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RT 151 test #1
Question | Answer |
---|---|
A converging duct | decreases pressure for an increase in velocity |
As a general rule, you should not add ?? feet of extension tube to an oxygen concentrator | 50 feet |
When troubleshooting a pulse demand oxygen device, you should check | the oxygen cylinder for sufficent pressure, the battery voltage, the battery instilation, the cannula for kinks or obstructions |
A HAFOE (high air flow with oxygen enrichment) mask is set at 40% and the oxygen flowmeter is running at 6 L/min. what is the total flow to the pt. | 24L/min |
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy | increases the Pa02 |
To monitor correctness of respiratory care plans, u should asses | care plan auditors and case study exercises |
Respiratory care plans can be monitored by | Experienced care plan auidtors, computerized case studies, pt. scenarios, "gold standard" assesments |
According to American Association for Respiratory Care Clinical Practice Guideline: Humidification durning meachanical ventilation, a humidifier chosen should | provide body humidity and provide a temp. of at least 30 degrees celsius |
Relative humidity output from most disposable bubble humidifiers range from | 33% to 40% relative humidity |
A HME is placed | between the pt.s airway and the circuit |
When vital signs , Inc., Hi-Fi large-volume nebulizer with the oxygene flowmeter on the "flush" (maximum setting) is used, flow through the jet is | 40 L/min |
What Babington nebulizers is intended for use with a tent | Maxi-cool or Solosphere |
What is a potential risk to pt.s recieving respiratory care | movement or ambulation, electrical shock, and fire hazards |
What parameters should be monitored durning ambulation | skin color, Breathing rate and effort, and level of consciousness |
What has played a major role in increasing cost in health care | compensatory justice |
The liquid that has the lowest surface tension | ethyl alcohol |
What is the absolute humidity (water vapor content) of saturated gas at normal body tempature, 37*C | 43.8 mg/L |
One atmosphere (1 atm) of pressure is equivalent to what | 29.9 inches Hg, 14.7lb/in 2, 1034.0g/cm 2, 760.0mmHg |
What conditions tend to cause laminar flow to become turbulent (producing a high Reynold's number) | high linear gas velocity, high gas density, large tube diameter |
What would be an electrochemical princaple of operation used by an oxygen analyzer | galvanic |
six or more quality-control results on the same side of the mean is termed | a shift |
What factors contribute to maintaining a patent ductus arteriosus during fetal life | low Pa02and presence of prostaglandins |
What % of right ventricular output is circulated through the fetal lungs | 10% |
Infants are more suscepticle to profound hypoexmia than are adults | true |
What external landmark can be used to show the highest point of the dome of the right hemidiaphragm reaches in a healthy individual | eight rib posteriorly |
Limited, short-term spontaneous ventilation is possible in a pt. with a paralyzed diaphram | true |
What is the name of the negitive feedback reflex associated with the termination of inspiration | Hering-Breuer |
What helps compramise the defense system of the nose | impaction of particulate foreign matter on the nasal mucosa |
Why is pulmonary surfactant such an import biologic substance | it promotes lung stability |
What is the equation you would use to compute total peripheral resistance (CO = Cardiac Output) | (mean aortic pressure - right atrial pressure)/CO |
The cardiovascular system regulates perfusion mainly by altering what | capacity and resistance of blood vessels |
What is approx. normal resting CO for a healthy adult | 5000 ml/min |
What are the major effects of peripheral chemoreceptor stimulation | Vasoconstriction and increased heart rate |
What is the effect of surface tension forces in the air-filled lung | it increases the elastic recoil of the lung (promoting collapse) and it makes the lung harder to inflate than if it were filled w/ fluid |
For a given transpulmonary pressure gradient and inflation time, what lung unit would exhibit the greatest change in volume | a unit with normal resistance and normal compliance |
How can the body effectively compensate for an increased V Dphy? | increased tidal volume |
According to Fick's princaple, if oxygen consumption remains constant, an increase in C/O will mainfest itself as which of the following | decrease in the Ca02 - Cv02 |
What are potential causes of hypoxia | decrease in arterial P02, decrease in available Hb, and Decrease in C/O |
A pt. with a normal Pa02 and C/O is exhibiting signs and symptoms of tissue hypoxia. What is the most likely cause | hemoglobin deficiency |
Carbon dioxide is most commonly elevated due to signifigant pulmonary disease that result in small tidal volumes | true |
What acts as the "first-line" or immediate defense against the accumulation of H+ ions | BLOOD buffer system |
