus surrounding the organism with a fibrin capsule, is: A. Exfoliatin B. Catalase C. Coagulase D. Staphylotoxin | C. Coagulase |
| Which S. aureus toxin is a heat-stable and acid-stable superantigen-like toxin associated with food poisoning? A. Exfoliatin A B. Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST) C. Panton-Valentine Leucocidin (PVL) D. Enterotoxin A | D. Enterotoxin A |
| S. aureus employs which enzyme to inactivate intracellular superoxide function? A. Hyaluronidase B. Phospholipase C C. Coagulase D. Staphylotoxin | D. Staphylotoxin |
| How does the S. aureus virulence factor Peptidoglycan trigger a sepsis cascade? A. It binds to the Fc portion of IgG. B. It has endotoxin-like properties. C. It degrades tissue membranes. D. It cleaves the epidermis. | B. It has endotoxin-like properties |
| The capsule produced by S. aureus isolates primarily serves which function? A. Liquefying pus B. Mediating adherence to mucosal cells C. Antiphagocytic protection D. Inducing cytokines | C. Antiphagocytic protection |
| Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxins (TSST) produced by S. aureus function as superantigens that bind to MHC class II and the Vβ region of the what? A. B-cell receptor B. T-cell receptor C. Phagocyte surface receptor D. Neutrophil membrane | B. T-cell receptor |
| Which S. aureus virulence factor is a catalase that performs what function? A. Degrades fibrin B. Binds to IgG C. Degrades neutrophil derived hydrogen peroxide D. Stimulates the vomiting center | C. Degrades neutrophil derived hydrogen peroxide |
| S. aureus Teichoic acid functions primarily by mediating adherence of the organism to mucosal cells and by inducing what? A. Coagulation B. Hemolysis C. Cytokines D. Phagocytosis | C. Cytokines |
| Which secreted toxin produced by S. aureus is associated with Bullous Impetigo? A. TSST B. Enterotoxin A C. PVL D. Exfoliative toxin A | D. Exfoliative toxin A |
| Adhesins are virulence factors found on the cell surface of S. aureus that primarily facilitate what action? A. Degrading DNA B. Inhibiting complement C. Adherence to host D. Catalyzing hydrogen peroxide | C. Adherence to host |
| The M protein of Group A streptococci (GAS) is crucial because it helps prevent phagocytosis and is involved in what process? A. Fibrin digestion B. Cytokine induction C. Molecular mimicry D. Degrading cell membranes | C. Molecular mimicry |
| Which GAS virulence factor is an exotoxin that degrades the cell membrane and lyses red blood cells (RBCs), leading to β-hemolysis? A. Streptodornase B. Exotoxin B C. Hyaluronidase D. Streptolysin O | D. Streptolysin O |
| What is the composition of the capsule produced by Group A streptococci that inhibits phagocytosis? A. Poly-D-γ-glutamic acid (PGA) B. Hyaluronic acid C. Lipopolysaccharide D. Peptidoglycan | B. Hyaluronic acid |
| Streptokinase, a GAS virulence factor sometimes called Fibrinolysin, acts to: A. Liquefy thick pus B. Induce cell death C. Digest fibrin, preventing blood clotting D. Damage cilia and mucosa | C. Digest fibrin, preventing blood clotting |
| Which GAS virulence factor breaks down the hyaluronic acid of tissue, thereby favoring the spread of infection? A. Streptokinase B. Streptolysin O C. Hyaluronidase D. Exotoxin A | C. Hyaluronidase |
| Streptodornase (or DNase) produced by Group A strep aids in the spread of infection by depolymerizing DNA, which helps to do what? A. Promote adherence B. Inhibit complement C. Cause hemorrhage D. Liquefy thick pus | D. Liquefy thick pus |
| Which GAS virulence factor is specifically cited in the sources as being associated with Necrotizing Fasciitis? A. Erythrogenic toxin B. Streptolysin O C. Pyrogenic exotoxin A D. Exotoxin B | D. Exotoxin B |
| Pyrogenic exotoxin A is associated with Group A Streptococcus causing which severe condition? A. Erysipelas B. Impetigo C. Scarlet fever D. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome | D. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome |
| The function of the Hyaluronic acid capsule of S. pyogenes is to: A. Promote adherence B. Degrade host membranes C. Inhibit phagocytosis D. Stimulate vomiting | C. Inhibit phagocytosis |
| Bacillus anthracis is the only known bacterium to possess a polypeptide capsule composed of what material? A. Hyaluronic acid B. Endotoxin C. Teichoic acid D. PGA (poly-D--glutamic acid) | D. PGA (poly-D--glutamic acid) |
| The anthrax toxin is described as a tripartite toxin, meaning it consists of three components. Which component induces cell death? A. Protective antigen (PA) B. Lethal factor (LF) C. Edema factor (EF) D. Exotoxin A | B. Lethal factor (LF) |
| Which component of the B. anthracis tripartite toxin mediates the entry of Lethal Factor (LF) or Edema Factor (EF) into host cells? A. Protective antigen (PA) B. Poly-D-γ-glutamic acid (PGA) capsule C. Edema factor (EF) D. Exotoxin B | A. Protective antigen (PA) |
| The polypeptide capsule of B. anthracis functions primarily to: A. Induce cytokine release B. Cause fever C. Break down tissue membranes D. Prevent phagocytosis | D. Prevent phagocytosis |
| The Edema factor (EF) component of the anthrax toxin is an adenylyl cyclase that performs what function? A. Inhibits EF-2 B. Cleaves the granular layer C. Digests fibrin D. Impairs host defenses | D. Impairs host defenses |
| P. aeruginosa Exotoxin A paralyzes host cell protein synthesis by inhibiting which factor? A. Edema factor (EF) B. Protective antigen (PA) C. Lethal factor (LF) D. Elongation factor 2 (EF-2) | D. Elongation factor 2 (EF-2) |
| Which P. aeruginosa virulence factor is a Gram-negative component associated with septic shock? A. Exotoxin A B. Pyocyanin pigment C. Endotoxin D. Phospholipase C | C. Endotoxin |
| The P. aeruginosa virulence factor Elastase is responsible for enabling what process? A. Antiphagocytosis B. Inhibition of protein synthesis C. Damaging respiratory cilia D. Allowing dissemination | D. Allowing dissemination |
| Which P. aeruginosa virulence factor is described as damaging membranes and liberating phosphates? A. Pyoverdin pigment B. Phospholipase C C. Exotoxin A D. Pyocyanin pigment | B. Phospholipase C |
| The Pyocyanin pigment produced by P. aeruginosa damages what components of the respiratory tract? A. Phospholipids B. Cilia and mucosa C. Endothelial cells D. Alveolar macrophages | B. Cilia and mucosa |
| The fluorescent green pigment produced by P. aeruginosa is known by which name? A. Pyocyanin B. Pyoverdin C. Pyotoxin D. Pyrogenic exotoxin A | B. Pyoverdin |
| The α-toxin of C. perfringes functions as a type of enzyme that degrades cell membranes. What is this enzyme class? A. Metalloprotease B. Collagenase C. Phospholipase (lecithinase) D. Kinase | C. Phospholipase (lecithinase) |
| Beyond α-toxin, C. perfringes and C. septicum often produce a variety of enzymes including hemolysins, proteases, collagenase, hyaluronidase, DNase, and what other factor? A. Elastase B. M protein C. Neuraminidase D. PMT | C. Neuraminidase |
| Pasteurella multocida toxin (PMT) is noted for what specific characteristic? A. Highly acid-stable B. Cytotoxic C. Antiphagocytic D. Inhibiting elongation factor 2 | B. Cytotoxic |
| Which virulence factor of P. multocida acts to break down hyaluronic acid in host tissue, favoring spread of infection? A. Lipopolysaccharide B. Hyaluronidase C. Sialidases D. PMT | B. Hyaluronidase |
| P. multocida employs specific surface adhesins for what purpose? A. Triggering sepsis cascades B. Generating gas in tissues C. Adherence to host D. Degrading hydrogen peroxide | C. Adherence to host |
| In addition to a capsule and adhesins, P. multocida utilizes which virulence factors for acquiring necessary nutrients? A. Sialidases B. Lipopolysaccharide C. Hyaluronidase D. Iron acquisition proteins | D. Iron acquisition proteins |
| Which factor, categorized as a virulence component of P. multocida, is a large molecule found on the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria? A. Hyaluronidase B. PMT C. Lipopolysaccharide D. Capsule | C. Lipopolysaccharide |
| P. multocida produces which enzyme, listed as a virulence factor in the sources? A. Catalase B. Sialidases C. Coagulase D. DNase | B. Sialidases |
