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QuestionAnswer
1. Some electric motors have two sets of field windings wound in opposite directions so that the a. speed of the motor can be more closely controlled. b. power output of the motor can be more closely controlled. c. motor can be operated in clockwise direction or counter clockwise direction. C
4. An APU is usually rotated during start by a. a pneumatic starter. b. a turbine impingement system. c. an electric starter. C
5. The component(s) in a turbine engine that operate(s) at the highest temperatures is/are the a. exhaust cone. b. turbine disks. c. first stage turbine nozzle guide vanes. c.
6. The greatest portion of heat generated by combustion in a typical aircraft reciprocating engine is a. carried out with the exhaust gases. b. converted into useful power. c. dissipated through the cylinder walls and heads. A
7. What is the position of the cowl flaps during engine starting and warmup operations under normal conditions? a. Open for starting, closed for warmup. b. Full closed at all times. c. Full open at all times. c.
9. If the points in a vibrator-type voltage regulator stick in the closed position while the generator is operating, what will be the probable result? a. Generator output voltage will decrease. b. Generator output voltage will not be affected. c. Generator output voltage will increase. c.
11.(Refer to Figure 4.) In a 28-volt system, what is the maximum continuous current that can be carried by a single No. 10 copper wire 25 feet long, routed in free air? a. 35 amperes. b. 28 amperes. c. 20 amperes. c.
13. What type of nuts are used to hold an exhaust system to the cylinders? a. High-temperature fiber self-locking nuts. b. Brass or heat-resistant nuts. c. High-temperature aluminum self-locking nuts. c.
14. Dislodged internal muffler baffles on a small reciprocating engine may a. cause the engine to run excessively cool. b. cause high fuel and oil consumption. c. obstruct the muffler outlet and cause excessive exhaust back pressure. c.
15. What could be a result of undetected exhaust system leaks in a reciprocating engine powered airplane? a. Pilot/passenger incapacitation caused by carbon monoxide entering the cabin. b. Too low exhaust back pressure resulting in the desired power settings not being attained. c. A rough-running engine with increased fuel consumption. A.
16. (Refer to Figure 2.) Determine the fire-extinguisher container pressure limits when the temperature is 75 degrees F. a. 338 minimum and 424 maximum. b. 326 minimum and 415 maximum. c. 330 minimum and 419 maximum. c.
17. The explosive cartridge in the discharge valve of a fire-extinguisher container is a. mechanically fired. b. not a life-dated unit. c. a life-dated unit. c.
18. Why does one type of Fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors wired in parallel between two separate circuits? a. To provide an installation that is equal to two separate systems: a primary system and a secondary, or back-up system. b. So that a double fault may exist in the system without sounding a false alarm. c. So that a single fault may exist in the system without sounding a false alarm. c
20. The Federal Aviation Regulations require the fuel flow rate for gravity systems (main and reserve) to be a. 125 percent of the maximum, except takeoff, fuel consumption of the engine. b. 150 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of the engine. c. 125 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of the engine. b
22. Determine which portion of the AD is applicable for Model O-690 series engine, serialNo. 5863-40 with 283 hours' time in service. -- This is the compliance portion of an FAA Airworthiness Directive. Compliance required as indicated: (A) For model O-690 series engines, serial Nos. 101-40 through 5264-40 and IO-690 series engines, serial Nos. 101-48 through 423-48, compliance with (C) required within 25 hours' time in service after the effective date of this AD and every 100 hours' time in service the b
23. (1) Airworthiness Directives are Federal Aviation Regulations and must be complied with unless specific exemption is granted. \ (2) Airworthiness Directives of an emergency nature may require immediate compliance upon receipt.Regarding the above statements, a. only No. 2 is true. b. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. c. only No. 1 is true. b
26. Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the temperature of the oil a. in the oil storage tank. b. entering the engine. c. entering the oil cooler. b
28. What instrument on a gas turbine engine should be monitored to minimize the possibility of a 'hot' start? a. Torquemeter. b. RPM indicator. c. Turbine inlet temperature. c
31. A punctured float in a float-type carburetor will cause the fuel level to a. lower, and enrich the mixture. b. rise, and lean the mixture. c. rise, and enrich the mixture. c