In regard to acid excretion by the body... | if one system fails the other can help compensate, the kidneys can only remove fixed acids, the lungs can quickly remove acid |
What explains the lack of an increased anion gap seen in metabolic acidosis caused by HC03 loss | For each HCO3 ion lost, a Cl ion is reabsorbed by the kidney |
What stimulates the Hering-Breuer inflation reflex | the stretch of receptors at high lung volumes |
The S2 (second heart sound) is created primarily by | closure of semilunar valves |
What is implied by an abnormal prolonged PR interval | atrioventricular block |
What is suggested by inverted T waves on the ECG | myocardial ischemia |
An occasional premature ventricular complex (PVC) is not of major concern | true |
What pt.s would transcutaneous blood gas monitoring most likely provide inaccurate or erroneous results | pt.s in hypovolemic shock |
To what should all spirometric values obtained under ambient conditions be converted | body tempature, ambient pressure, saturated (BTPS) |
What may be the drug of choice for managing atopic asthma in children | cromolyn |
What medications would likely be the least often ordered durning the emergency department management of an acute asthma attack | methylxanthines |
Most likely to cause exercise-induced asthma | swimming indoors |
What is the available formulation strength for flunisolide (AeroBid) by meter-dose inhaler | 250mm/puff |
Zileuton belongs to what category | leukotriene modifiers |
Truths about the use of Ribavirin | it is used as an antiviral agent against respiratory syncytial virus, adverse effects include skin rash, conjunctivitis, and eyelid erythema and it can occlude endotracheal tube abd ventilator exhalation valves |
Nebulizer used to nebulize iloprost | I-neb |
What is the standard size for endotracheal or tracheostomy tube adapters | 15 mm external diameter |
What is the purpose of the additional side port (murphy eye) on most modern endotracheal tubes | ensure gas flow if the main port is blocked |
What is the purpose of the pilot balloon on an endotracheal or a tracheostomy tube | monitor cuff staus and pressure |
A pt. is being evaluated for tracheal damage sustained while having undergone prolonged tracheostomy intubation approx. 3 months earlier. volume loop-demonstrates fixed obstrutive pattern | tracheal stenosis |
During fiberoptic bronchoscopy, a pt.s Sp02 drops from 91% to 87%. What is the appropriate action | Give oxygen through scope's open channel or increase the cannula or mask oxygen flow |
What inspired conditions should be maintained when delivering medical gases to the nose or mouth | 50% relative humidity at 20*C to 22*C |
What types of humidifiers are used in clinical practice | heat-moisture exchange, passover humidifer and bubble humidifier |
What is the goal of using an unheated bubble humidifier with oronasal oxygen delivery systems | Raise the humidity of the gas to ambient levels |
Before inspiration and actuation of a metered-dose inhaler, the pt. should exhale to | functional residual capacity |
Advantages of DPI (dry powder inhaler) | low relative cost, no propellants req., no hand- breathcoordination necessary |
A semiconscious pt. w/ inadequate spontaneous ventilation requires aerosol drug administration. what approach would you recommend | SVN w/ delivery by IPPB |
What is the normal recommended dosage for continuous bronchodilator therapy (CBT) | 15.0 mg/hr |
Under what conditions will the guage pressure of a cylinder of N20 accurately represents its contents | When the liquid of the cylinder has completely vaporized and when the ambient temp. exceeds the critical temp. |
The guage on an E cylinder of 02 reads 800 psig. about how long would the contents of this cylinder last, until completely empty, at a flow of 3 L/min | 1 hour 15 minutes |
The NFPA standard for bulk liquid 02 systems requires that the reserve supply be which of the following | equal to the average gas use of 1 day |
When minimal fluctuations in pressure and flow are critical factors, what pressure-reducing valves would be the best choice | multiple-stage pressure-reducing valve |
What are the primary organ systems affected by 02 toxcity | central nervous system and lungs |
What is the upper limit of 02 concentrations available through tents | 40% to 50% |
Appropriate inital settings for intermitten positive-pressure breathing given to a new pt | sensitivity -1 to -2 cm H20; pressure 10 to 15 cm H20; moderate flow |
Primary objectives for postural drainage include | normalize functional residual capacity, help mobilize secretions, improve V/Q |
Advantages of the flutter valve over other bronchial hygiene methods include | good pt. acceptance, full portability, independent use |
Contraindications for the use of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV) | nonsupportive family, lack of finical resources, copious amounts of secretions, uncooperative behavior on the part of the pt. |
Teaching physical skills to pt.s is learning in what domain | psychomotor |