| The capsule of Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae) functions by inhibiting phagocytosis and the deposition of what host component? A. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) B. Complement C. Fibrin D. Hydrogen peroxide | B. Complement |
| CAMP factor produced by GBS is a phospholipase that enhances hemolysis caused by which co-cultured organism? A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Clostridium perfringes D. Group A streptococcus | B. Staphylococcus aureus |
| How does the GBS capsule protect the bacteria? A. By digesting fibrin B. By destroying WBC membranes C. By inhibiting phagocytosis D. By degrading host DNA | C. By inhibiting phagocytosis |
| What type of molecule is the CAMP factor of GBS? A. A superantigen B. An enterotoxin C. A protease D. A phospholipase | D. A phospholipase |
| Which Streptococcus pyogenes virulence factor is referred to as "Spreading Factor" due to its ability to break down hyaluronic acid in tissue? A. Streptokinase B. M protein C. Streptolysin O D. Hyaluronidase | D. Hyaluronidase |
| Which bacterial virulence factor mentioned in the sources is a superantigen toxin that binds MHC Class II? A. Exfoliatin B. Protein A C. α-toxin D. Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxins (TSST) | D. Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxins (TSST) |
| Which characterizes NF Type II (GAS) 24-72 hours post-onset? A. Mild erythema, low fever, localized pain. B. Painless red macules → gangrenous ulcers. C. Dusky skin, purplish bullae, high fever, severe pain. D. Papules → vesicles → erythema. | C. Dusky skin, purplish bullae, high fever, severe pain |
| Hot tub folliculitis, developing 8–48 hours after exposure, is typically caused by which organism? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Clostridium septicum C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Group A Streptococcus | C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
| Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis of long bones is most common in prepubertal children and often follows what? A. Uro-sepsis. B. Vascular disease in diabetics. C. Minor trauma. D. Salmonella bacteremia. | C. Minor trauma |
| What is the progression of the cutaneous anthrax lesion? A. Papule → vesicle/bulla → golden crust. B. Macules → bluish bullae → gangrenous ulcers. C. Papule central vesicle painless necrotic ulcer with black eschar. D. Macular lesions → lesions. | C. Papule central vesicle painless necrotic ulcer with black eschar. |
| Following severe pain in traumatic gas gangrene, the skin color progresses in which order? A. Red → blue-green hue → black eschar. B. Pale → bronze→ purple→ red. C. Brown → purplish blue → black (dry gangrene). D. Erythema → bullae → purplish hue. | B. Pale bronze purple red. |
| Which defines a carbuncle vs a furuncle? A. Carbuncle superficial; furuncle deep. B. Carbuncle >1cm; furuncle <1cm. C. Carbuncle involves multiple follicles into subQ fat; furuncle is deep inflam. nodule D. Carbuncle=S. aureus; furuncle=P. aeruginosa. | C. Carbuncle involves multiple follicles into subcutaneous fat; furuncle is deep inflammatory nodule |
| Define sequestrum and involucrum in bone infection. A. Sequestrum inflamm ; Involucrum swell. B. Sequestrum dead bone; Involucrum new bone around dead bone. C. Sequestrum tissue necrosis; Involucrum gas prod. D. Sequestrum: 1 microb Involucrum: polymicro. | B. Sequestrum: dead bone; Involucrum: new bone around dead bone |
| Which is NOT a listed virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A. Exotoxin A B. Elastase C. alpha-toxin (phospholipase/lecithinase) D. Phospholipase C | C. alpha-toxin (phospholipase/lecithinase) |
| Name the three components of the Bacillus anthracis tripartite anthrax toxin. A. Enterotoxin A, TSST, and Exfoliatin. B. Protective antigen , Lethal factor , Edema factor . C. Capsule, Adhesins, Protein A. D. α-toxin, Hemolysins, Hyaluronidase. | B. Protective antigen (PA), Lethal factor (LF), and Edema factor (EF) |