34. If a float-type carburetor leaks fuel when the engine is stopped, a likely cause is that the a. float level is adjusted too low. b. float needle valve is worn or otherwise not seated properly. c. main air bleed is clogged. b
35. Why must a float-type carburetor supply a rich mixture during idle? a. Because at idling speeds the engine may not have enough airflow around the cylinders to provide proper cooling. b. Engine operation at idle results in higher than normal volumetric efficiency. c. Because of reduced mechanical efficiency during idle. a
36. Which of the following is least likely to occur during operation of an engine equipped with a direct cylinder fuel injection system? a. Afterfiring. b. Kickback during start. c. Backfiring. c
37. When a new carburetor is installed on an engine, a. do not adjust the idle mixture setting; this was accomplished on the flow bench. b. and the engine is warmed up to normal temperatures, adjust the idle mixture, then the idle speed. c. warm up the engine and adjust the float level. b
38. An excessively lean fuel/air mixture may cause a. an increase in cylinder head temperature. b. high oil pressure. c. backfiring through the exhaust. a
40. The E-gap angle is usually defined as the number of degrees between the neutral position of the rotating magnet and the position a. where the contact points open. b. where the contact points close. c. of greatest magnetic flux density. a
42. What is the purpose of using an impulse coupling with a magneto? a. To absorb impulse vibrations between the magneto and the engine. b. To compensate for backlash in the magneto and the engine gears. c. To produce a momentary high rotational speed of the magneto. c
43. Aircraft magneto housings are usually ventilated in order to a. provide cooling and remove corrosive gases produced by normal arcing. b. allow heated air from the accessory compartment to keep the internal parts of the magneto dry. c. prevent the entrance of outside air which may contain moisture. a
44. A certain nine-cylinder radial engine used a noncompensated single-unit, dual-type magneto with a four-pole rotating magnet and separately mounted distributors. Which of the following will have the lowest RPM at any given engine speed? a. Breaker cam. b. Engine crankshaft. c. Distributors. c
47. In a high-tension ignition system, a primary capacitor of too low a capacity will cause a. excessive primary voltage. b. excessively high secondary voltage. c. the breaker contacts to burn. c
48. Which statement is correct regarding the ignition system of a turbine engine? a. It is energized during the starting and warmup periods only. b. The system generally includes a polar inductor-type magneto. c. The system is normally de-energized as soon as the engine starts. c
50. Spark plug heat range is determined by a. the number of ground electrodes. b. the reach of the spark plug. c. its ability to transfer heat to the cylinder head. c
52. (Refer to Figure 5.) The type of system depicted is capable of operating with a. either battery or external power. b. battery power and external power simultaneously. c. external power only. a
53. Carburetor icing is most severe at a. low engine temperatures. b. high altitudes. c. air temperatures between 30 and 40 F. c
55. The action of a carburetor airscoop is to supply air to the carburetor, but it may also a. increase the pressure of the incoming air by ram effect. b. cool the engine. c. keep fuel lines cool and prevent vapor lock. a
58. What type of oil do most engine manufacturers recommend for new reciprocating engine break-in? a. Straight mineral oil. b. Semi-synthetic oil. c. Ashless-dispersant oil. a
60. Low oil pressure can be detrimental to the internal engine components. However, high oil pressure - a. has a negligible effect. b. will not occur because of pressure losses around the bearings. c. should be limited to the engine manufacturer's recommendations. c
61. What is the purpose of the check valve generally used in a dry sump lubrication system? a. To prevent the oil from the pressure pump from entering the scavenger system. b. To prevent the oil from the supply tank from seeping into the crankcase during inoperative periods. c. To prevent the scavenger pump from losing its prime. b
66. What is the purpose of an arbor used in balancing a propeller? a. To level the balance stand. b. To mark the propeller blades where weights are to be attached. c. To support the propeller on the balance knives. c
68. What will happen to the propeller blade angle and the engine RPM if the tension on the propeller governor control spring (speeder spring) is increased? a. Blade angle will increase and RPM will decrease. b. Blade angle will decrease and RPM will increase. c. Blade angle will decrease and RPM will decrease. b
70. How can a steel propeller hub be tested for cracks? - a. By magnetic particle inspection. b. By etching. c. By anodizing. a