| How does S. aureus's Coagulase factor function? A. Degrades hydrogen peroxide. B. Binds to the Fc fragment of IgG. C. Initiates fibrin polymerization, surrounding the organism with a fibrin capsule. D. Cleaves the epidermis at the granular layer | C. Initiates fibrin polymerization, surrounding the organism with a fibrin capsule |
| P. aeruginosa Exotoxin A paralyzes host cell protein synthesis by inhibiting which factor? A. α-toxin (Lecithinase). B. Elongation factor 2 (EF-2). C. CAMP factor (Phospholipase). D. M Protein. | B. Elongation factor 2 (EF-2) |
| Where are the genes for the B. anthracis polypeptide capsule (PGA) and the anthrax toxin encoded? A. Both factors on pX01. B. Capsule on pX02; Toxin on pX01. C. Toxin on pX02; Capsule on pX01. D. Both factors on the bacterial chromosome. | B. Capsule on pX02; Toxin on pX01. |
| Streptokinase (fibrinolysin) digests fibrin. Which infection is associated with this factor in the guide? A. Erysipelas B. Cellulitis C. Impetigo D. Pharyngitis | C. Impetigo |
| Hyaluronidase breaks down hyaluronic acid (spreading factor). Which infection is associated with it? A. Cellulitis B. Erysipelas C. Impetigo D. Pharyngitis | B. Erysipelas |
| M protein helps prevent phagocytosis. Which skin infection is associated with this factor in the guide? A. Impetigo B. Erysipelas C. Cellulitis D. Necrotizing fasciitis | C. Cellulitis |
| Streptodornase (DNase) liquefies pus. What infection is associated with DNase in the guide? A. Pharyngitis B. Necrotizing fasciitis C. Cellulitis D. Ecthyma | A. Pharyngitis |
| How are S. aureus & S. pyogenes differentiated by catalase and cell arrangement? A. S. aureus Cat-, Chains S. pyogenes Cat+, Clusters B. S. aureus Cat+, Clusters S. pyogenes Cat-, Chains C. Both Cat+ different. by coag. D. Both Cat- different by oxidase | B. S. aureus (Cat+, Clusters); S. pyogenes (Cat-, Chains) |
| Which are specific laboratory characteristics of P. aeruginosa? A. Gram-positive, Endospore former, Double-zone hemolysis. B. Aerobic, Acid-fast, Cannot grow in lab. C. G- bacillus, Catalase+, Oxidase+, Non-fermenter. D. G+ diplococci, Catalase- , CAMP+ | C. G- bacillus, Catalase+, Oxidase+, Non-fermenter |
| What distinct hemolytic pattern is characteristic of Clostridium perfringes on blood agar? A. Beta-hemolysis (narrow zone) B. Non-hemolytic C. Alpha-hemolysis D. “Double-zone” hemolysis | D. “Double-zone” hemolysis |
| What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Group B Streptococcus (S. agalactiae)? A. Gamma-hemolysis (non-hemolytic) B. Alpha-hemolysis C. Beta-hemolysis (very narrow zone) D. Double-zone hemolysis | C. Beta-hemolysis (very narrow zone) |
| How are Vesicle and Bulla determined by size and which infection is a Bulla A. Vesicle flat <1cm; Bulla raised >1cm. B. Vesicle raised, fluidfilled <cm; Bulla raised fluidfilled >cm. C. Vesicle pustule; Bulla nodule. D. Vesicle impetigo; Bulla cellulitis. | B. Vesicle: raised, fluid-filled <cm; Bulla: raised, fluid-filled >cm |
| What is the definition of a Macule? A. Raised, circumscribed, dome-shaped lesion <1cm. B. Raised, usually <1cm, filled with pus. C. Flat, circumscribed, cm, color different from surrounding skin (e.g., freckle). D. Raised, circumscribed, >1cm lesion. | C. Flat, circumscribed, cm, color different from surrounding skin |
| Erysipelas commonly affects which body areas and age groups? A. Neck, face; young adults and middle-aged. B. Armpits, buttocks; adolescents. C. Lower extremities, face; infants, young children, and older adults. D. Trunk, hands; prepubertal children. | C. Lower extremities, face; infants, young children, and older adults |
| Furuncles and carbuncles are commonly found on which areas? A. Face, neck, arms, hands. B. Back of neck, face, armpits, and buttocks. C. Anogenital and axillary areas. D. Lower extremities. | B. Back of neck, face, armpits, and buttocks |
| A 26-year-old woman presents with an itchy rash on her legs and trunk after bathing in a redwood hot tub | Hot tub folliculitis |
| A 60-year-old man with neutropenia following cancer chemotherapy presents with fever and dark skin lesions | Ecthyma gangrenosum |
| A 40-year-old man in a burn unit becomes febrile and develops progressive necrosis of his arm with a blue-green hue | P. aeruginosa burn infection |
| A 27-year-old man was stabbed 3 days ago. He has muscle pain, a crackling sound (crepitus) when palpating the wound, and the wound exudes a blackish foul-smelling fluid | Traumatic Clostridial myonecrosis (gas gangrene) |
| A 20-year-old sustained an open tibial fracture and had surgery (ORIF). Three months later, he presents with swelling, pain, redness, and cloudy drainage from the surgical site | Contiguous Spread Osteomyelitis: Infected fracture |
| A 49-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes has an ulcer on his great toe that has enlarged, with swelling and erythema. A probe inserted into the ulcer touched bone | Diabetic Foot Infection (Osteomyelitis) |
| A 5-year-old boy fell off his bicycle two weeks ago. He has fever and chills, stopped walking, and X-rays show soft tissue swelling and periostial thickening | Acute Hematogenous Osteomyelitis |
| A 55-year-old woman (post-heart attack) develops fever and chills. Blood cultures grow S. aureus. She then develops dull, continuous lower back pain | Hematogenous Osteomyelitis: Vertebral Osteomyelitis |
| A 7-year-old boy presents with red, itchy sores around his mouth and nose, some of which have burst, producing a honey-colored crust | Non-bullous Impetigo |
| A 20-year-old man presents with bumps on his face | Folliculitis |
| A 9-month-old presents with irritability, malaise, fever, lethargy, and a generalized painful rash | Scalded Skin Syndrome (Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome) |
| A 42-year-old man presents with a non-painful, enlarging lesion on his left hand following a minor injury. The lesion is drained, and the material is Gram stained | Cellulitis |
| P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative bacillus characterized as what? A. Oxidase-negative, Fermenter. B. Oxidase-positive, Non-fermenter. C. Catalase-negative, Fermenter. D. Oxidase-positive, Fermenter. | B. Oxidase-positive, Non-fermenter |
| How is a Vesicle defined? A. Flat lesion >1cm. B. Raised, fluid-filled lesion cm. C. Pus-filled lesion <1cm. D. Raised lesion >1cm. | B. Raised, fluid-filled lesion cm |
| Which lesion is a raised, dome-shaped, circumscribed area <1cm? A. Macule. B. Nodule. C. Papule. D. Bulla. | C. Papule |
| A raised, circumscribed lesion <1cm filled with pus is called what? A. Bulla. B. Vesicle. C. Pustule. D. Nodule. | C. Pustule |
| In osteomyelitis, what is a sequestrum? A. Sheath of new bone. B. Piece of dead bone separated from normal bone. C. Infected soft tissue. D. Pus collection | B. Piece of dead bone separated from normal bone. |
| What is the involucrum in chronic osteomyelitis? A. Dead bone fragment. B. Sheath of new bone around a sequestrum. C. Sinus tract. D. Bone biopsy | B. Sheath of new bone around a sequestrum |
| Group B Strep produces CAMP factor, which acts as what type of virulence factor? A. Collagenase. B. DNase. C. Phospholipase. D. Protease. | C. Phospholipase |
| S. aureus Protein A binds the Fc fragment of IgG to prevent what host process? A. Neutralization. B. Lysis. C. Adherence. D. Opsonization/complement activation. | D. Opsonization/complement activation |
| Cutaneous anthrax lesions are found 90% of the time on which areas? A. Trunk and face. B. Lower extremities. C. Face, neck, arms, hands. D. Axilla and groin | C. Face, neck, arms, hands |
| NF Type I is polymicrobial, including anaerobes, Enterobacteriaceae, and what? A. S. aureus. B. Group A Streptococcus. C. Facultative anaerobic streptococci (non-Group A). D. P. aeruginosa. | C. Facultative anaerobic streptococci (non-Group A) |
| Mycobacterium leprae requires what unusual growth condition? A. Gram-positive, motile. B. Anaerobic, spore former. C. Aerobic, acid-fast, cannot grow in lab. D. Gram-negative, encapsulated. | C. Aerobic, acid-fast, cannot grow in lab |