72. The pitch-changing mechanism of the hydromatic propeller is lubricated by a. thoroughly greasing, necessary only during propeller overhaul. b. using an approved-type grease in a grease gun at intervals prescribed by the propeller manufacturer. c. the pitch-changing oil. c
73. Why is a constant-speed counterweight propeller normally placed in full HIGH PITCH position before the engine is stopped? a. To prevent hydraulic lock of the piston when the oil cools. b. To prevent overheating of the engine during the next start. c. To prevent exposure and corrosion of the pitch changing mechanism. c
77. Maximum taper contact between crankshaft and propeller hub is determined by using a. bearing blue color transfer. b. a micrometer. c. a surface gauge. a
78. Which statement is true regarding bearings used in high-powered reciprocating aircraft engines? a. Crankshaft bearings are generally of the ball-type due to their ability to withstand extreme loads without overheating. b. There is less rolling friction when ball bearings are used than when roller bearings are employed. c. The outer race of a single-row, self-aligning ball bearing will always have a radius equal to the radius of the balls. b
79. The operating temperature valve clearance of a radial engine as compared to cold valve clearance is a. the same. b. less. c. greater. c
81. Some cylinder barrels are hardened by a. tempering. b. shot peening. c. nitriding. c
82. The valve clearance of an engine using hydraulic lifters, when the lifters are completely flat, or empty, should not exceed a. 0.00 inch. b. a specified amount above zero. c. a specified amount below zero. b
83. (1) Cast iron piston rings may be used in chrome-plated cylinders. (2) Chrome-plated rings may be used in plain steel cylinders. Regarding the above statements, a. only No. 1 is true. b. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. b
85. What does valve overlap promote? a. A backflow of gases across the cylinder. b. Better scavenging and cooling characteristics. c. Lower intake manifold pressure and temperatures. b
86. Standard aircraft cylinder oversizes usually range from 0.010 inch to 0.030 inch.Oversize on automobile engine cylinders may range up to 0.100 inch. This is because aircraft engine cylinders a. have relatively thin walls and may be nitrided. b. operate at high temperatures. c. have more limited cooling capacity. a
87. Increased water vapor (higher relative humidity) in the incoming air to a reciprocating engine will normally result in which of the following? a. A leaning effect on engines which use non-automatic carburetors. b. Increased power output due to increased volumetric efficiency. c. Decreased engine power at a constant RPM and manifold pressure. c
88. During the inspection of an engine control system in which push-pull control rods are used, the threaded rod ends should a. be checked for thread engagement of at least two threads but not more than four threads. b. be checked for the amount of thread engagement by means of the inspection holes. c. insure that the safety wire passes thru the hole in shank of the rod-end. b
89. An advantage of the axial-flow compressor is its a. low weight. b. low starting power requirements. c. high peak efficiency. c
91. When the leading edge of a first-stage turbine blade is found to have stress rupture cracks, which of the following should be suspected? a. Overspeed condition. b. Faulty cooling shield. c. Overtemperature condition. c
92. When aircraft turbine blades are subjected to excessive heat stress, what type of failures would you expect? a. Bending and torsion. b. Stress rupture. c. Torsion and tension. b
93. What is the proper starting sequence for a turbojet engine? a. Ignition, starter, fuel. b. Starter, ignition, fuel. c. Starter, fuel, ignition. b
94. What is used in turbine engines to aid in stabilization of compressor airflow during low thrust engine operation? a. Stator vanes and rotor vanes. b. Pressurization and dump valves. c. Variable guide vanes and/or compressor bleed valves. c
96. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle a. increases. b. decreases. c. remains constant. a
97. Dirt particles in the air being introduced into the compressor of a turbine engine will form a coating on all but which of the following? a. Turbine blades. b. Inlet guide vanes. c. Casings. a
98. The Brayton cycle is known as the constant a. mass cycle. b. pressure cycle. c. temperature cycle. b
99. What is meant by a shrouded turbine? a. The turbine blades are shaped so that their ends form a band or shroud. b. The turbine wheel is enclosed by a protective shroud to contain the blades in case of failure. c. The turbine wheel has a shroud or duct which provides cooling air to the turbine blades. a
Created by: sampizzuto
 

 



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