| Which advanced sign is characteristic of Lepromatous leprosy? A. Anesthetic lesions. B. Regional lymphadenopathy. C. Lion-like facial appearance and earlobe thickening. D. Small hypopigmented lesions. | C. Lion-like facial appearance and earlobe thickening |
| The Clostridium perfringes α-toxin functions as what? A. Superantigen. B. DNase. C. Phospholipase (lecithinase). D. Hyaluronidase. | C. Phospholipase (lecithinase) |
| What is unique about the Bacillus anthracis capsule? A. Polysaccharide. B. Polypeptide (PGA). C. Hyaluronic Acid. D. Lipopolysaccharide. | B. Polypeptide (PGA) |
| Which description fits non-bullous impetigo? A. Flaccid bullae. B. Black eschar. C. Papules vesicles golden crusts. D. Bluish bullae. | C. Papules vesicles golden crusts |
| Ecthyma gangrenosum lesions rapidly progress from painless red macules to what? A. Honey crusts. B. Bluish bullae gangrenous ulcers. C. Pustules on hair follicles. D. Raised, red borders. | B. Bluish bullae gangrenous ulcers |
| NF Type II treatment uses penicillin plus clindamycin for what effect? A. Anti-inflammatory. B. Anti-toxin effect. C. Anti-fungal effect. D. Pain relief. | B. Anti-toxin effect |
| Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is resistant to which antibiotic disk test? A. Penicillin. B. Bacitracin. C. Nafcillin. D. Cephalexin. | B. Bacitracin |
| S. aureus Protein A binds the Fc fragment of IgG, preventing what process? A. Agglutination. B. Neutralization. C. Opsonization/phagocytosis. D. Hemolysis. | C. Opsonization/phagocytosis |
| Where in the long bones does Acute Hematogenous Osteomyelitis most often occur? A. Diaphysis. B. Epiphysis. C. Metaphysis. D. Joint space. | C. Metaphysis |
| . aureus exfoliative exotoxin cleaves the epidermis at what layer to cause SSS? A. Basal layer. B. Granular layer. C. Dermis. D. Stratum corneum. | B. Granular layer |
| Histopathology of muscle in spontaneous gas gangrene shows what key feature? A. Profuse H 2 O 2 production. B. Inflammatory cells absent. C. Significant leukocytosis. D. High collagen deposits. | B. Inflammatory cells absent |
| S. aureus Peptidoglycan can trigger the sepsis cascade because it possesses what property? A. Capsule-forming. B. Coagulase-like. C. Endotoxin-like. D. Lipase-like. | C. Endotoxin-like |
| Which specific Group A Streptococcus exotoxin is associated with causing Necrotizing fasciitis? A. Exotoxin A. B. Exotoxin B. C. Streptolysin O. D. Streptokinase. | B. Exotoxin B |
| Which organism commonly causes Contiguous Spread Osteomyelitis after cat bites? A. S. aureus. B. Bartonella henselae. C. Pasteurella multocida. D. S. epidermidis. | C. Pasteurella multocida |
| Osteomyelitis following a tennis shoe puncture wound is most often caused by what organism? A. S. aureus. B. Clostridium septicum. C. P. aeruginosa. D. Enterococcus faecalis. | C. P. aeruginosa |
| Which Clostridium species is usually responsible for the spontaneous presentation of gas gangrene? A. C. perfringes. B. C. difficile. C. C. septicum. D. C. tetani. | C. C. septicum |
| Bacillus anthracis colonies grown on agar have been described as having what specific shape? A. Honeycomb. B. Medusa head. C. Flocculent. D. String of pearls. | B. Medusa head |
| Besides GAS, which opportunistic pathogen was cited as a cause of Necrotizing fasciitis Type II? A. E. coli. B. Acinetobacter baumannii. C. Candida albicans. D. S. epidermidis. | B. Acinetobacter baumannii |
| GBS produces CAMP factor, a phospholipase, which enhances hemolysis caused by what other organism? A. E. coli. B. P. aeruginosa. C. S. aureus. D. S. pneumoniae. | C. S. aureus |
| The Tuberculoid form of leprosy is defined by lesions that are anesthetic and have what key feature? A. Deep central eschar. B. Well-defined, raised-edge margin. C. Flaccid bullae. D. Nodular thickening. | B. Well-defined, raised-edge margin |
| Which type of cellulitis has borders that are NOT typically raised but are well demarcated? A. Erysipelas. B. S. aureus cellulitis. C. Necrotizing fasciitis. D. Group A strep cellulitis. | B. S. aureus cellulitis |
Created by:
Kayla_K